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2022年湖北省恩施州中考二模英语试题(无答案)
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这是一份2022年湖北省恩施州中考二模英语试题(无答案)，共9页。
本试题卷共8页，全卷满分120分，考试用时120分钟
★祝考试顺利★
注意事项：
1. 考生答题全部在答题卷上，答在试题卷上无效。
2. 请认真核对监考教师在答题卷上所粘贴条形码的姓名、准考证号是否与本人相符合，再将自己的姓名、准考证号码用0.5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卷及本试题卷上。
3. 选择题作答必须用2B铅笔将答题卷上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题作答必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将答案直接答在答题卷上对应的答题区域内。
4. 做听力部分时，先将答案标在试题卷上。录音内容结束后，再将试题卷上的答案转涂到答题卷上。
5. 考生不得折叠答题卷，保持答题卷的整洁。考试结束后，请将试题卷和答题卷一并上交。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并标在试题卷的相应位置。听完每个句子后你有4秒钟时间作答和阅读下一小题。每个句子读两遍。
1. A. Hw d yu d?B. Fine, thank yu.C. I am wrking.
2. A. S it is.B. Cngratulatins!C. Gd luck!
3. A. Yes, I’d like t.B. Well dne.C. That’s OK.
4. A. That’s t bad.B. Never mind.C. It’s a pleasure.
5. A. Yes, I d.B. Yes, I will.C. Yes, I have.
第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听5段小对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试题卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你有5秒钟时间作答和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
6. Hw many children are there in Zhang Ming’s family?
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.
7. Which sprt des Lily like?
A. Sccer.B. Basketball.C. Table tennis.
8. Where is Steven ging?
A. T England.B. T France.C. T Canada.
9. What’s the time nw?
A. 7:45.B. 8:00.C. 8:15.
10. Hw is the weather tday?
A. Sunny.B. Rainy.C. Cludy.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听两段长对话，每段对话后分别有几个小题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试题卷的相应位置。每段对话读两遍。
听第11段材料，回答第11至12小题。听之前你有5秒钟时间阅读相关小题，听完后你有5秒钟时间作答。
11. What’s the relatinship between the speakers?
A. Grandma and grandsn.B. Waitress and custmer.C. Brther and sister.
12. What’s Henry’s favrite fd?
A. Fried rice.B. Rast duck.C. Chicken sup.
听第12段材料，回答第13至15小题。听之前你有5秒钟时间阅读相关小题，听完后你有5秒钟时间作答。
13. Where des Jack ask Jenny t g?
A. T the park.B. T the shp.C. T his huse.
14. Why des Jenny refuse Jack at first?
A. She dislikes running.B. She dislikes being cld.C. She dislikes Mark.
15. What may Jenny d next?
A. Sit in the rm.B. G t watch the race.C. Give Jack a call.
第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听短文，根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出所给问题的最佳答案，并标在试题卷的相应位置。听短文前你有15秒钟时间阅读相关小题，听完后你有10秒钟时间作答。短文读两遍。
16. Lin Ta went fr a picnic with ________.
A. his friendsB. his familyC. his classmates
17. They played games and tk phts ________.
A. n the beachB. under a treeC. by the riverside
18. When they saw fish swimming in the river, they felt very ________.
A. surprisedB. happyC. excited
19. One f them suggested ________ in the river.
A. fishingB. swimmingC. bating
20. They decided t swim in the swimming pl ________.
A. the next FridayB. the next SaturdayC. the next Sunday
第二部分 语言运用（共四节，满分30分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题0.5分，满分5分）
请从下列各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. They want t have ________ sme fr supper, s they decide t catch ________ nw.
A. fish; muchB. fish; manyC. fishes; many
22. This kind f sup smells ________ and sells ________.
A. well; wellB. gd; gdC. gd; well
23. -________ can yu get t the airprt?
-In abut 30 minutes. I’m n the way.
A. Hw snB. Hw lngC. Hw ften
24. -Hw d yu like the singing cmpetitin yesterday?
-Exciting, ________ sme students didn’t d very well.
A. becauseB. andC. thugh
25. -What d yu think f Han Hng?
-She is my favrite singer. I think n ne can sing ________.
A. wellB. betterC. best
26. -Jim, culd yu please answer the questin?
