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    湖南省湘潭市2022届中考英语试卷

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    湖南省湘潭市2022届中考英语试卷

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    这是一份湖南省湘潭市2022届中考英语试卷,共13页。


    第一节 听对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    选择相应的图片或正确的答案。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
    1. What is the girl's gift?
    A. B. C.
    2. What are they talking abut?
    A. B. C.
    3. What clr is the electric car?
    A Black. B. Red. C. Blue.
    4. What des Daniel want t be?
    A. A dctr. B. A teacher. C. A ck.
    5. Hw ften des Jenny play the pian?
    A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
    第二节 听对话或独白(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    每段对话或独白后有2-3个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第六段材料,回答第6、7题
    6. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
    A. Ata fruit shp. B. At a bkstre. C. In a clthes stre.
    7. Hw much are the apples?
    A. $3. B. $4. C. $6.
    听第七段材料,回答第8、9题。
    8. Where are they ging this afternn?
    A. T the lake. B. T the cinema. C. T the library.
    9. Wh will g with them?
    A. The man's brther. B. The man's friend. C. The wman's sister.
    听第八段材料,回答第10、11题。
    10. Where is the fd festival held?
    A. In Huxiang Park. B. In Yawan. C. In Baishi Square.
    11. When will they g there?
    A. This Saturday. B. Next Mnday. C. Next Tuesday.
    听第九段材料,回答第12至14题。
    12. What's the weather like tday?
    A. It's rainy. B. It's cludy. C. It's sunny.
    13. What is the wman ging t d tmrrw?
    A. T g swimming. B. T have a picnic. C. T d hmewrk.
    14. Why was the man busy yesterday?
    A. Because he was taking the exams.
    B. Because he was having a meeting.
    C. Because he was seeing a dentist.
    听第十段材料,回答第15至17题。
    15. What time des the train leave?
    A. At 8: 30. B. At 9: 30. C. At 10: 30.
    16. Which city are they ging t n vacatin?
    A. Sanya. B. Guangzhu. C. Shanghai.
    17. Wh keeps the tickets?
    A. N ne. B. The wman. C. The man.
    听第十一段材料,回答第18至20题。
    18. What will the students d tmrrw?
    A. Planting trees. B. Visiting museums. C. Playing sprts.
    19. Hw many teachers will take part in the activity?
    A. 6. B. 8. C. 10.
    20. Hw will they g there?
    A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On ft.
    第二部分 阅读技能(共两节,满分50分)
    第一节(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
    阅读下面的材料,从每题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项回答问题或完成句子。
    A
    1. The speech is abut ______.
    A. sprtsB. scienceC. safety
    2. What can we d during the speech?
    A. Taking ntes.B. Having a discussin.C. Arriving late.
    B
    Here are sme fun activities after schl! Cme and jin us!
    3. Wh is the teacher f AI rbts?
    A. Miss Li.B. Miss White.C. Mr. Yang.
    4. What can we learn frm Dctr Brwn?
    A. Paper cutting.B. First aid.C. Sccer.
    5. Where d we have bilgy experiments?
    A. In the lab.B. In the medical ffice.C. On the playgrund.
    C
    Five years ag, Jennifer, a girl frm Australia, came t Xiangtan University t study Chinese. There she fell in lve with Chinese culture and met her husband, wh is a lcal (当地的) yung man. They gt married after she finished her study. Since then, she has started her new life in Xiangtan City.
    As Jennifer learned that tigers have imprtant and special meaning in China, she decided t prepare sme interesting gifts fr her baby n the way. Like sme Chinese peple, she’d like t call it “Tiger Baby”, because 2022 is the Year f Tiger. She has already learned t make tiger hats and shes in the shape f a tiger’s head fr her baby, hping her baby will grw t be as strng as a little tiger.
    Father has decided that his baby grws up, he will teach the baby t draw pictures f tigers. Grandma has helped make sme clth tiger t “eat up” illnesses. Grandpa’s stries are ready, like thse abut Tiger General (虎威将军) and Hufu (虎符).
    Next week, Jennifer’s parents will fly frm Australia t take gd care f her. And in 3 mnths, the family will welcme a big day. Jennifer believes she will be the happiest mm in the wrld. What a warm family!
