精品解析：四川省雅安市部分校2022-2023学年高三下学期4月联考英语试题（原卷版）

2023届高三考试

英语试题

考生注意：

1. 本试卷共150分，考试时间120分钟。

2. 请将各题答案填写在答题卡上。

第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

例：How much is the shirt?

A. £19. 15.    B. £9. 18.    C. £9. 15.

答案是C。

1. Where is Jennifer working now?

A. In a college.   B. In a hospital.   C. In a drug store.

2. How does the man feel about his driving to work?

A. He feels that it’s not bad.

B. The distance is a little long.

C. It takes him too much time.

3. What are the speakers mainly talking about?

A. A shopping list.   B. Preparations for a picnic.   C. Children’s clothes.

4. When will the woman reach the office tomorrow?

A. At 8:00 am.    B. At 8:30 am.      C. At 9:00 am.

5. Where does the conversation most probably take place?

A. On a bus.    B. In a library.      C. In a shop.

第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What do we know about Mr Bannister?

A. He is new to the company.

B. He works on the trade deal.

C. He is not experienced enough.

7. Who do the speakers think is suitable for the position?

A. Mrs Templeton.   B. Mr Duncan.   C. Amelia.

听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。

8. What is the woman advised to do?

A. Stay in her room.

B. Go to the business center.

C. Visit the fitness center.

9. Where are the meeting rooms?

A. On the right of the lift.

B. Beside the front office.

C. Across the fitness center.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. What are the speakers doing?

A. Cooking.    B. Doing shopping.    C. Watching TV.

11. What does the man like best?

A. Cheese.     B. Milk.      C. Ice cream.

12. When does the conversation take place?

A. At noon.     B. In the late afternoon.   C. In the morning.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. What day is it today?

A. Thursday.    B. Friday.      C. Saturday.

14. What kind of party will the girl attend?

A. A birthday party.   B. A welcome party.    C. A goodbye party.

15. Why does the man refuse the girl to drive his car?

A. She can take the subway.

B. She doesn’t have a license.

C. She is not skilled enough to drive.

16. What gift will the girl bring for Jenny?

A. Some chocolate.   B. A wooden boat.    C. Some flowers.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. What is the man talking about?

A. The first space hotel.

B. A new space lab.

C. Astronauts’ life in space.

18. How many guests can the space hotel hold at a time?

A. Two.     B. Four.      C. Six.

19. What can guests do in the space hotel?

A. Cook food.    B. Watch movies.    C. Have a video chat.

20. What does the speaker think of the space trip?

A. Relaxing.    B. Dangerous.     C. Expensive,’

第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分，满分30分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

A

The Chicago Botanic Garden opened more than 45 years ago as a beautiful place to visit, and it has matured into one of the world’s great living museums and conservation science centers.

Group Visit Packages

Garden Package

♦$41 per person

♦One activity/tour of your choice

♦Private dining area for one hour and lunch

Tours

Grand Tram Tour

♦35-minute guided tour departs on the hour starting at 10 am

♦Travels 2. 6 miles and shows the entire Garden grounds, including such highlights as 81 acres of lakes, nine islands, and beautiful gardens

♦Maximum capacity of 76 people

♦Available during peak season (April-October)

Activities

Butterflies & Blooms

For $6 more per person, put yourself in a habitat filled with more than 500 butterflies native to South America and North America. From late May through early September, 10 am — 5 pm. This visit takes approximately 20 minutes.

Model Railroad Garden

For $6 more per person, add a unique adventure to your package: 15 model trains journey coast-to-coast across bridges, through tunnels, and past miniature (微型) scenes of America’s favorite landmarks. From mid-May to late October, 10 am—5 pm. This visit takes approximately 30 minutes.

Specialty Tours

Library Tour

This tour package includes a rare book viewing, a library tour, and an exhibition tour. Maximum 30 people per tour. This tour takes approximately 50 minutes.

Garden Highlights Walking Tour

On this tour, you will be taken to a garden in full bloom. Areas for touring are determined on the day of your visit and are based on blooms and the group’s capacity to walk. This tour takes approximately 35 minutes.