-Srry, I ________ Culd yu say it again?
A. dn’t listenB. am nt listeningC. wasn’t listening
27. My deskmate and I are ging t ________ a talk shw at the party t celebrate the 73rd birthday f ur mtherland.
A. put nB. put utC. put up
28. -Fur children were walking under a small umbrella. But ________ f them gt wet. Can yu guess why?
-Because it was nt raining.
A. allB. smeC. nne
29. Tm spent as much time as he culd ________ English.
A. learningB. t learnC. learn
30. -Remember t keep a safe distance at least ne meter, Tina!
-________. It’s necessary fr us t d s in public.
A. That’s all rightB. OK, I willC. N way
第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
The srting f garbage has many advantages. It can nt nly prtect the envirnment, but als 31 wasting the useful rubbish. S peple have cme up with many gd 32 t srt their rubbish.
A UK cmpany invented a “smart dustbin” t help with waste srting 33 . Peple just need t drp their waste int the dustbin. A camera and sensrs (感应器) in the dustbin can tell what type f rubbish it is and crrectly srt it.
Suth Krea is using a way called “Pay Fr Yur Waste” t 34 its peple t reduce fd waste. When thrwing away rubbish, there is a special dustbin fr fd waste nly. The smart dustbin then tells the 35 f the fd. Peple have t pay fr their fd waste by scanning (扫描) a barcde (条形码) n the dustbin. If they thrw away 36 fd, they will pay mre.
Japan des best 37 waste srting in the wrld. They srt waste s carefully that even plastic bttles and their caps g int different dustbins. Different types f paper 38 have their wn dustbins.
China is imprving its waste srting skills. On July 1, 2019, Shanghai intrduced waste srting rules. If smene des nt fllw these rules, peple frm the relevant departments will 39 them. Shanghai als wrks with Alipay t 40 “green accunts (账户)” service fr its residents (居民). If yu srt the garbage crrectly, yu will get mre pints in yur accunt. If yu get mre pints, yu will get mre gifts.
31. A. avidB. finishC. enjyD. mind
32. A. answersB. methdsC. resultsD. titles
33. A. certainlyB. cmpletelyC. recentlyD. directly
34. A. refuseB. encurageC. surveyD. shw
35. A. weightB. clrC. shapeD. taste
36. A. lessB. nicerC. wrseD. mre
37. A. atB. nC. inD. t
38. A. bagsB. mneyC. prductsD. cups
39. A. supprtB. agreeC. discverD. punish
40. A. createB. findC. checkD. imagine
第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
仔细阅读下面五个句子，然后用方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。（提示：选项中有一个是多余的。）
41. The traveler ________ his map t make sure he was nt lst.
42. Wherever I g, nthing can make me ________ my mtherland.
43. Sally is always ________ curage. She faces any difficulty in her life bravely.
44. Jack spke in a lw vice, s I culd ________ hear him at the back f the classrm.
45. Yesterday my uncle made a reprt abut hw t prtect the animals and plants ________.
第四节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式（不超过3词）。
It’s quite natural fr us t make mistakes. Hwever, 46 yu make the same mistake fr three times r even mre, yu’re t silly t be frgiven. Hw d yu avid making the same mistake again in daily study? I think keeping an errr crrectin bk after class is a gd way. Mistakes must be 47 (crrect) in the students’ learning. Crrecting is mre valuable ver the lng term, especially fr the 48 (nine) graders. An errr crrectin bk can help yu in these ways.
Pay attentin t yur mistakes 49 time. When crrecting mistakes, students will think 50 (serius) and imprve frm crrecting mistakes. Always lking ver yur wn errr crrectin bk can make up fr yur knwledge gaps.
Develp gd studying habits. The reasns why students make mistakes are as fllws: they dn’t fully understand what they have 51 (learn); they dn’t remember what they shuld remember: they are t careless.
T find ut the reasns fr the mistakes, students will avid the abve pints. And then they 52 (nt) repeat them. Gradually they will develp the gd habits f listening carefully, remembering things and 53 (vercme) prblems.
Prvide the helpful basis fr the final review. The errr crrectin bk can becme ne f the mst useful 54 (tl). It can 55 (help) students t avid making similar mistakes in the exam. The errr crrectin bk is valuable fr every student.
