2021辽宁省高三下学期决胜新高考名校交流5月联考英语试题含答案

这是一份2021辽宁省高三下学期决胜新高考名校交流5月联考英语试题含答案，共21页。试卷主要包含了15等内容，欢迎下载使用。
“决胜新高考·名校交流”2021届高三5月联考卷
英语
注意事项：
1. 本试题卷共8页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡的相应位置。
3. 全部答案在答题卡上完成，答在本试题卷上无效。
4. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
5. 考试结束后，将本试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是C。
1. What will Mike do first?
A. Go to the restaurant. B. Send an e-mail. C. Prepare lunch.
2. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Air travel. B. Southern cities. C. The weather.
3. What does the woman advise about a low-carbon life?
A. Using recyclable bags.
B. Choosing public transport.
C. Buying energy-saving computers.
4. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Interviewer and interviewee. C. The music.
5. What does the man like most about the film?
A. The director. B. The story. C. Colleagues.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6，7题。
6. Why does the woman call?
A. To argue with the man. B. To confirm the date. C. To look for someone.
7. When was the message released?
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Friday.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What does Paul often do in his spare time?
A. Watch TV. B. Go shopping. C. Take exercise.
9. How does Paul feel about backpacking?
A. Tiring. B. Interesting. C. Relaxing.
10. What might Lisa do this weekend?
A. Go climbing. B. Have a picnic. C. Hike to the countryside.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Which of the following meets the woman’s needs?
A. A bedroom with Wi-Fi. B. A flat on the main street. C. Two bedrooms near the campus.
12. How will the woman go to the university?
A. By taxi. B. On foot. C. By subway.
13. How much will the woman pay to rent for half a year?
A. £600. B. £540. C. £480.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. Why does the woman go shopping online?
A. There are more choices of goods.
B. The goods are always cheaper.
C. She is too busy with work.
15. What is the man worried about?
A. Forgetting the passwords. B. How to find a reliable store. C. The safety of online shopping.
16. Where will the speakers go next?
A. To the cinema. B. To a clothes shop. C. To a computer store.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What does Anna think of her school life now?
A. Boring. B. Colorful. C. Busy.
18. When does Anna go to the dining hall?
A. At 7:00. B. At 7:30. C. At 8:00.
19. Which course is Anna’s favorite?
A. Advanced math. B. Literature. C. History.
20. What does Anna usually do at noon?
A. Watch TV. B. Reade-books. C. Surf the Internet.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
The United States has an amazing national park system. Some parks get millions of visitors each year, but some others are little less well-known.
Black Canyon of the Gunnison National Park, CO
The magnificent canyon (峡谷) was formed by the waters of the Gunnison River. This unique canyon is deep, with a narrow opening and almost vertical (垂直的) canyon walls. Black Canyon is a fantastic destination for hiking, fishing, rafting, and it also has a great scenic drive. The canyon is known for its high walls and crumply (皱纹的) rock, which makes it appropriate for only the most experienced rock climbers.
Great Basin National Park, NV
This park is located in the shadow of Wheeler Peak. Visitors can see the amazing marble cave on a Lehman Cave Tour. On the 12 mile Wheeler Peak Scenic Drive visitors can enjoy view of the valleys and mountains. Throughout the park visitors can enjoy hiking, including overnight adventures. Great Basin National Park is also known for its amazing night skies, which can be enjoyed during overnight stays and at one of the parks’ Astronomy Programs.
North Cascades National Park Complex, WA
This National Park Complex is composed of the North Cascades National Park, and the Ross Lake and Lake Chelan National Recreation Areas. Within these three parks, visitors will discover the amazing scenery of the North Cascades, including peaks, waterfalls, and more than 300 glaciers. The North Cascades National Park is filled with hiking trails.
Lassen Volcanic National Park, CA
The Lassen Volcanic National Park is a great park to view some of the volcanic areas of the Cascade Range. There are 30 volcanoes. It has many fascinating outdoor activities. Most of the time you can hike up to Lassen Peak. There are steam and volcanic-gas holes as well as mud pots, steaming ground and boiling pools.
21. What can visitors do in the Black Canyon of the Gunnison National Park?
A. Go hiking and rafting. B. Enjoy volcanic sights.
C. Go on a Lehman Carve Tour. D. Enjoy fantastic scenery of waterfalls.
22. What do the parks have in common?
A. They all provide beautiful night scenery. B. They all enjoy great popularity.
C. They are all ideal places for hiking. D. They are for professional hikers only.
23. Who is the text mainly intended for?
A. Magazine photographers. B. Geography experts.
C. Adventurous travel lovers. D. Travel journalists.
B
China-born filmmaker Chloé Zhao made history at the Golden Globe Awards, becoming the first woman of Asian descent (血统) and second woman ever to win the best director award in the Golden Globes’ 78-year history.
