湖南省株洲市醴陵市2022年初中学业水平诊断性测试英语试题（含答案无听力）

这是一份湖南省株洲市醴陵市2022年初中学业水平诊断性测试英语试题（含答案无听力），共10页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分7， B， C等内容，欢迎下载使用。

2022年初中学业水平诊断性测试试题卷
英　语

本试题分听力技能、知识运用、阅读技能、写作技能四个部分，共8页
时量120分钟，满分150分

第一部分 听力技能 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1.Where did Jim go last weekend?
A. B. C.
2. How is the weather today?
A. B. C.
3. How often does the boy play basketball?
A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Twice a month.
4. When will Paul have a meeting?
A. On Thursday. B. From Friday to Sunday. C. From Friday to Saturday.
5. What color does Lily like best?
A. Blue. B. Green C. Yellow.
第二节（共15个小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有2~3个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题５秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出５秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What will the man do next?
A. Leave right away. B. Stay for dinner. C. Catch a train.
7. What time could it be now?
A. 5:40. B. 6:30. C. 7:20.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8 When will they go for a trip?
A. In June B. In July. C. In August.
9. How long will they stay there?
A. For a month B. For seven days. C. For five days.
听下面一段对话，回答第10和第11两个小题。
10. What is the first gift for Cathy?
A. A car. B. A skirt. C. A computer.
11.What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Father and daughter. B. Husband and wife. C. Teacher and student.
听下面一段对话，回答第12至第14三个小题。
12. Who is coming this afternoon?
A. John. B. Mark. C. John’s uncle.
13. How old is Mark?
A. Six. B. Seven. C. Eight.
14. What will Mark do?
A. Sweep the floor. B. Water the flowers. C. Clean the kitchen.
听下面一段对话，完成第15至第17三个小题。
15. Who played the guitar upside down?
A. Jack. B. Tony. C. Lucy.
16. What subject does Lucy like best now?
A. History. B. Music. C. Math.
17. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Talent shows. B. History lessons. C. Special memories.
听下面一段独白，回答第18至第20三个小题。
18. When do girls in Mexico have a special birthday celebration?
A. At age 15. B. At age 18. C. At age 21.
19. What is put on the top of a cake for the 21st birthday in some English-speaking countries?
A. A coin. B. A pen. C. A key.
20. What is the speaker talking about?
A. The story of birthday parties.
B. The tradition of birthday parties.
C. The meaning of birthday parties.

第二部分 知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 语法填空（共10个小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
从A、B、C三个选项中选择正确的答案填空。
21. Nowadays, Liling is _____ nice city to live in.
A. a B.an C. /
22. China is famous _____its long history.
A. at B. in C. for
23. _____ is necessary for you to wear a mask when you go out.
A. It B. This C. That
24. ________ interesting! This new bus can go without a driver. Let’s have a try.
A. What B. How C. What a
25. Anna is _____ than Jack. She seldom plays with her classmates.
A. outgoing B. more outgoing C. less outgoing
26.Chinese tea is very popular. It _____ to many different parts of the world.
A. sends B. has sent C. is sent
27. When you_____ me at eight yesterday evening, I _____ TV with my sister.
A. called, watched B. called, was watching C. was calling, watched
28. We are supposed to care about the people_____ keep our city clean and beautiful.
A. / B. who C. which
29. Look at the heavy rain. Our teacher might_____ the basketball game till next week.
A. put off B. get off C. take off
30. The photos are so beautiful! Can you tell me_____?
A. where you will take them B. where did you take them C. where you took them

第二节 完型填空 （共10个小题，每小题2分，满分20分）
阅读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
That night, I had a quarrel with my mother, and then ran out of the house. While on the road, I remembered that I had 31.____ money in my pocket. I did not even take my cell phone with me to make a call home.
I didn’t know where I could go. Finally, I went through a noodle shop, and I suddenly felt very 32.____ . I wished for a bowl of noodles, but I didn’t take any money with me.
The seller saw me standing before the counter and asked, “Hey, little girl, you want to eat a bowl?” “But…I did not carry any money.” I 33.____ answered.
“Okay, I’ll treat you. ” the seller said. A few minutes later, the seller brought 34.____ a steaming bowl of noodles. After eating some pieces, I began to 35.____.
“What is it? ” the seller asked.
“Nothing. I am just touched by your kindness! Even a 36.____ on the street gives me a bowl of noodles, but my mother… We had a quarrel an hour ago. She doesn’t understand me. I hate her!”
The seller sighed, “Girl, why did you think so? Think again. I only gave you a bowl of noodles and you were touched. However, your mother had raised you since you were little, why were you not grateful? You should say 37.____ to her. ”
I was really surprised after hearing that, and slowly, my face became 38.____.
Many memories came back into my mind just like a 39.____. “I think I understand now,” I said to the seller, “I… I must go home now. My mom must be waiting for me… Yes, I’m quite sure! Thank you very much!”
I stood up quickly and turned back. I walked faster and faster. At last, I began to 40.____.
31. A. no B. some C. a little
32. A. tired B. angry C. hungry
33. A. happily B. loudly C. shyly
34. A. it B. me C. him
35. A. cry B. laugh C. sleep
36. A. friend B. neighbor C. stranger
37. A. hello B. sorry C. goodbye
38. A. red B. blue C. green
39. A. book B. film C. mirror
40. A. fly B. jump C. run