第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Gd news! Fr the cming film festival, there are sme prmtins (宣传) in Xidan Cinema. This festival lasts seven days (Saturday, June 11—Friday, June 17). Here is the pster.
56. When can yu watch the film with 50 percent ff?
A. On June 11.B. On June 12.C. On June 13.D. On June 14.
57. Which mvie can yu watch n the afternn f June 17?
A. Stand by Me.B. Ne Zha 2.C. Detective Chinatwn 3.D. 1921.
58. What can’t yu find in the pster?
A. Prices f films.B. The leader f the cinema.
C. The time f the film festival.D. The phne number f the cinema.
59. Tm is a fur-year-ld by. If he wants t watch Ne Zha 2 with his parents n June 16, they need t pay ______.
A. ¥80B. ¥160C. ¥200D. ¥240
60. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut the pster?
A. All the peple can be ffered a large bx f ppcrn.
B. Yu can watch Stand by Me n June 12.
C. Students will nt be allwed t enter the cinema withut their ID cards.
D. Students withut their ID cards can als enjy the special price n Tuesday.
B
Wuld yu like t live in a city where buildings turn the lights ff fr yu, and self-driving cars will find the nearest parking space themselves? Althugh it might sund a little far frm yu, living in a “smart” city like this culd happen sner than yu think.
Great changes have taken place in twns that we have lived in fr centuries, while cmpletely new cities are being built. One such place is the city f Sngd. Every hme there will have a “telepresence” system (远程遥控系统)—allwing users t cntrl the heating and lcks, take part in vide meetings, and receive educatin, healthcare and gvernment services. Arund the city, escalatrs (自动扶梯) will nly mve when smene is n them, and ffices and schls will all be cnnected t the system.
The great mind behind Sngd is frm the cmpany Cisc. In fact, technlgy cmpanies arund the wrld such as IBM, Siemens and Micrsft are already in the business.
Abut 75%f the wrld’s ppulatin will live in cities by 2050, s cities will need t be mre mdern t deal with the cming prblems. “Making cities smarter is ne way ut, and I think this will in turn make cities greener,” said Dan Hill, head f a research cmpany.
61. Accrding t the passage, living in a “smart” city ________.
A. is nt a green wayB. will be far frm yu
C. will sn becme trueD. is cmpletely impssible
62. What is paragraph 2 mainly abut?
A. A city f the future.B. A meeting in Sngd.
C. A plan t build a huse.D. A reprt n public health.
63. Which cmpany ffers the great mind t build Sngd?
A. Cisc.B. IBM.C. Siemens.D. Micrsft.
64. Dan Hill thinks that making cities smarter is ne way t ________.
A. drive peple ut f citiesB. cntrl the wrld’s ppulatin
C. develp his wn cmpanyD. slve the cities’ cming prblems
65. Which f the fllwing is the best title fr the passage?
A. Future EducatinB. Smart CitiesC. Gvernment ServicesD. Famus Cmpanies
C
Elias Hwe is always used t ging t bed at 4 ’clck in the mrning. Wrking all night became his living habit. Wh’s Elias Hwe? Yu may never hear f him. He was brn in America. The sewing (缝纫) machine was invented by him.
Over 100 years ag, withut mdern machines. peple had t d the sewing by hand. Elias decided t design a machine t d the sewing instead f ur hands. Hwever, he had a truble. He culdn’t get the thread (线) t run arund the needle (针). Inventing sewing machine was his dream. S he did nt give up. He kept thinking abut hw t slve this prblem.
Once he was tired, he slept in bed. He had a dream. In the dream he was caught by a king. The king rdered him t build a perfect sewing machine, r the king wuld kill him. Elias met the same prblem as befre. The king was s angry that he rdered his sldiers t kill him. The sldiers raised spears (长矛) and came up t him. Suddenly Elias nticed smething. There was a hle in the tip (尖端) f each spear.
Befre the spears stuck t his bdy, Elias wke up frm the dream. And he realized that he had fund the answer t the prblem. Instead f getting the thread t run arund the needle, he made it run thrugh a small hle in the tip f the needle. A simple thught finally made Elias invent the first sewing machine.
