湖北省武汉市东湖高新区2022-2023学八年级上学期期中考试英语试卷 (含答案)

这是一份湖北省武汉市东湖高新区2022-2023学八年级上学期期中考试英语试卷 (含答案)

东湖高新区2022-2023学年度第一学期期中考试八年级 英语试卷2022年11 月说明：1. 本卷分为选择题和非选择题两部分，满分120分，考试时间120分钟。2. 请将全部答案写在答题卡上。第I卷 (选择题共85分)第一部分 听力部分一、听力测试 (共三节，满分25分) 第一节 (共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分) 听下面4个问题，每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。. 1. A. Next Monday. B. Once a month. C. At 12 o’clock. 2. A. Novels. B. History books. C. Game shows. ·3. A. Lily. B. Twelve. C. Friendly. 4. A. To the park. B. Wonderful. C. By train. 第二节 (共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分) 听下面8段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。5. How will the speakers go to the Great Wall? A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By car. 6. How many times has the girl been to Malaysia? A. Never. B. Once. C. Twice. 7. What are the speakers probably talking about? A. B. C. 8. What does the girl think of Tina? A. She is not as tall as Tara. B. She is taller than Tara. C. She sings as loudly as Tara. 9. When did the early bus leave? A. At 6: 25am B. At 6: 30am. C. At 6: 35am. 10 What did Alex do In Kunming last week? A. He went for a trip. B. He went hiking. C. He swam in a lake. 11. How much is the white. hat? A. 30 dollars. B. 40 dollars. C. 50 dollars. 12. What do we know about Victor? A. He’ll go fishing next weekend. B. He knows Professor Smith well. C. He is interested in fishing. 第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分) 听下面4段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选 出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟 的作答时间，每段对话读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。13. Who does best in high jump? A. Mike B. Dave. C. Dick. 14 What do you think of Mike? A. Kind. B. Funny. C. Confident. 15. What can we know from the conversation? A. Mike doesn’t like running. B. Sam is good at running. C. Dick is poor in high jump. 听下面一段对话，回答16至18三个小题。16. What’s the conversation about? A. Selling food. B. Ordering food. C. Offering help. 17. What is the restaurant famous for? A. Noodles. B. Chicken soup. C. Dumplings. 18. What would they like to drink? A. Cold water. B. Beer and Coke. C. Milk and juice. 听下面一段对话，回答19至22四个小题。19. Where are they talking? A. In the street. B. In the cinema. C. At home. 20. What does the boy think of tha seats of the cinema? A. The most comfortable. B. The newest. C. The biggest. 21. What is the boy going to do? A. Learning about cinemas. B. Watching a movie. C. Buying tickets. 22. What can we know from the conversation? A. The service of the cinema is the best. B. The girl is very kind and helpful. C. The boy knows a lot about cinemas in his hometown. 听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。23. Where is the boy from? A. The US. B. China. C. The UK. 24. How long did Harry study Chinese before his holiday? A. For about four weeks. B. For a few months. C. For a week. 25. Which is true about Harry? A. He can’t speak Chinese at all. B. He likes Chinese very much. C. His Chinese is poor. 第二部分 笔试部分二、 单项选择 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。将代表该答案的字母在答题卡上相应的位置涂黑。26. — What do you think of sitcoms? — __________. I want to learn some jokes from them. A. I can’t stand them、 B. I am not sure C. I don’t mind them D. I love them27. — Please show me your health code (码) . either on WeChat or Alipay. — __________. Here it is. A. It’s nothing B. No problem C. Go ahead D. I’m not sure28. — I’m sorry, but I thought I could finish it in three days. — __________. After all, you tried your best. A. Certainly not B. Thanks a lot C. Never mind D. I agree29. — It rained __________ when I got out of work. — That’s terrible! Many people got all wet because it was rush hour. A. hardly B. strongly C. heavily D. lightly30. —Mum, must we wear the mask to protect ourselves? —Yes. I am afraid we __________. That is to keep us safe and healthy A. can B. have to C. may D. need31. —How often do you write e-mails to your brother? —Only once a month. __________ of us has much time. A. Neither B. None C. Either D. Both32. —I’d like to get a nice dress. — Follow me please! Here are lots of beautiful dresses to __________ from. A. choose · B. wear C. share D. follow33. — What’s your biggest interest, Tina? — My biggest interest? My life is so __________ that I can’t find time for hobbies. A. simple B. full C. enjoyable D. meaningless34. —I heard Mark is going to give up his job. That’s not true, right? — But he sounded quite __________. A. strict B. excited C. bored D. serious35. —You’d better take a notebook with you __________ you can take down notes. —Thank