Many, including actors and critics, congratulated the director on social media. “The film is patient, open and full of sympathy, motivated by a desire to wander and observe rather than to judge or explain,” Korean American actor Daniel Dae Kim wrote on Twitter. Barbra Streisand, the first woman who had won Golden Globe for best director in 1984, said “It’s about time! Congratulations Chloé! Well deserved!” in a Twitter post.
Nomadland was adapted from a 2017 non-fiction book, Nomadland: Surviving America in the Twenty-First Century. The film stars two-time Oscar winner Frances McDormand as an out-of-work woman who packs her van and sets off from her small town to travel around the vast landscape of the American West, exploring a life outside of conventional society as a modern-day nomad (游牧民).
Zhao’s first film—Songs My Brothers Taught Me—was shot when she was a student at New York University. In 2017, Zhao directed, wrote and produced her second film The Rider. In all her three films, non-actors were cast to play fictionalized versions of themselves. It a techniques he originally adopted out of economic necessity after film school but one she has used often for its realism.
Building on her success, she will develop an original futuristic sci-fi western inspired by Dracula for Universal Pictures. Her next project is the highly expected Marvel Cinematic Universe Installment The Eternals. For this film, Zhao is expected to draw inspiration from her Chinese background and childhood experience. “I have such deep, strong, manga (日本漫画) roots,” Zhao told Hollywood Reporter, “and I look forward to pushing more of that marriage of East and West.”
24. Why are two famous people are mentioned in Paragraph 2?
A. To introduce different comments on the film.
B. To present people’s recognition for Chloé Zhao.
C. To describe the great effects of the social media.
D. To praise the influence of Nomadland on the world.
25. What do we know about Nomadland?
A. It was adapted from a novel.
B. It starred a well-known actress.
C. It made Frances McDormand out of work.
D. It led to Frances McDormand’s being awarded an Oscar.
26. Why does Chloé Zhao still use non-actors in her films nowadays?
A. To make her films more realistic. B. To show her unusual talents.
C. To cut the cost of film production. D. To discover more performers with potential.
27. What can we infer from the words of Chloé Zhao?
A. She is confident of another success.
B. She will add western elements into her new film.
C. She advocates the marriage between two different nations.
D. She desires to promote the mixture of different cultures.
C
Few people would name their favorite color as gray or cream, yet our homes are often filled with these neutral (非彩色的) tones. When I studied color and its effect on joy, I wondered: Why is there such a gap between the colors that make us feel energetic, and the colors that surround us?
“Chromophobia,” was the immediate answer I received when I posed this question to Peter Stamberg and Paul Aferiat, architects of Saguaro Hotel in California. “People are afraid of color. It’s the fear of making a choice, of making a mistake and having to live with it.”
I could relate. I used to be such a person, so afraid of color that the spectrum (光谱) of my entire apartment fell between white and cream. Then one day I moved into another apartment—everything was to my taste except that the walls were a buttery yellow which gave me an urge to repaint it. But something funny happened. Each day I’d come home to that apartment, it felt like the sun was shining, even in the dead of winter. In ever again thought about repainting after the first week.
If you’d like a more energized space, experts agree the best first step is to start with white walls, bringing color into the space through furniture and decorative objects. This approach of using tiny bursts of bright color can be an appealing strategy for people who are afraid of color and it’s surprisingly effective.
It takes a little practice to become confident with color, especially when it comes to putting different ones together. But here’s a clever shortcut for finding joyful combinations. Once, when Stamberg and Aferiat were stuck on choosing a color for a house they were designing, they turned to painter David Hockney who suggested, “Look at Matisse.” Not only did the brilliant paintings of Henri Matisse inspire them to choose the right blue, but they also began to use this approach with clients. When people see striking colors coexisting kindly on a canvas (画布), it gives them confidence that they will also work in their homes.
28. What does the underlined word “Chromophobia” in Paragraph 2 refer to?
A. A mental state of fearing color. B. A social phenomenon of rejecting changes.
C. An attitude to pursuing a simple lifestyle. D. An awareness of making the right choice.
29. How did the author feel about the walls after he moved into another apartment?
A. Depressed. B. Calm. C. Dissatisfied. D. In different.
30. How can people create a more energized home?
A. By painting the wall colorful. B. By hanging a painting of Matisse.
C. By relying on a good decoration company. D. By putting in some bright-colored furniture.
31. What’s the main purpose of the text?
A. To present the findings of a study on joy.
B. To explain the relationship between color and joy.