66. Why did Elias g t bed at abut 4 ’clck a.m.?
A. Because he gt used t wrking at night.B. Because he liked t play at night.
C. Because he had sleeping prblems.D. Because f the nise f the machine.
67. What can we knw frm the secnd paragraph?
A. Elias’s parents lived n sewing.
B. Peple preferred t d sewing by hand ver 100 years ag.
C. Elias wanted t invent the sewing machine t make mney.
D. Elias had difficulty in inventing the sewing machine.
68. What des the underlined wrd “smething” mean?
A. Prblem.B. Hle.C. Dream.D. Spear.
69. What happened in Elias’s dream at last?
A. Elias was killed.B. The king was killed.
C. Elias had a gd thught.D. Elias caught the sldiers.
70. What can we knw frm the passage?
A. Sleeping can als slve the prblem.
B. Elias Hwe’s dream came true.
C. Wrking at night is helpful in new inventins.
D. If yu want t invent smething, yu shuld have a gd dream.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。每个选项只能用一次。
D
When I studied in Nanyang N. 1 Middle Schl, I had a classmate. Her name is Chen Lulu. She always pinted ut my weak pints in frnt f me. Smetimes she said I was a lazy student and I didn’t finish my hmewrk n time. 71 Smetimes she said I was unfriendly and s n. I tried t put up with (忍受) her as lng as I culd. 72 I had t run t my father with tears in my eyes.
My father listened t me quietly, and then he asked me, “Are the things what she said true r wrng? Mary, didn’t yu ever wnder what yu’re really like? G and make a list f everything she said and mark the pints that are true. 73 ”
I did as my father tld me. 74 I brught the list back t my father. He didn’t accept it. “That’s just fr yu,” he said, “Crrect mistakes if yu have made and guard against them if yu have nt. When yu listen t smething is true, yu’ll find that it will be helpful t yu.”
75 Chen Lulu’s wrds ften appear in my mind. In fact, in ur life we are in truble. Often smene gives yu sme advice. Fr sme advice yu will remember all yur life.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据所给汉语和提示词完成下列句子。
76. 孩子们，请随便吃些水果吧。(help)
Kids, please ________________ sme fruit.
77. 健康取决于食物、锻炼和足够的睡眠。(depend)
Health ________________ fd, exercise and enugh sleep.
78. 我听说李先生负责指挥这条地铁的建造工程。(charge)
I heard Mr. Li ________________ directing the building f the subway.
79. 依我看来，多阅读是提高语言能力的秘诀之一。(pinin)
________________, reading mre is ne f the secrets f imprving yur language ability.
80. 约翰自十年前就离开了他的家乡。(away)
Jhn ________________ his hmetwn since ten years ag.
第二节（共1小题；满分15分）
81. 学校英语社团正在举办英语征文活动，其主题是介绍自己的家庭。假设你是李明，请根据以下要点提示，写一篇题为“I’m Prud f My Family”的英语短文投稿，讲述你的家庭故事。
要点：1. 相亲相爱，努力学习、工作；
2. 邻里和睦，礼貌待人；
3. 爱护环境，从我做起；
4. 积极参加志愿活动。
要求：1. 文中必须包含所有提示要点，可适当发挥；
2. 条理清晰，字迹工整，不得少于80词：
3. 文中不得出现真实人名和校名等相关信息。
I’m Prud f My Family
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
A. hardly
B. fnd f
C. lked up
D. full f
E. in danger
F. separate frm
Film
Stand by Me
Ne Zha 2
Detective China tur 3
1921
Price
¥50
¥80
¥70
¥50
Date
June 11
June 13
June 15
June 12
June 14
June 16
June 13
June 15
June 17
June 11
June 14
June 17
Time
9:00 a.m.
4:30 a.m.
8:20 a.m.
10:00 a.m.
7:10 a.m.
9:30 a.m.
9:20 a.m.
3:10 a.m.
5:30 a.m.
7:50 a.m.
9:50 a.m.
11:50 a.m.
Tips
50% ff n Tuesday fr all.
Free fr children under 6 years ld, and half fr peple ver 60 years.
A free large bx f ppcrn (爆米花) fr students with student ID cards during the film festival.
Fr mre details, please call us at 010-66086662.