you for your suggestion. A. as long as B. as soon as C. so that. D. even if36. — Bill, could you help me __________ when the plane will take off on the Internet? —Sorry, my computer doesn’t work. A. get out B. find out C. work out D. look out37. — Can we get to the village before 7 o’clock? —I am afraid not—the bus __________ doesn’t start so early. A. ticket B. station C. service D. business38. ‘ — Has Jane done the washing yet? — Sure. She’s helpful and you can __________ her to do any housework. A. want B. order C. wish D. expect39, — She __________ drawing at the age of 5 and has kept the hobby to this day. — No wonder she is so good at it, A. made up B. took up C. put up D. set up40. — It seems that she is moved to cry by the heroics (英雄事迹) —I wonder __________. A. why is she crying C. when will she cry C. what can we do for her D. what she has heard about三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳 选项。 On the surface (表面) of the sea, two sea monsters’ (怪兽) heads came out and their friendship began. They were Luca and Alberto from the movie, Luca ( 《夏日友晴天》 ) . As sea monsters, they were told not to leave the sea because humans would 41 them. Naughty and curious, the two friends 42 decided to see the outside world. Their 43 began. They ate lots of ice cream and pasta, . 44 motorbikes and tried to prove themselves in competitions with humans. They 45 a summer of great freedom. A moment has touched me deeply. Luca and Alberto were afraid of the rain because 46 they got wet, they turned from their look into their 47 look of monsters. One rainy day, Alberto was in a hurry to send a/an 48 to Luca, but he fell down. and turned into a sea monster. The villagers found him and tried to catch the poor boy in the street. Luca, who had already . 49 to the monster because of the rain, rushed down the street to save Alberto 50 a second thought. At the same time, Julia, their human friend, ran toward them, trying to help. Facing hundreds of 51 faces, she tried to tell people that her friends were not bad. I burst into (突然爆发) . 52 . This isn’t just about a monster saving his friend, but also about love . 53 different creatures. This heart-warming moment taught me that friends should be the 54 who will stand up for you. This was an unforgettable summer for the three of them, and a 55 movie for me! 41. A. tell B. catch C. hear D. beat42 A. still B. already C. even D. only 43. A. holiday B. trip C. friendship D. plan 44. A. brought B. bought C. rode D. made45. A. enjoyed B. stood C. found D. tried46. A. though B. until C. unless D. once47. A. true B. real C. clear D. famous48. A. mask B. coat C. umbrella D. hat49. A. came back B. brought back C. got back D. turned back50. A. after B. for C. in D. without51. A. happy B. sad C. angry D. nervous52. A. tears B. laughter C. excitement D. shouts53. A. between B. for C. to D. in54. A. monsters B. person C. one D. ones55. A. funny B. meaningful C. sad D. scary四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，共30分) 阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。56. In which section of the newspaper can we read the news? A. NATURE B. EDUCATION C. WORLD D. CHARITY57. The best heading for the first news would be __________. A. Races in Chicago River B. Diving into an Event C. To Get a Duck D. Dressing Up as Yellow Ducks58. If a child gets afraid of wearing glasses, Danielle will __________. A. ask Truffles to play some trucks B. make the patient wear Truffles’ glasses C. put on truffles’ glasses D. take Truffles as an example59. What is true according to the news above? A. 70. 000 red ducks dived into the water for the race. B. To raise money, people in Chicago adopted ducks for a race. C. Danielle shows the cat with glasses to all of his patients D. People in the Seagull Cry Championship must dress up like seagulls. 60. Why is the Seagull Cry World Championship held every year? A. To create joy for people. B. To show people’s talent in imitation, C. To call on people to care for seagulls D. To protect seagulls’ homes and babiesB Last summer, I planned to take a short holiday in the woods. My husband wasn’t available, but I really wanted to see the Perseids meteor shower (英仙座流星雨). So I decided to go camping on my own, which I’d never done before. After throwing the sleeping bag and a few things to eat into the car, I was on my way. I was a little nervous about being alone. As soon as I reached the camping spot, I asked the guide if he thought I’d be all right camping alone. “Sure,” he said. His answer was somewhat reassuring (令人放心的). After supper, I got the fire started easily. Looking