第三部分 阅读技能（共20个小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下面的材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项回答问题或完成句子。
A

（41、42题图）
41. There are ______ ways for the students to learn about the culture.   
A. three      B. four     C. five
42. What can’t you find in the picture? 
 A. The price.   B. The purpose of the ad (广告). C. The telephone number.    
B

After-school Activities
Would you like to be a singer?
Teacher: Miss White
Place: In the music room
Time: Monday, 16:00-18:00
Age: Over 5 years old
Do you enjoy playing chess?
Teacher: Mr. King
Place: In the library
Time: Friday, 15:00-18:00
Age: Over 7 years old, under 10
Are you good at painting?
Teacher: Mrs. Hunt
Place: In the art room
Time: Saturday 9:00-10:30
Age: Over 6 years old, under 14
Are you interested in ball games?
Teacher: Mr. Green
Place: On the playground
Time: Sunday, 14:30-16:30
Age: Over 10 years old
（43、44、45题表）
43. If Lily wants to learn to sing, she has to be over ______ years old.
  A. four B. five C. Six
44. Cindy is 8 years old and she likes playing chess. ______ can teach her.
A. Mr. King   B. Mrs. Hunt C. Mr. Green
45. Which of the following activities is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Painting.  B. Ball games. C. Dancing.
C
Ever since she was in the fourth grade, Daron Nefcy has dreamed of making a cartoon. Her first cartoon product was a pink cat named Uh-oh.
Today, Nefcy is making her lively show Star vs. the Forces of Evil. The cartoon is about the story of the brave Star Butterfly, a princess from the planet Mewni. To protect her from an evil, Star’s parents send her to live with the Diaz family on Earth.
Star, of course, has no idea how to act on the Earth. But she has a good heart and will do anything to protect the Diaz’s son, Marco. As for Marco, he would welcome a little danger into his boring life, but he gets a little more than he asks for!
Disney previewed a part of Star vs. the Forces of Evil at San Diego Comic-Con 2014, a yearly meeting of more than 130,000 comic book and pop culture fans. The audience (观众) fell in love with Star Butterfly, even though they haven’t seen the whole cartoon yet.
Soon after previewing part of the show at Comic-Con, Nefcy began receiving letters of support. And she received fan art, lots of it. Now in Nefcy’s room, the fan art covers the walls. There is even a photo of a fan wearing a Star dress!
46.What was Daron Nefcy’s first cartoon product?
A. A dog. B. A cat. C. A princess.
47.Star’s parents send her to the earth because ______.
A. it’s dangerous to live on Mewni
B. it’s comfortable to live on the earth
C. Star would like to live with Marco
48.We can guess from the third paragraph that _______.
A. Star refuses to protect Marco
B. Marco doesn’t like Star at all
C. it’s not peaceful to live on the earth
49. Which of the following may be true?
A. The audience really love Star Butterfly.
B. The audience have seen the whole cartoon.
C. The audience refuse to see the whole cartoon.
50. From the last paragraph, we believe that ________．
A. Nefcy has become a famous artist
B. Nefcy can’t get support from her fans
C. Nefcy will be popular with the audience
D