    6. Accrding t the text, Jennifer came t Xiangtan University _________.
    A. t see her friendsB. t study ChineseC. t leach English
    7. Why has Jennifer made tiger hats and shes?
    A. T hpe the baby will be as strng as a tiger.
    B. T shw her perfect skills f making things.
    C. T send them t her Chinese friends as gifts.
    8. Wh will teach the baby t draw pictures f ligers?
    A. Grandma.B. Grandpa.C. Father.
    9. What will prbably happen in 3 mnths?
    A. The baby will nly get a clth tiger as a gift.
    B. Jennifer’s mm will send wishes frm Australia.
    C. Jennifer will give birth t a baby at that time.
    10. What can we knw frm the text?
    A. Jennifer lives a very happy life in China.
    B. The baby will be a general in the future.
    C. Jennifer’s parents like the stry f Hufu.
    D
    Liu Min is an English teacher. These days, her family are experiencing a different life f wrking and studying. They get up and d mrning exercises at 6:30 in the living rm. After breakfast, they start their wrk and study. Her husband turns n his cmputer in the study (书房), reading his e-mails and making a list f tday’s wrk. Befre Liu Min begins t give lessns nline, she makes sure her students, including her daughter, are all there.
    Because f COVID-19, many peple are nw wrking and studying at hme like them, and they are called telecmmuters (居家办公者). When they are wrking at hme, they can fllw their wn plans and get cnnected with the wrkplaces thrugh the Internet.
    Wrking at hme brings them smething gd. There is mre time than befre t cmmunicate with their family members. While wrking at hme, they can lk after their children, t. On the ther hand, they save mre time and mney withut traveling t wrk. It als helps prduce less pllutin and fewer traffic prblems. Hwever, the family still hpe they can cme back t their nrmal life.
    Thanks t the Chinese gvernment, things are getting better nw. As a manager, the husband can talk with his wrkers face t face. Liu Min and her daughter can return t schl.
    11. Liu Min’s husband des these things in the study except ________.
    A. reading his e-mailsB. making a list f tday’s wrkC. ding mrning exercises
    12. Frm the text, which f the fllwing is ne f the advantages f wrking at hme?
    A. They can have big meals with family.
    B. They can save mre time and mney.
    C. They can lk after their ld parents.
    13. In paragraph (段落) 2, what des the underlined wrd “them” refer t (指代)?
    A. Liu Min’s family.B. Liu Min’s children.C. Liu Min’s students.
    14. Accrding t the text, we can knw that ________.
    A. Liu Min is a Chinese teacher
    B. Liu Min is her daughter’s teacher
    C. Liu Min’s family dn’t need t wrk
    15. What can be the best title (标题) f the text?
    A. Different Wrkplaces
    B. Liu Min’s Teaching Online
    C. Wrking and Studying at Hme
    E
    Recently, a study (研究), published in BMC Medicine, fund that sitting in frnt f the TV fr a lng time was a risk fr peple’s health.
    After scientists used data (数据) n 370, 000 peple, cvering 12 years, they fund abut 9, 000 develped heart disease. They fund peple with genes (基因) f heart prblems were mre likely t develp heart disease. Hwever, they fund that peple withut such genes watching mre than fur hurs f TV every day were als at the greatest risk f heart disease. Peple spending 2 t 3 hurs a day watching TV had a 6% lwer risk. And thse wh watched less than an hur had a 16% lwer risk. The scientists f the research team finally fund cutting TV watching time t less than an hur a day culd prevent 10% f heart disease.
    In life, peple wh want “ne mre episde (剧集)” might be the grup at a higher risk, fr they are easy t spend mre time watching TV. If they have mre snacks while watching TV, it might add the risk f putting their hearts in danger. S, if peple want t watch TV lnger, standing up and mving the bdy, r hanging ut will wrk. But limiting their time n TV culd be a mre useful way t help them avid pssible heart prblems in the future.
    16. Accrding t the text, hw lng did the research cver?
    A. 10 years.B. 12 years.C. 14 years.
    17. Frm paragraph 2, which f the fllwing is right?
    A. Peple watching ne hur f TV are at the greatest risk.
    B. The less time peple spend n TV, the lwer the risk is.
    C. Watching TV is the nly reasn t develp heart disease.
    18. Which best explains “limiting” underlined in paragraph 3?
    A. 限制B. 记录C. 花费
    19. Where is this text prbably frm?
    A. A tur guide.B. A stry bk.C. A newspaper.
    20. What is the main idea f the text?
    A. We’d better nt watch TV mre than ne hur a day.
    B. Hanging ut after dinner is gd fr ur heart health.
    C. Having snacks while watching TV adds risks fr heart.
    第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
    阅读下面的短文,根据短文内容回答问题。
    Mre than fifty years has passed since the first satellite (人造卫星) in China was sent int space in 1970. Frm then n, many such inspiring mments were left in ur memries.