C. To uncover the reasons why people prefer mild colors.
D. To encourage people to live happier with bright colors.
D
It has long been known that several chemicals used in plastic toys can be harmful to human health. However, it is difficult for parents to figure out how to avoid plastic toys containing chemicals that may cause possible health risks to their children. For the most part, regulations and international lists of “chemicals of concern” in toys focus on certain substance groups with known harmful properties, but do not cover the wider range of chemicals found in plastic toys.
Researchers from DTU and the University of Michigan together with UN Environment have looked into this important issue, analyzed data on chemical functions and amounts found in plastic toys, and quantified (量化) related children exposure and potential health risks. “Out of 419 chemicals found in hard, soft and foam (泡沫) plastic materials used in children toys, we identified 126 substances that can potentially harm children’s health either via cancer or non-cancer effects. These substances should be avoided in toy materials and replaced with safer and more sustainable alternatives,” says Peter Fantke, Professor at DTU Management.
Many lists have existed that inform about “chemicals of concern” across product and material applications. However, what is currently missing is any information about the levels at which the use of chemicals in the different applications would be safe and sustainable. Peter Fantke explains, “Since the same chemicals can be found in different concentrations (浓度) across toy materials, we have estimated the ‘maximum acceptable chemical content (MACC)’ for all the substances reported to be found in plastic toys. Such information will help toy companies to evaluate the amount of chemicals used for a specific function against such standards.”
For parents, it will continue to be difficult to avoid using plastic toys that can contain harmful chemicals, until regulators include all substances, and address exposure to toys. A good piece of advice from the researchers is hence to reduce the consumption of plastic materials in general, avoid the use of soft plastic toys, and remember to allow fresh air to enter and move around your children’s rooms well every day.
32. What do we know about the harmful chemicals in toys?
A. They may lead to cancer. B. The y add up to 419 kinds.
C. They exist in all plastic toys. D. They’ve all been discovered.
33. What is the current concern of researchers?
A. Toy companies are not responsible enough.
B. The use of chemicals are not safe and sustainable.
C. The safe level of chemicals used in toys is uncertain.
D. Practical measures haven’t been taken by the authority.
34. How could parents do to deal with the issue of plastic toys?
A. Stop using plastic toys. B. Guarantee fresh room air.
C. Address exposure to toys. D. Do research on chemicals in toys.
35. Which of the following can be the best title of the text?
A. Stop Purchasing Plastic Toys
B. Potentially Harmful Chemicals Found in Plastic Toys
C. Negative Impacts Plastic Toys Have on Children
D. How to Keep Your Children Healthy
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Comfort a Grieving (悲痛的) Friend
Comforting a friend who’s just experienced a loss can be difficult. However, now is the time to let your friend know that you’re here for them, no matter what. 36
Reach out to your friend. If your friend is grieving, they may not feel comfortable reaching out to you first. 37 By reaching out first, you’re already telling your friend that you’re there for them. For example, give them a phone call, send them a text, or stop by their home to see if they need anything.
Give them space if they need it. If you reach out to your friend and they don’t want to talk, try not to be offended. Everyone grieves differently, and your friend might need sometime before talking to anyone. 38 Try contacting them every week or so just to check in, even if they don’t want to talk for long.
39 Often, people try to beat around the bush when someone suffers a loss. Instead, approach your friend by saying you know what happened and what a pity it was. You could say something as simple as, “I heard that your father died. I’m so sorry.” 40
A. Acknowledge what happened.
B. Listen and reassure your friend as they talk.
C. People are often scared to talk about someone once they’ve passed away.
D. This shows that you know what’s going on so your friend doesn’t have to explain it.
E. By keeping a few guidelines in mind, you can give your friend the support they need.
F. The important thing is to keep reaching out, even if your friend declines many times.
G. That’s because sometimes they feel they are a burden on their friends and family members.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I was catching a flight from Calcutta to Madras and had arrived at the airport rather early. I had always thought of airports as 41 places until I saw a young couple sitting a few seats away from me, and 42 the woman was crying. I realized that though airports were places of delightful 43 , they could also be about difficult departure.