A. Many years have passed.
B. At last, I became very angry.
C. Smetimes she said I wasn’t an hnest by.
D. T my surprise, I fund that abut half the things were true.
E. Pay n attentin t the ther things she said.
本试题卷共8页，全卷满分120分，考试用时120分钟
★祝考试顺利★
注意事项：
1. 考生答题全部在答题卷上，答在试题卷上无效。
2. 请认真核对监考教师在答题卷上所粘贴条形码的姓名、准考证号是否与本人相符合，再将自己的姓名、准考证号码用0.5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卷及本试题卷上。
3. 选择题作答必须用2B铅笔将答题卷上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题作答必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将答案直接答在答题卷上对应的答题区域内。
4. 做听力部分时，先将答案标在试题卷上。录音内容结束后，再将试题卷上的答案转涂到答题卷上。
5. 考生不得折叠答题卷，保持答题卷的整洁。考试结束后，请将试题卷和答题卷一并上交。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并标在试题卷的相应位置。听完每个句子后你有4秒钟时间作答和阅读下一小题。每个句子读两遍。
1. A. Hw d yu d?B. Fine, thank yu.C. I am wrking.
2. A. S it is.B. Cngratulatins!C. Gd luck!
3. A. Yes, I’d like t.B. Well dne.C. That’s OK.
4. A. That’s t bad.B. Never mind.C. It’s a pleasure.
5. A. Yes, I d.B. Yes, I will.C. Yes, I have.
第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听5段小对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试题卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你有5秒钟时间作答和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
6. Hw many children are there in Zhang Ming’s family?
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.
7. Which sprt des Lily like?
A. Sccer.B. Basketball.C. Table tennis.
8. Where is Steven ging?
A. T England.B. T France.C. T Canada.
9. What’s the time nw?
A. 7:45.B. 8:00.C. 8:15.
10. Hw is the weather tday?
A. Sunny.B. Rainy.C. Cludy.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听两段长对话，每段对话后分别有几个小题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试题卷的相应位置。每段对话读两遍。
听第11段材料，回答第11至12小题。听之前你有5秒钟时间阅读相关小题，听完后你有5秒钟时间作答。
11. What’s the relatinship between the speakers?
A. Grandma and grandsn.B. Waitress and custmer.C. Brther and sister.
12. What’s Henry’s favrite fd?
A. Fried rice.B. Rast duck.C. Chicken sup.
听第12段材料，回答第13至15小题。听之前你有5秒钟时间阅读相关小题，听完后你有5秒钟时间作答。
13. Where des Jack ask Jenny t g?
A. T the park.B. T the shp.C. T his huse.
14. Why des Jenny refuse Jack at first?
A. She dislikes running.B. She dislikes being cld.C. She dislikes Mark.
15. What may Jenny d next?
A. Sit in the rm.B. G t watch the race.C. Give Jack a call.
第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听短文，根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出所给问题的最佳答案，并标在试题卷的相应位置。听短文前你有15秒钟时间阅读相关小题，听完后你有10秒钟时间作答。短文读两遍。
16. Lin Ta went fr a picnic with ________.
A. his friendsB. his familyC. his classmates
17. They played games and tk phts ________.
A. n the beachB. under a treeC. by the riverside
18. When they saw fish swimming in the river, they felt very ________.
A. surprisedB. happyC. excited
19. One f them suggested ________ in the river.
A. fishingB. swimmingC. bating
20. They decided t swim in the swimming pl ________.
A. the next FridayB. the next SaturdayC. the next Sunday
第二部分 语言运用（共四节，满分30分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题0.5分，满分5分）
请从下列各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. They want t have ________ sme fr supper, s they decide t catch ________ nw.
A. fish; muchB. fish; manyC. fishes; many
22. This kind f sup smells ________ and sells ________.
A. well; wellB. gd; gdC. gd; well
23. -________ can yu get t the airprt?
-In abut 30 minutes. I’m n the way.
A. Hw snB. Hw lngC. Hw ften
24. -Hw d yu like the singing cmpetitin yesterday?
-Exciting, ________ sme students didn’t d very well.
A. becauseB. andC. thugh
25. -What d yu think f Han Hng?
-She is my favrite singer. I think n ne can sing ________.
A. wellB. betterC. best
26. -Jim, culd yu please answer the questin?
-Srry, I ________ Culd yu say it again?