    The latest encuraging mment happened n June 5th, 2022. Shenzhu-14. China’s ninth manned spaceflight (载人宇宙飞行), successfully sent Chen Dng, Liu Yang and Cai Xuzhe int the Tiangng Space Statin, where they will wrk and live fr 6 mnths. Mre research wrk will be cmpleted and great challenges are ahead waiting fr them.
    Years f preparatins were made fr the mment. Fr example, enugh knwledge and skills helped deal with prblems: physical and mental (心理的) training helped t keep the best cnditin. Althugh it’s the secnd time fr Chen Dng and Liu Yang t fly int space, they again with Cai Xuzhe received hard training. As fr Liu Yang, nw a mther f tw yung kids, she believes it’s her duty t d that fr ur cuntry and set a gd example fr her children.
    The success als belngs t the team. Hundreds f engineers and wrkers are behind them, ffering all kinds f supprts t help them finish mre tasks.
    21. In China, when was the first satellite sent int space?
    _____________________________________________
    22. Hw lng will the astrnauts stay in space?
    _____________________________________________
    23. Why did they receive physical and mental training?
    _____________________________________________
    24. Accrding t the text, wh will help the astrnauts finish the tasks?
    _____________________________________________
    25. What d yu think f the three astrnauts?
    _____________________________________________
    第三部分 知识运用(共三节,满分35分)
    第一节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面的短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    Zhang Ning was a vlunteer at the Winter Olympics in 2022. When she was interviewed n the radi she shared her stries and ____26____ with the audience. “I was 10 years ld when Beijing hsted the Summer Olympics in 2008. When I was watching TV and ____27____ the amazing perfrmances, I was excited.”
    She came t knw that hlding the Olympics was a chance t tell China’s stries t the wrld, shwing the wrld a mre beautiful China. “It’s a wnderful experience t be a ____28____ at the Winter Olympics 14 years later. It made my childhd dream ____29____.” Said Zhang Ning. “I learned a lt, ____30____ I was busy and tired.”
    In rder t ____31____ better service, Zhang Ning and her team were trained seriusly. They wrked hard in the face f difficulties. One f the mst ____32____ things was the cld weather, as sme f the wrk was utside. With mre than 300 ther vlunteers, she might have wrked fr abut 1, 000 hurs, like checking temperatures and tickets ___33___ at Wukesng Sprts Center.
    “I ____34____ fr ur athletes when they were trying their best. I felt _____35_____ prud when I saw ur natinal flag rising high, tears in my eyes,” She said, “Vlunteering is unusual. I’ll d such jbs again and invite mre peple t jin us.”
    26. A. feelingsB. plansC. hbbies
    27. A. preparingB. givingC. enjying
    28. A. playerB. vlunteerC. cach
    29. A. cme trueB. cme utC. cme up
    30. A. becauseB. unlessC. thugh
    31. A. findB. prvideC. take
    32. A. difficultB. differentC. dangerus
    33. A. heavilyB. angrilyC. carefully
    34. A. swamB. cheeredC. drve
    35. A. freelyB. hardlyC. truly
    第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    阅读下面的材料,在空白处填入适当内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
    Shashan is a famus city, the hmetwn f Chairman (主席) Ma Zedng. He nce lived, studied, and ____36____ (wrk) here. Shashan is a cmfrtable place with flwers blming (开花) and birds singing all year rund. Shashan is a place ____37____ is almst in the middle f Hunan, abut 40 kilmeters frm Xiangtan City and 100 kilmeters frm Changsha City.
    As the high-speed trains are available, mre and mre peple cme here ____38____ train. Fr example, it nly ____39____ (take) less than half an hur frm Changsha City t Shashan. Others still want ____40____ (drive) here with families r friends. If peple cme here n December 26th, it will be the ____41____ (gd) time. On that day there are a lt f celebratins, because it’s Chairman Ma’s birthday.
    ____42____ (Visitr) frm all ver the cuntry cme here t shw their respect. They als lk frward t ____43____ (watch) The Mst Memrable Shashan (《最忆韶山冲》), which can help them better understand Chairman Ma. They will be deeply mved and encuraged. Besides, it is nt nly ____44____ gd place fr students t have schl trips, but als an educatin base fr ____45____ (they) t learn abut the histry f the Cmmunist Party f China (中国共产党).
    第三节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
    阅读下面的短文,将划线部分译成英文或中文。
    Maybe it’s nrmal fr yu t feel lnely and nervus because f the bad relatins between yu and yur family. 1. Here is sme advice that may help.
    If the relatins between yur parents becme difficult, they might argue. When it happens, it’s like a big, black clud hanging ver yur hme. At that time, yu’d better learn t ffer help. 2.你可以帮忙做更多的家务, s that yur parents have mre time t cmmunicate with each ther.