up, I couldn’t see much of the sky through the trees. Falling asleep quickly, I was awakened (吵醒) a few hours later by some noises. It sounded too loud. Thankfully, after a few minutes, it stopped. But I was scared the rest of the night. I didn’t think it was a good idea to go out and look at the star after all. As I lay there, I heard squirrel and an ow (猫头鹰) calling. I was somewhat glad I was awake to hear this sound of nature The next morning, my neighbor talked about how a bear had visited in the night and knocked over some chairs. Luckily, the bear hadn’t done any more damage (损坏) than that. While I was disappointed at not seeing the shooting stars, I’m now a lot more confident ( 自信的) about camping by myself Bear or no bear. 61. What made the writer go camping alone? A. Her husband’s encouragement. C. Her wish to see the shooting stars. B. Her love for the woods. D. Her courage to challenge herself. 62. Why did the writer talk with the guide at the camping spot? A. She felt worried about the weather. B. She wanted to make friends with him. C. She needed someone to help. put up the tent. D. She worried about camping alone. 63. We can infer from the underlined sentence that the writer may __________. A. love the sound of nature B. be glad to be awake C. change her opinion about her trip D. feel happy about hearing the calling64. The passage is developed by __________. A. time B. space C. examples D. contrasts (对比) 65. What would be the best title of the passage? A. Sound of Nature B. Camping Creates Confidence C. Enjoying Meteor Shower D. A Wonderful Holiday in the WoodsC Yangzhou paper cutting, with a history of 2, 000 years, can be dated back (追溯到) to the Sui Dynasty. It makes Yangzhou one of the popular places where paper cutting first appeared. In the Sui Dynasty, the people of Yangzhou would cut colorful paper or silk to celebrate festivals. It is said that Emperor Yang went to Yangzhou three times One winter, the flowers and trees were dry and weak. He then ordered his servants to make fine silk into owes and leaves and use them to decorate the trees and lakes. copying the looks of spring and summer. Since then, “colorful cutting” has become a popular art in Yangzhou. In the Tang Dynasty, the paper cutting industry was greatly developed and a large amount of high quality paper cutting was made as presents to the Court (宫廷). In the Qing Dynasty, the people of Yangzhou became interested in wearing embroidered (刺绣的) clothing. The embroidered designs were based on (以……为基础) paper cuts, the most well-known of them was from Bao Jun, paper cutting master. He became very famous as Magic Scissors for his wonderful cutting skill. After the People’s Republic of China was founded, the Chinese government realized the importance of Yangzhou paper cutting. In 2007, China Paper-cuts Museum built in the back garden of Wangs house was open to the public, which greatly helped with he development (发展) of Yangzhou paper cutting.66. According to the passage, what made Yangzhou popular? A. The long history of paper cutting. B. The Emperor Yang’s order. C. The tradition of using paper. D. The popularity of silk. 67. The underlined word “decorate” in Paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________. A. grow B. water C. beautify D. cut68. We can know from the passage that paper cutting __________. A. was all made of paper B. was only popular in Yangzhou C. was once used as gifts D. was based on embroidery designs69. Where is this passage probably from? A. A person’s diary B. A magazine. C. A notice. D. A science book. 70. What’s the passage mainly about A. The reasons for protecting traditional arts. B. The importance of Yangzhou paper cutting C. The introduction of Yangzhou paper cutting D. The ways of keep Yangzhou paper cutting alive第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共35分)五、词 与 短 语 填 空 ( 共 5 小 题 ， 每 小 题 2 分 ， 总分 10 分)mind / takeout / decides / bring out / talented / follow / makes 71. What a difference a day __________!72. It’s healthy for the __________ and the body.73. Larry often helps to __________ the best in me74. Everybody is good at something, but some people are truly __________.75. I like to __________ the story and see what happens next. 六、 阅读理解填词 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的单词，单词的第一个字母已给出。 