A. dn’t listenB. am nt listeningC. wasn’t listening
27. My deskmate and I are ging t ________ a talk shw at the party t celebrate the 73rd birthday f ur mtherland.
A. put nB. put utC. put up
28. -Fur children were walking under a small umbrella. But ________ f them gt wet. Can yu guess why?
-Because it was nt raining.
A. allB. smeC. nne
29. Tm spent as much time as he culd ________ English.
A. learningB. t learnC. learn
30. -Remember t keep a safe distance at least ne meter, Tina!
-________. It’s necessary fr us t d s in public.
A. That’s all rightB. OK, I willC. N way
第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
The srting f garbage has many advantages. It can nt nly prtect the envirnment, but als 31 wasting the useful rubbish. S peple have cme up with many gd 32 t srt their rubbish.
A UK cmpany invented a “smart dustbin” t help with waste srting 33 . Peple just need t drp their waste int the dustbin. A camera and sensrs (感应器) in the dustbin can tell what type f rubbish it is and crrectly srt it.
Suth Krea is using a way called “Pay Fr Yur Waste” t 34 its peple t reduce fd waste. When thrwing away rubbish, there is a special dustbin fr fd waste nly. The smart dustbin then tells the 35 f the fd. Peple have t pay fr their fd waste by scanning (扫描) a barcde (条形码) n the dustbin. If they thrw away 36 fd, they will pay mre.
Japan des best 37 waste srting in the wrld. They srt waste s carefully that even plastic bttles and their caps g int different dustbins. Different types f paper 38 have their wn dustbins.
China is imprving its waste srting skills. On July 1, 2019, Shanghai intrduced waste srting rules. If smene des nt fllw these rules, peple frm the relevant departments will 39 them. Shanghai als wrks with Alipay t 40 “green accunts (账户)” service fr its residents (居民). If yu srt the garbage crrectly, yu will get mre pints in yur accunt. If yu get mre pints, yu will get mre gifts.
31. A. avidB. finishC. enjyD. mind
32. A. answersB. methdsC. resultsD. titles
33. A. certainlyB. cmpletelyC. recentlyD. directly
34. A. refuseB. encurageC. surveyD. shw
35. A. weightB. clrC. shapeD. taste
36. A. lessB. nicerC. wrseD. mre
37. A. atB. nC. inD. t
38. A. bagsB. mneyC. prductsD. cups
39. A. supprtB. agreeC. discverD. punish
40. A. createB. findC. checkD. imagine
第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
仔细阅读下面五个句子，然后用方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。（提示：选项中有一个是多余的。）
41. The traveler ________ his map t make sure he was nt lst.
42. Wherever I g, nthing can make me ________ my mtherland.
43. Sally is always ________ curage. She faces any difficulty in her life bravely.
44. Jack spke in a lw vice, s I culd ________ hear him at the back f the classrm.
45. Yesterday my uncle made a reprt abut hw t prtect the animals and plants ________.
第四节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式（不超过3词）。
It’s quite natural fr us t make mistakes. Hwever, 46 yu make the same mistake fr three times r even mre, yu’re t silly t be frgiven. Hw d yu avid making the same mistake again in daily study? I think keeping an errr crrectin bk after class is a gd way. Mistakes must be 47 (crrect) in the students’ learning. Crrecting is mre valuable ver the lng term, especially fr the 48 (nine) graders. An errr crrectin bk can help yu in these ways.
Pay attentin t yur mistakes 49 time. When crrecting mistakes, students will think 50 (serius) and imprve frm crrecting mistakes. Always lking ver yur wn errr crrectin bk can make up fr yur knwledge gaps.
Develp gd studying habits. The reasns why students make mistakes are as fllws: they dn’t fully understand what they have 51 (learn); they dn’t remember what they shuld remember: they are t careless.
T find ut the reasns fr the mistakes, students will avid the abve pints. And then they 52 (nt) repeat them. Gradually they will develp the gd habits f listening carefully, remembering things and 53 (vercme) prblems.
Prvide the helpful basis fr the final review. The errr crrectin bk can becme ne f the mst useful 54 (tl). It can 55 (help) students t avid making similar mistakes in the exam. The errr crrectin bk is valuable fr every student.