    Smetimes, it may truble yu that yur parents care mre abut yur study. Why nt try t understand them and 3. tell them that yu are studying hard t becme better.
    Als, fight between yu and yur bther are cmmn. Fr example, he always refuses t let yu watch yur favrite prgrams. Instead he may watch whatever he likes until late at night. Of curse, it’s unfair. Hwever, remember nt t be angry because it’s useless. Sit dwn t have a talk with him. 4.这是一个与他相处的好办法。
    Believe it r nt, 5. Cmmunicating and understanding is very imprtant fr a family. If all f yu are friendly and think mre fr each ther, relatins will be imprved.
    46. ____________________________
    47. ____________________________
    48. ____________________________
    49. ____________________________
    50. ____________________________
    第四部分 写作技能(共1小题,满分15分)
    51. 亲爱的同学,恭喜你即将毕业。在过去的三年初中学习中,你的老师教导、关心、帮助过你。请你选择一位老师,表达你对他(她)的感激之情。
    内容包括:
    1.你对这位老师的印象;
    2.你感谢他(她)的原因;
    3.你对他(她)的祝福。
    注意:
    1.词数在80词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数);
    2.可适当举例或拓展;
    3.文中不能出现可能透露真实身份的任何信息(如校名,师生名字等)。
    It’s time fr me t say gdbye t my junir schl life. I’m here t say thanks t _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    答案
    第二部分 阅读技能(共两节,满分50分)
    第一节(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
    阅读下面的材料,从每题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出最佳选项回答问题或完成句子。
    A
    【1~2题答案】
    【答案】1. C 2. A
    B
    【3~5题答案】
    【答案】3. B 4. B 5. A
    C
    【6~10题答案】
    【答案】6. B 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. A
    D
    【11~15题答案】
    【答案】11. C 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. C
    E
    【16~20题答案】
    【答案】16. B 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. A
    第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
    【21~25题答案】
    【答案】21. In 1970.
    22. Fr 6 mnths.
    23. T keep the best cnditin.
    24. Hundreds f engineers and wrkers.
    25. They are hard-wrking, selfless and respectable.
    第三部分 知识运用(共三节,满分35分)
    第一节(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
    【26~35题答案】
    【答案】26. A 27. C 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. C
    第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    【36~45题答案】
    【答案】36. wrked
    37. that##which 38. by
    39. takes 40. t drive
    41. best 42. Visitrs
    43. watching 44. a
    45. them
    第三节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
    【46~50题答案】
    【答案】46. 这有一些建议可能会有帮助。
    47. Yu can help with mre husewrk。
    48. 告诉他们你正在努力学习为了变得更好。
    49. It is a gd way t get alng with him.
    50. 沟通和理解对于一个家庭来说非常重要。
    第四部分 写作技能(共1小题,满分15分)
    【51题答案】
    【答案】例文:
    It’s time fr me t say gdbye t my junir schl life. I’m here t say thanks t my English teacher Mr. Zhang. She is very kind and patient. She has helped me a lt in my studies since I came t this schl. When I was in truble, she used t encurage me and give me sme gd advice. At ne time I failed t pass an English test and I was very sad abut it. She came and cheered me up. She tld me sme gd ways t imprve my English. With her help, I have made great prgress in English. I’m s thankful t her fr her kind help that I will wrk harder and try t d better in the future. I hpe she will becme better and better.
    考生注意
    1.试题卷中听力录音材料以中速朗读两遍。
    2.作答时,所有答案均应写在答题卡上。选择题所选答案须将相应字母代号涂黑,非选择题的答案要书写工整、清晰、规范、卷面整洁。选择题符合题意的答案只有1个,不选、多选、错选,均不给分。
    3.本试卷满分120分,时量100分钟。全部试卷分为四个部分,共10页,71题,其中试题卷8页,答题卡2页。考试结束后,试题卷和答题卡均应交回。
    Gd luck t yu!
    Ntice
    Our headmaster will give us a speech n Safety in the schl hall at 8 a. m. n June 21st. All the students shuld be present.
    It’s mainly abut:
    1. pssible accidents arund teenagers;
    2. prper ways t prtect urselves.
    Yu’re suppsed t:
    1. arrive n time;
    2. listen carefully;
    3. take ntes.
    Students’ Unin
    Days
    Places
    Teachers
    Activities
    Mnday
    Meeting rm
    Miss Li
    Paper cutting
    Tuesday
    Schl Hall
    Miss White
    AI rbts
    Wednesday
    Lab
    Mr. Yang
    Bilgy experiments
    Thursday
    Medical ffice
    Dctr Brwn
    First aid
    Friday
    Playgrund
    Mr. Smith
    Sccer

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