Within one month. a 16-year-old Chinese girl stood out in two international break dancing (霹雳舞) competitions. Liu Qingyi, a break-dancer from Henan, w__________ (76) the World Battle 2022 break dancing contest on Sept 4th. 2022. E__________ (77) on Aug 7th, 2022, she also got the first prize at Outbreak Europe 2022. It m__________ (78) her the first Chinese break-dancer to become a shining star in the world’s top break dancing contest Six years ago, the then 10-vear-old Liu saw a g__________ (79) of people break-dancing on the street for the first time. She thought it was so cool and s__________ (80) to practice, too. With great effort, the t__________ (81) girl has shocked the world. She has also made h__________ (82) in Chinese break dancing. In competitions, break - dancers have one - on - one battles (斗舞), Liu said it is the most d__________ (83) part because it requires (要求) great strength and style . However, Liu s__________ (84) both perfectly. “I want people to see s__________ (85) different every time instead of getting bored with me after the first surprise,” she said in an interview after the competition.七、书面表达 (共1大题，满分15分) 假如你是李明，上周你收到你的英国笔友Alice的来信，她想了解你进入初中后的变化和近况。请你根据以下中文提示，给她写一封回信。内容要点如下：1. 长高了， 比小学时候外向些；2. 生活方式更健康，每周至少锻炼三次；3. 现在喜欢看体育节目，尤其是足球比赛；4. 周末经常做志愿者，帮助社区的老年人；5. 适当补充一两点个人想法。注意：1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称；2. 词数：60-80: 3. 内容连贯，不要逐条翻译；4. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。参考词汇： outgoing adj. 外向的 volunteer n. 志愿者 community n. 社区Dear Alice, Let me tell you about my changes and my life in middle school ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Best wishes! Li Ming东湖高新区2022-2023学年度第一学期期中考试八年级 英语试卷一、听力测试 (1 分*25=25 分) 1-5 BCABC 6-10 CBBAA 11-15 CCACB 16-20 BCCAA 21-25 BCAAC二、选择填空 (1 分*15=15 分) 26-30 DBCCB 31-35 AABDC 36-40 BCDBD三、完形填空 (1 分*15=15 分) 41-45 BABCA 46-50 DBCDD 51-55 CAADB四、阅读理解 (2 分*15=30 分) 56-60 CBDBC 61-65 CDCAB 66-70 ACCBC五、词与短语选择填空 (2 分*5=10 分) 71. makes 72. mind 73. bring out 74. talented 75. follow(每个答案的单词只有完全正确才能得 2 分，没有 1 分。) 六、阅读理解填词 (1 分*10=10 分) 76. won 77. Earlier 78. made 79. group 80. started 81. talented 82. history 83. difficult 84. showed 85. something (每个答案的单词只有词根、拼写完全正确才能得 1 分，没有 0. 5 分。) 七、书面表达 (one possible version) (15 分) Dear Alice， Let me tell you about my changes and my life in middle school. I’m taller than I was in the primary school. And I’m more outgoing than before, so I’ve made many friends. My lifestyle is healthier than before. I exercise at least three times a week. In my free time, I like watching sports programs, especially football matches. On weekends, I usually volunteer to help the old in our community. I think it’s meaningful and I can learn a lot from volunteer work. I have a colorful and meaningful life. (78 words) Best wishes! Li Ming________________________________ A group of yellow rubber ducks wearing sunglasses dived (跳水) into the Chicago River to raise money for a local charity (慈善) , 70, 000 ducks were dropped into the water ready for a race . People in Chicago could “adopt” (领养) a duck for S5 to take part in the race. About $310, 340 was raised during the event, A Cat’s Special Job—Comforting Young Patients (病人) Truffle was a homeless cat found by Danielle D. Crull, an optician (验光师), is now working at a Child’s Eyes in America. Truffles is used to wearing glasses, she becomes a perfect example for Danielle’s young patients. If a patient is shy or anxious, Danielle will say “Would you like to see Truffles’ glasses?” With her glasses on, Truffles always make kids feel safe and comfortable during their visits.The Bird Call Competition Huoh, huoh! Loud bird calls came from the 2022 Seagull Cry World Championship (“海鸥叫声”世界锦标赛) in France . It wasn’t birds, though. It was people! They imitated (模仿) seagulls and competed to be the best. To make it more fun, people wear silly costumes (服装). The seagulls use the sounds to protect their homes and babies. 一、评分原则评分时，先根据短文的内．容．、语．言．和思．维．逻．辑．以及写．作．规．范．初步判定其所属档次，然后根据该档次的具体要求来确定或调整档次，最后给分。这一原则也称之为整体评分或印象评分。评分时，应关注的短文内．容．为：内容要点表达的清楚程度、完整性及合理性。评分时，应关注的短文语．言．和思．维．逻．辑．为：运用词汇和语法结构的准确性及上下文语意的连贯或完整性。评分时，应关注的短文写．作．规．范．为：词数不少于 60 词，拼写和标点符号符合写作规范(英、美拼写及词汇用法均视为符合要求) ，如书写较差，以致影响交际 (认读和理解) ，建议将分数降低一个档次。先根据整体印象定档，然后再根据以下档次打分 (特别是语法类的错误按照种类，而不是按照错误个数扣分。特别注意：1. 人称, 根据表达需要确定人称；2. 一种意思多种表达均可； 3. 连接词的运用；4. 单词拼写、固定搭配等一般 3 个错误扣 1 分) 。做到给分有理、扣分有据! 谨慎给满分; 6 分以下的四档、五档的能给分的尽量给, 鼓励学生动笔。二、档次的判定英语书面表达题的评判一般把学生写作的短文分为五个档次。第一档次： (13~15 分) 短文能呈现所有内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚、合理且基本无错误。第二档次： (10~12 分) 短文能呈现绝大部分内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚且无严重错误，有少数单词拼写错误。第三档次： (7~9 分) 短文能呈现大部分内容要点，写出的句子虽然有语法错误但能表达基本信息，有较多的单词拼写错误。第四档次： (4~6 分) 短文包含部分内容要点，写出的句子有较严重的语法错误，表达的意思也不清楚，有较多的单词拼写错误。第五档次： (1~3 分) 短文包含少量内容要点，写出的句子有严重语法错误，基本不能表达语意，或只写出几个关键词。注意：如短文出现以下情况：未能传递任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清，默写的课文或者抄写的试卷内容的，建议判零分。