1. What do we know about Grand Tram Tour?

A. It has no time restriction.

B. It offers eight tours a day.

C. It is available all year round.

D. It limits the number of visitors.

2. How much should you pay to enjoy the wonderful scene of butterflies?

A. $6. B. $20. C. $41. D. $ 47.

3. Which of the following can help you learn about landmarks in America?

A. Library Tour. B. Model Railroad Garden.

C. Butterflies & Blooms. D. Garden Highlights Walking Tour.

B

I look forward to my half-hour train ride to work every morning. I can look out of the window as it twists and turns itself through neighborhoods with the sun casting its strong light on the floor of the train car. I sometimes get lost in thought while following the light. But the reason I love this ride is that it’s a reminder of how neighborhoods can change from block to block.

For almost a year now I have been. riding this train as I head into the office where I work as a reporter for a local magazine. I am one of 13 journalists who help report community news in areas that are often forgotten. And for me,that means covering areas like the one I grew up in.

Last week? as I was on the way to my office, I started wondering how neighborhoods have changed since the 2008 housing crisis. I searched addresses on the city’s southwest side, a neighborhood that has seen a significant number of residential homes pulled down. I scanned the street views recorded on my phone and saw how the neighborhood looked in 2007. Then I set out to visit the city block, and that’s when I met 3-year-old Harmony.

Harmony loved collecting rocks for me to hold as I walked down the street with her mother, Marquita. I already knew what the neighborhood looked like in the past, but Marquita shared more details of the people who once lived on her block, who were really friendly to each other. However, people today in the neighborhood are busy with life and seldom say hello to each other. Marquita has lived on this block her entire life, and Harmony has for most of her short life as well. But the neighborhood that Marquita grew up in will be one that is obviously different from the one Harmony will grow to know.

In the end, they smiled at my camera. And then I got back on the train and headed back to the office to tell their stories.

4. What makes the author love his train ride to work?

A. Being lost in thought.

B. Admiring the outside views.

C. Enjoying the warm sunshine.

D. Knowing the change of blocks.

5. How did the author find out what the city’s southwest side looked like in the past?

A. By reading earlier reports.

B. By interviewing local people.

C. By watching past street views.

D. By searching his memories.

6. How might Marquita feel when she talked with the author?

A. Nervous. B. Sad. C. Touched. D. Guilty.

7. What is the main purpose of the text?

A. To tell us the work of a news reporter.

B. To share a pleasant train ride with us.

C. To show us a crowded community.

D. To introduce a new neighborhood.

C

As you walk around the UK in March, you might notice that some people are wearing a daffodil(水仙花) on their coats. The British wear these yellow flowers to show they support one of this country’s best-known charities: the Marie Curie Cancer Care.

The Marie Curie Cancer Care tries to ensure everyone diagnosed with cancer is cared for in the best possible way. It also helps fund research into possible cures through other organizations. Founded in 1948, it has been continuing with its goal ever since.

The charity was named after Marie Curie, a renowned scientist. She experimented with newly-discovered elements to create the theory of radioactivity. Unfortunately, over-exposure to the radioactive elements made her develop a disease and die in 1934. Marie Curie won the Nobel Prize in two different fields. Because of her pioneering work which led to chemotherapy (化学疗法), the charity shared the name of Marie Curie.

The daffodil is one of the first plants to flower during spring in the UK, which marks the return of flowering plants to the ecosystem after winter. Because of this, the charity uses the daffodil as a metaphor for bringing life to other people through charitable giving.

Everyone you see wearing a daffodil has donated money to the charity, but each daffodil is worth only what you want to pay for it. The charity does ask that you stick to a minimum amount of £1.

The charity encourages people to start wearing their daffodils at the start of March, when the “Great Daffodil Appeal” kicks off. But that doesn’t mean you can only wear them in March. People are sometimes seen walking around with daffodils on their clothes all year round.

8. What does it mean when the British wear a daffodil on their coats?

A. They support a charity. B. They are recovering from cancer.

C. They’ve been helped by a charity. D. They’ve been diagnosed with cancer.

9. What does the underlined word “renowned” in paragraph 3 mean?

A. Beautiful. B. Modest. C. Famous. D. Humorous.

10. Why was the charity named after Marie Curie?

A. Because patients required that. B. Because it was launched by her.

C. Because she greatly supported it. D. Because it could show respect for her.

11. What can we learn about the daffodil from the text?

A. It can be used as medicine. B. It’s thought to stand for hope.

C. It’s widely worn worldwide. D. It’s sold to the wearers at a high price.

D

Sulphur-crested cockatoos (葵花凤头鹦鹉) are common in western Australia, where they normally live in wooded areas. But as forests have been cut down, cockatoos have gotten used to living near people. Scientists report that people in Sydney, Australia are in a battle with these birds.