The young man who looked obviously connected to the woman didn’t even try to 44 her. After a certain amount of 45 , I walked over with a Smile Stone—a small marble with a smile 46 on it—in my hand and said, “Excuse me, can I give this to you?” And I held out one of the sky-blue Smile Stones. Tears filled 47 eyes. “Why?” she wanted to know. “To make you smile.” She took it quickly and 48 a quick, grateful smile.
Later as my bag was going through the security 49 , a uniformed, unsmiling young lady pulled my backpack onto aside table and started unceremoniously (毫不客气地) unzipping (拉开拉链) its various sections and 50 the contents in the mildly aggressive 51 that airport security staff sometimes have. When she put her 52 quickly into the front pocket, she came up with a handful of smile stones—they smiled at her 53 and her face gently broke into a smile. The whole 54 of her interaction with my backpack and with me shifted in that second. I pulled out one of the s milestones and said, “This is for you, to 55 you to keep smiling.”
41. A. public B. painful C. happy D. social
42. A. noticed B. knew C. learned D. imagined
43. A. travel B. arrival C. work D. relaxation
44. A. accompany B. consult C. convince D. comfort
45. A. delay B. effort C. caution D. hesitation
46. A. pinned B. drawn C. fastened D. fixed
47. A. puzzled B. excited C. scared D. embarrassed
48. A. flashed B. forced C. hid D. kept
49. A. challenge B. protection C. check D. service
50. A. packing up B. referring to C. looking through D. sorting out
51. A. form B. manner C. spirit D. voice
52. A. uniform B. hand C. head D. wallet
53. A. shyly B. eagerly C. bravely D. cheerfully
54. A. situation B. climate C. environment D. atmosphere
55. A. urge B. warn C. remind D. persuade
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Han Dynasty ruled China from 206 B.C. to 220 A.D. It is known for 56 (it) promotion of Confucianism (儒学) as the state religion and opening the Silk Road trade route to Europe, permanently 57 (change) the course of Chinese history. The Han Dynasty art and inventions like paper still influence the world today.
Most knowledge of the Han Dynasty art comes from the tombs of ruling families. The Wu Family site in Jiaxiang is one of the most famous. The tomb features 70 carved stones and 58 (paint) ceilings and walls and various pictures 59 describe historical characters. The site contained about 3000 examples of Han Dynasty art 60 (figure), using silver, bronze, gold etc. Two suits with 2000 pieces of jade (玉) in each 61 (discover) in the tomb. The tomb survived well because the outside areas were not decorated 62 any special way, but marked only by a large pile of dirt.
Paper was invented in China during the Han Dynasty. The paper-making technique was developed by Cai Lun, 63 officer attached to the Imperial court, and he made paper a 64 (common) used writing material. Paper-making technology has promoted the spread of human culture and is a great 65 (contribute) of the Chinese nation to the world civilization.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
假定你是学生会主席李华，你校的英国友好学校使团将来你校进行交流活动（an exchange activity）。请你用英文写一篇发言稿。内容包括：
1. 你校简介；
2. 活动内容及意义。
注意：1. 词数80左右。
2. 可适当添加细节，以使行文连贯。
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节 （满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It all began when my younger brother, Chris, and I went over to Aunt Barbara and Uncle Howard’s for Thanksgiving. My aunt and uncle live on a farm and Chris and I love going there. One day, Uncle Howard handed me two turkey eggs.
“You kids put those under a setting hen,” he said, “and in twenty-five days, you’ll have a couple of fine turkeys!”
Chris was so excited that he nearly dropped his egg on the way to the house. We both stuffed ourselves at dinner and then couldn’t wait to go home and tend to our eggs.
Twenty-five days seemed like forever. Finally, on the twenty-sixth day, Chris and I walked into the coop (栏舍) after school and spotted two balls of fluff (绒毛), fa ling over their feet and looking sort of confused. It wasn’t long before the chicks lost their fuzz and began growing feathers. Chris name done Bill, and I named the other Timothy.
I don’t know what happened, but one day we found Bill dead beside the coop. Chris felt terrible. I told him that from now on, Timothy belonged to him, too.
Mom kept telling us not to get too attached to Timothy, because we were going to have him for Thanksgiving. But we never paid too much attention to what that really meant.
Then, one day toward the end of October, Dad penned (关进栏) Timothy up and gave Chris and me instructions.
“I want you to start giving him corn along with his regular feed,” he said. “We want a nice, fat bird for Thanksgiving.” After Dad turned and walked away, Chris began to cry.
“Don’t worry, Chris,” I said comfortingly. “Well save Timothy, somehow.”
“Why don’t we give him away?” Chris suggested.
“No,” I said. “If we do, he’ll just end upon someone else’s Thanksgiving table.”
“What if we take him out in the woods?”
“He always comes back at night,” I said. We both sighed.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按照如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1:
Suddenly I had an idea. _____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2:
To our astonishment, Timothy was gone! _______________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________