第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Gd news! Fr the cming film festival, there are sme prmtins (宣传) in Xidan Cinema. This festival lasts seven days (Saturday, June 11—Friday, June 17). Here is the pster.
56. When can yu watch the film with 50 percent ff?
A. On June 11.B. On June 12.C. On June 13.D. On June 14.
57. Which mvie can yu watch n the afternn f June 17?
A. Stand by Me.B. Ne Zha 2.C. Detective Chinatwn 3.D. 1921.
58. What can’t yu find in the pster?
A. Prices f films.B. The leader f the cinema.
C. The time f the film festival.D. The phne number f the cinema.
59. Tm is a fur-year-ld by. If he wants t watch Ne Zha 2 with his parents n June 16, they need t pay ______.
A. ¥80B. ¥160C. ¥200D. ¥240
60. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut the pster?
A. All the peple can be ffered a large bx f ppcrn.
B. Yu can watch Stand by Me n June 12.
C. Students will nt be allwed t enter the cinema withut their ID cards.
D. Students withut their ID cards can als enjy the special price n Tuesday.
B
Wuld yu like t live in a city where buildings turn the lights ff fr yu, and self-driving cars will find the nearest parking space themselves? Althugh it might sund a little far frm yu, living in a “smart” city like this culd happen sner than yu think.
Great changes have taken place in twns that we have lived in fr centuries, while cmpletely new cities are being built. One such place is the city f Sngd. Every hme there will have a “telepresence” system (远程遥控系统)—allwing users t cntrl the heating and lcks, take part in vide meetings, and receive educatin, healthcare and gvernment services. Arund the city, escalatrs (自动扶梯) will nly mve when smene is n them, and ffices and schls will all be cnnected t the system.
The great mind behind Sngd is frm the cmpany Cisc. In fact, technlgy cmpanies arund the wrld such as IBM, Siemens and Micrsft are already in the business.
Abut 75%f the wrld’s ppulatin will live in cities by 2050, s cities will need t be mre mdern t deal with the cming prblems. “Making cities smarter is ne way ut, and I think this will in turn make cities greener,” said Dan Hill, head f a research cmpany.
61. Accrding t the passage, living in a “smart” city ________.
A. is nt a green wayB. will be far frm yu
C. will sn becme trueD. is cmpletely impssible
62. What is paragraph 2 mainly abut?
A. A city f the future.B. A meeting in Sngd.
C. A plan t build a huse.D. A reprt n public health.
63. Which cmpany ffers the great mind t build Sngd?
A. Cisc.B. IBM.C. Siemens.D. Micrsft.
64. Dan Hill thinks that making cities smarter is ne way t ________.
A. drive peple ut f citiesB. cntrl the wrld’s ppulatin
C. develp his wn cmpanyD. slve the cities’ cming prblems
65. Which f the fllwing is the best title fr the passage?
A. Future EducatinB. Smart CitiesC. Gvernment ServicesD. Famus Cmpanies
C
Elias Hwe is always used t ging t bed at 4 ’clck in the mrning. Wrking all night became his living habit. Wh’s Elias Hwe? Yu may never hear f him. He was brn in America. The sewing (缝纫) machine was invented by him.
Over 100 years ag, withut mdern machines. peple had t d the sewing by hand. Elias decided t design a machine t d the sewing instead f ur hands. Hwever, he had a truble. He culdn’t get the thread (线) t run arund the needle (针). Inventing sewing machine was his dream. S he did nt give up. He kept thinking abut hw t slve this prblem.
Once he was tired, he slept in bed. He had a dream. In the dream he was caught by a king. The king rdered him t build a perfect sewing machine, r the king wuld kill him. Elias met the same prblem as befre. The king was s angry that he rdered his sldiers t kill him. The sldiers raised spears (长矛) and came up t him. Suddenly Elias nticed smething. There was a hle in the tip (尖端) f each spear.
Befre the spears stuck t his bdy, Elias wke up frm the dream. And he realized that he had fund the answer t the prblem. Instead f getting the thread t run arund the needle, he made it run thrugh a small hle in the tip f the needle. A simple thught finally made Elias invent the first sewing machine.