Last year, scientists at the Max Planck Institute reported that the cockatoos had learned how to open the covers of trash bins. That’s not an easy job. The cockatoos must lift the heavy cover with their beaks (喙) and then walk along, pushing the cover up until it falls over.

When scientists first began studying the cockatoos in 2018, only three areas near Sydney had cover-opening cockatoos. A year and a half later, cockatoos in 44 different areas knew the trick. This time the scientists weren’t just studying cockatoos. They were also studying humans.

The scientists spent weeks studying more than 3,200 trash bins in four different areas of Sydney. They wanted to see how many bins were protected and what methods were used.

In one area, over half the bins were protected. The most common way of protecting the bins was to put a brick or some other heavy objects on the cover. Some people put things like rubber snakes on the top of their bins. The scientists discovered that the humans were teaching each other tricks, too. In most neighborhoods, many people used the same cockatoo-stopping methods as their neighbors.

The researchers say it’s like a race between humans and cockatoos to learn new ways of doing things. Now many cockatoos have learned how to push heavy items off the bins. As a result, humans have figured out ways to attach the items to the top of their bins. The scientists describe the situation as a “human-wildlife conflict”. They expect these conflicts will become more common as humans take over more areas that used to be wild.

12. What can we infer about the cockatoos from the text?

A. They like copying humans’ behavior.

B. They are newly found in Australia.

C. They don’t like living with people.

D. They are very clever birds.

13. What did the scientists want to know in paragraph 4?

A. How the cockatoos learned the trick.

B. Why the birds in more areas did the trick.

C. How humans responded to the birds’ trick.

D. Why humans taught the birds to do the trick.

14. What did the researchers find about cockatoos in their research?

A. They wanted their habitat back.

B. They intended to make humans angry.

C. They could adopt new ways to open bins.

D. They disliked looking for food themselves.

15. What is the best title for the text?

A. A battle over trash bins between cockatoos and humans

B. A human-wildlife conflict all over Australia

C. A problem caused by cockatoos to humans

D. A big problem of “homeless” cockatoos

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分)

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

How to link paragraphs in an essay

Composing essays is an art that you must master to score good marks. For any paragraph written you must be able to link that with the former or the latter. ___16___.

Read, read, read

Teachers suggest the habit of reading to enhance your quality of writing. ___17___. Note how the essay uses linking words and the careful selection of them. Pay special attention to the flow and the professional manner in which the essay is presented for readers.

Be aware about signposting

___18___, but their use must also be known carefully. Before using them for your purpose, remember that a good essay essentially rely on these words to help readers understand the logic and make it look more coherent (连贯).

___19___

Just that some words connect ideas in your essay doesn’t mean you can use them as you like. For showing likeness or agreeableness, use words like again, too, also, as well as, of course, and so on. If you show contradiction, use regardless, even so, but, nonetheless, besides and so on. For causes and conditions, if, since, so that, due to, are words you must fall back upon.

Make a draft

If you wish to see how your essay stands, make a draft and read it thoroughly. ___20___. Ask yourself questions if the points have been explained well or are they relevant to the context. If you feel few aspects need more emphasis, check for the linking words and correct them accordingly.

A. Stick to the logic

B. Pick words carefully

C. If stuck, you can take help from the following 4 tips

D. That way, you will be able to find your own mistakes and correct them

E. Reading through a number of sample essays will help you design better essays

F. Signposts refer to linking words or phrases associating one paragraph to some other

G Keep these 4 tips in mind and you will face no trouble linking paragraphs to the essay

第三部分语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)

第一节(共20小题;每小题1. 5分，满分30分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

Tia and Susan worked in the same company.  One day, Susan’s manager informed her that Tia and Susan shared a(n) ____21____struggle: Both women’s husbands ____22____from kidney(肾脏)failure and had been put on the transplant ____23____ . When Tia and Susan told each other about their husbands’ kidney disease, that ____24____ conversation incidentally led to the lifesaving kidney surgery both of their husbands ____25____needed.