“决胜新高考•名校交流”2021届高三5月联考卷
英语答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
B
C
A
B
A
B
A
C
B
A
C
B
A
A
C
C
B
B
C
A
【评分标准得】参照标准答案，选对得1.5分，选错不得分。

第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
A
C
C
B
B
A
D
A
C
D
D
A
C
B
B
【评分标准得】参照标准答案，选对得2.5分，选错不得分。

第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36
37
38
39
40
E
G
F
A
D
【评分标准得】参照标准答案，选对得2.5分，选错不得分。

第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
C
A
B
D
D
B
A
A
C
C
B
B
D
D
C
【评分标准】参照标准答案，选对得1分，选错不得分。

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. its 57. changing 58. painted 59. which/that 60. figures
61. were discovered 62. in 63. an 64. commonly 65. contribution

评分标准
1. 只有0分与1.5分之分，没有中间分段
2. 拼写错误（含大小写错误）和单复数问题，一律判错，计零分。
第四部分 写作分（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
One possible version
Dear friends,
It’s an honor for me to give you a welcome speech on behalf of my school. It is a key high school with a long history and quite famous for its excellent teaching quality. The exchange activity will include visiting the campus and experiencing Chinese classes. I believe it will provide a good communication platform for us. Besides, it’s a good chance for us to make good friends and learn from each other.
At last, I’d like to say, “Welcome and enjoy yourselves here!”

第一节 应用文写作评分细则分（满分15分）
（一）评分原则和具体分档划分标准
【评分标准】
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
【分档划分标准】
第五档（很好）（13～15分）：
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
（1）覆盖所有内容要点；
（2）应用了较多的语法结构和词汇；
（3）语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力；
（4）有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（好）（10～12分）：
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
（1）虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容；
（2）应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；
（3）语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致；
（4）应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（适当）（7～9分）：
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
（1）虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容；
（2）应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求；
（3）有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解；
（4）应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（较差）（4～6分）：
未适当完成试题规定的任务。
（1）漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容；
（2）语法结构单调，词汇项目有限；
（3）有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解；
（4）较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（差）（1～3分）：
未完成试题规定的任务。
（1）明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求；
（2）语法结构单调，词汇项目有限；
（3）较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解；
（4）缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0分：
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
（二）评分内容要点：
1. 第一个要点：你校简介；
2. 第二个要点：活动内容及意义。
（三）书面表达评分定档：
1. 全面覆盖两个内容要点，基本达到写作目的，为及格档，给定标准分9分。
2. 以此为基础，再结合其语言交际功能的实际情况、措辞、语法、句型运用等实际情况，决定其升档或降档。
3. 两个内容要点，只出现一个的，最高分不超过9分；
第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
One possible version
Paragraph 1:
Suddenly I had an idea. “Hey, Chris, you know that small cave in the woods?” Chris nodded. “We can take Timothy there. We’ll hide him till Thanksgiving is over.” Feeling so excited, we jumped up and gave each other high-fives. The next day after school, we left Timothy in the cave with an old peanut butter can filled with water, and plenty of food. We piled brush over the opening to hide the entrance.
Paragraph 2:
To our astonishment, Timothy was gone! Chris began to cry. We sat there for a while wondering what had happened to him. Though I hate to admit it, my throat suddenly hurt. When we went back and Mom saw I was about to cry, she calmed us down, and we told her everything. As spring approached, one day Chris and I were playing inside when we heard Mom screaming, “Look at that! It’s Timothy. He is back!”

第二节 读后续写评分细则（满分25分）
【评分标准】
1. 本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档改，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
（1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2）内容的丰富性和对所标出关键词语的应用情况；
（3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4）上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6. 如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
【分档划分标准】
第五档（很好）（21～25分）：
（1）与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
（2）内容丰富，应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
（3）所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。
（4）有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档（好）（16～20分）：
（1）与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
（2）内容比较丰富，应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
（3）所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
（4）比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档（适当）（11～15分）
（1）与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
（2）写出了若干有关内容，应用了4个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
（3）应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一-些错误，但不影响意义表达。
（4）应用简单的语句间连接成分，使上下文内容连贯。
第二档（较差）（6~10分）
（1）与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
（2）写出了一些有关内容，应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
（3）语法结构单调，词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达。
（4）较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（差）（1~5分）
（1）与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
（2）产出内容太少，很少使用短文中标出的关键词语。
（3）语法结构单调，词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。
（4）缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
0分
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。