66. Why did Elias g t bed at abut 4 ’clck a.m.?
A. Because he gt used t wrking at night.B. Because he liked t play at night.
C. Because he had sleeping prblems.D. Because f the nise f the machine.
67. What can we knw frm the secnd paragraph?
A. Elias’s parents lived n sewing.
B. Peple preferred t d sewing by hand ver 100 years ag.
C. Elias wanted t invent the sewing machine t make mney.
D. Elias had difficulty in inventing the sewing machine.
68. What des the underlined wrd “smething” mean?
A. Prblem.B. Hle.C. Dream.D. Spear.
69. What happened in Elias’s dream at last?
A. Elias was killed.B. The king was killed.
C. Elias had a gd thught.D. Elias caught the sldiers.
70. What can we knw frm the passage?
A. Sleeping can als slve the prblem.
B. Elias Hwe’s dream came true.
C. Wrking at night is helpful in new inventins.
D. If yu want t invent smething, yu shuld have a gd dream.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。每个选项只能用一次。
D
When I studied in Nanyang N. 1 Middle Schl, I had a classmate. Her name is Chen Lulu. She always pinted ut my weak pints in frnt f me. Smetimes she said I was a lazy student and I didn’t finish my hmewrk n time. 71 Smetimes she said I was unfriendly and s n. I tried t put up with (忍受) her as lng as I culd. 72 I had t run t my father with tears in my eyes.
My father listened t me quietly, and then he asked me, “Are the things what she said true r wrng? Mary, didn’t yu ever wnder what yu’re really like? G and make a list f everything she said and mark the pints that are true. 73 ”
I did as my father tld me. 74 I brught the list back t my father. He didn’t accept it. “That’s just fr yu,” he said, “Crrect mistakes if yu have made and guard against them if yu have nt. When yu listen t smething is true, yu’ll find that it will be helpful t yu.”
75 Chen Lulu’s wrds ften appear in my mind. In fact, in ur life we are in truble. Often smene gives yu sme advice. Fr sme advice yu will remember all yur life.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分25分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据所给汉语和提示词完成下列句子。
76. 孩子们，请随便吃些水果吧。(help)
Kids, please ________________ sme fruit.
77. 健康取决于食物、锻炼和足够的睡眠。(depend)
Health ________________ fd, exercise and enugh sleep.
78. 我听说李先生负责指挥这条地铁的建造工程。(charge)
I heard Mr. Li ________________ directing the building f the subway.
79. 依我看来，多阅读是提高语言能力的秘诀之一。(pinin)
________________, reading mre is ne f the secrets f imprving yur language ability.
80. 约翰自十年前就离开了他的家乡。(away)
Jhn ________________ his hmetwn since ten years ag.
第二节（共1小题；满分15分）
81. 学校英语社团正在举办英语征文活动，其主题是介绍自己的家庭。假设你是李明，请根据以下要点提示，写一篇题为“I’m Prud f My Family”的英语短文投稿，讲述你的家庭故事。
要点：1. 相亲相爱，努力学习、工作；
2. 邻里和睦，礼貌待人；
3. 爱护环境，从我做起；
4. 积极参加志愿活动。
要求：1. 文中必须包含所有提示要点，可适当发挥；
2. 条理清晰，字迹工整，不得少于80词：
3. 文中不得出现真实人名和校名等相关信息。
I’m Prud f My Family
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
A. hardly
B. fnd f
C. lked up
D. full f
E. in danger
F. separate frm
Film
Stand by Me
Ne Zha 2
Detective China tur 3
1921
Price
¥50
¥80
¥70
¥50
Date
June 11
June 13
June 15
June 12
June 14
June 16
June 13
June 15
June 17
June 11
June 14
June 17
Time
9:00 a.m.
4:30 a.m.
8:20 a.m.
10:00 a.m.
7:10 a.m.
9:30 a.m.
9:20 a.m.
3:10 a.m.
5:30 a.m.
7:50 a.m.
9:50 a.m.
11:50 a.m.
Tips
50% ff n Tuesday fr all.
Free fr children under 6 years ld, and half fr peple ver 60 years.
A free large bx f ppcrn (爆米花) fr students with student ID cards during the film festival.
Fr mre details, please call us at 010-66086662.
A. Many years have passed.
B. At last, I became very angry.
C. Smetimes she said I wasn’t an hnest by.
D. T my surprise, I fund that abut half the things were true.
E. Pay n attentin t the ther things she said.
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