Tia and Susan’s life-changing ____26____all started over a small talk in their office restroom. During the ____27____encounter, the two women discussed their husbands’ ____28____through the transplant evaluation process.  The conversation led to the ____29____of their blood types.  Susan mentioned that her _____30_____,Lance, was blood type O, while she was type A—meaning she couldn’t _____31_____a kidney to her husband.  That was when Tia got a brainwave: Tia was type O,and her husband, Rodney, was type A.  By a(n) _____32_____coincidence,each woman was a blood type _____33_____for the other woman’s husband.  This _____34_____ they could become one another’s exchange donor.

Tia immediately went back to her desk and _____35_____called her husband’s doctor with the news.  Tests _____36_____that Tia and Susan were indeed matches, and the two couples received donor approval.  Seven months later, Tia, Rodney, Susan and Lance _____37_____a paired kidney exchange transplant on the same day.  Susan’s kidney was _____38_____to Rodney, and later that day, Tia’s kidney was given to Lance.  The _____39_____were successful.

The two families were so lucky.  Had it not been for that friendly office _____40_____,Susan said, things might not have progressed, and their husbands would still be on the transplant list.

21. A. wrong B. common C. ordinary D. exceptional

22. A. escaped B. hung C. resulted D. suffered

23. A. list B. operation C. form D. receipt

24. A. formal B. intentional C. brief D. representative

25. A. desperately B. ultimately C. sincerely D. eventually

26 A. convention B. expectation C. connection D. inspection

27. A. peaceful B. random C. temporary D. domestic

28. A. advice B. treatment C. welfare. D. progress

29. A. choice B. topic C. dream D. chance

30. A. husband B. neighbor C. friend D. son

31. A. find B. purchase C. borrow D. donate

32. A. usual B. typical C. incredible D. elegant

33 A. match B. course C. condition D. case

34. A. proved B. stressed C. meant D. caused

35. A. constantly B. confusedly C. secretly D. excitedly

36. A. concluded B. confirmed C. calculated D. compared

37. A. went through B. got away with C. came across D. took apart in

38. A. purchased B. delivered C. attached D. transplanted

39. A. activities B. surgeries C. experiments D. companies

40. A. conference B. debate C. chat D. speech

第二节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

John is a Mazahua textile artist from the community of San Felipe Santiago, Villa de Allende, Mexico. Ten-year-old John was ___41___ (great) attracted by the unique forms and beautiful colors of the Mazahua textiles, and asked his mother to teach him embroidery (刺绣). But he ___42___ (tell) that a man shouldn’t learn it and that a man must spend his time on other things. However, ___43___ his mother said didn’t affect John’s big interest ___44___ embroidery.

After that talk with his mother, John set about ___45___ (make) the effort to learn the artform and hoped to change ___46___ idea that men couldn’t learn embroidery. He wished to share their cultural heritage through their textiles, so he attended events like meetings related to their ___47___ (tradition) textiles. To date, he ___48___ (win) many national prizes presented to people who promote art.

John’s success has changed community opinions and encouraged young people, including men, ___49___ (preserve) their unique embroidery art. Women from these communities have begun to teach their son to embroider. Clearly, John made a big ____50____ (contribute) to the protection of their cultural heritage.

第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)

51. 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(/\)，并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。

On the Lantern Festival, my friends and I went to watch the lantern show holding at the cultural square, at what we saw thousands of wonderful lanterns and sculptures. To better enjoy its brilliance, so we went there early in the evening. Arriving there, we immediately attracted by variety lanterns and sculptures shining in the colorful lights. Many residents spoke high of those fine lanterns and sculptures and kept taken photos. In our surprise, there were also special performance there which were enjoyed by almost all the visitors. We spend about three hours there and then returned home happily and excitedly.

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

52. 假定你是学生会干事李华，你校将举办一场主题为“Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Modern Education”的讲座，请你用英文为校宣传栏写一则通知，内容包括：

1. 讲座内容；

2. 讲座时间和地点；

3. 欢迎积极参加。

注意：1. 写作词数应为80左右；

2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Notice

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The Student Union

听力答案：1~5 AABAA   6~10 CACBB   11～15 CBACC   16~20 BABCC