(picture 1)
Tonight I am more than happy to read out the winners of the photo competition. We were very pleased with our competition this year. Compared with other years, we received many more photos. Even though all of the photos are excellent, we are sorry to say that we cannot give prizes to everyone.
The person who won the prize for the subject Nature is fifteen-year-old Li Wei. Li Wei took a photo of the trees in Xiangshan Park. His photo shows the different colors on the hill.
The photo which we liked best in the City and People group was taken by Zhao Ming. Zhao Ming is only twelve years old. Her photo shows a person rushing across a street on a windy evening. It is a beautiful girl who is wearing a blouse and skirt, and who is protecting her books against the showers.
The best photo in the Music group was taken by He Zhong. His photo of the group Crazy Feet shows the singer, Becky Wang, and the band playing at a concert. He Zhong manages to show how this great new band moves and sounds, and the good time which their fans are having.
A group of photos which show Bejing and Cambridge in England has won the prize for the subject Home and Away. They show some of the experiences of a young visitor to our country, and some memories of his home. The winner is Tony Smith!
Congratulations to our winners and thanks to everyone who entered the competition. Now let’s welcome our headmaster to present the prizes to the winners!
51. How many subjects are there in the competition?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
52. This photo (picture 1) might be taken by _____.
A. Li Wei B. Zhao Ming C. He Zhong
53.Tony Smith won the competition with _____.
A. one photo B. Two photos C. A group of photos
54.Who will present the prizes?
A. The teacher. B. The headmaster. C. The writer.
55. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Results of the photo competition.
B. Subjects of the photo competition.
C. Winners of the photo competition.
E
There is an old saying: “Laughter is the best medicine”, and modern research certainly shows that laughing is good for you. When you have a good laugh, you exercise your muscles(肌肉), strengthen your heart and balance your body chemistry,. However, these are the results of having a laugh. Then, why do we do it?
Until recently, scientists believed that laughter was a human behavior only. They argued that people find jokes funny because we can put ourselves in another person’s shoes, and that animals can’t do that. People don’t all have the same sense of humor. Sometimes there isn’t any joke, or we may not have heard it, but we laugh because the people around us are laughing. How long and how loud we would laugh are also shared. We just go on following the example with one another until the laughter disappears.
Many pet owners believe that animals have a sense of humor, too, For example, pet dogs often run away with a shoe and then stop, inviting their owners to run after them. Dogs even seem to smile when their owners join in the game. As the game continues, our pets make noises that are very like laughter. You can compare this behavior to the laughter of a baby, who continually throws a toy down, waits for the adult to pick it up and throws it down again.
Perhaps laughter is just a sign that we are having fun. Fun, like laughter, is best when we share it with friends.
56.The main idea of the first paragraph is ______ of having a laugh.
A. the causes B. the results C. different ways
57.Scientists believe that ______.
A. people have the same sense of humor
B. both human and animals can find jokes funny
C. sometimes some people laugh because people around them do so
58.From the behavior of pet dogs, we can tell that ______ .
A. Pet dogs are very naughty
B. animals have a sense of humor, too
C. animals are more humorous than human beings
59. When a baby throws a toy down, waits for the adult to pick it up and throws it down again, he will be ______ .
A. nervous B. angry C. happy
60. The writer encourages us to_____.
A. share fun with friends
B. play games with babies
C. make friends with animals

第四部分 写作技能 （共三节，满分50分）
第一节 双向翻译 （共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据上下文内容，将文中画线部分译成汉语或者英语。
Many students ask for advice about how to improve their English. Here are three basic questions.
61.第一个问题是关于对英语电影的理解。Li Hao from Hubei wrote, “I like watching English films, but I don’t understand very much. What can I do?”
62. Watching films is a great way to learn English! Watch and listen several times, and guess the meaning of the new words. Each time you will learn something new. 63.I also advise you to talk about the films with your friends. For example, what is the film about? What do you think of the actor? What do you learn from it?
The second question is about speaking. Wang Fan from Jilin wrote, “Our school has a teacher from the US. I am shy and I am afraid to speak to her. What should I do?”
You can say, “Hello! How are you?” “Do you like China?” These are good ways to start a conversation. And 64. before you begin, you should smile at her! Remember this: Do not be shy. Just try.
The third question is about vocabulary. Zhang Lei from Anhui wrote, “I write down new words, but I forget them quickly. How can I remember them?”
Do not worry. It is natural to forget new words! I suggest you write four or five words a day on pieces of paper and place them in your room. 65. 当你看到单词时，读一读，并试着使用它们。

第二节 回答问题 （共5个小题；每小题3分，满分15分）
阅读下面的材料，然后根据材料内容回答问题。
My name is Susie Thompson, and I’m fifteen. I’ve been at River School, London since I was eleven. If I pass my exams next year, I’ll stay here until I’m eighteen.
River School is a secondary school, about twenty minutes from my home by bike. Before I came here, I went to the primary school near my home. I started primary school when I was five and stayed there for six years.
We go to school every weekday from 8:45 am to 3:15 pm. Before class, our teacher checks which pupils are present or absent. Then everyone goes to the main hall. There, our head teacher tells us news about the school. At 9:05 am the bell rings, and lessons start. Each lesson lasts (持续) for an hour. We have a break from 11:05 am until 11:15 am, then another lesson, and then lunch for an hour. In the afternoon, we have two more lessons before school finishes.
This year I have ten subjects: math, English, physics, chemistry, French, history, geography, music. IT and PE. Some people learn German instead of French. It’s lucky we don’t have exams in every subject.
We have a large sports ground for football and tennis, where we can play both during and after school hours. After -school activities such as sports clubs and language societies are popular too. During the school year there are usually visits to museums and to camps for activities such as climbing and walking in the country. Last year a group of us even went to Japan. There are parties and a sports day, and school plays are really popular. Once a term, there is a parents’ meeting, so our parents and teachers can talk about our progress.
What do I like best about school? English, chemistry, music, sports clubs, school plays…and above all, my friends!
66.Where does Susie live?
67.How long has Susie been at school?
68.When does the fourth lesson start?
69.Do all the students at River School have the same subjects? How do you know that?
70.How do you like Susie’s school life? Why?

第三节 情景作文（共1个小题，满分25分）
71.假定你是李华，近期你校将以“The Hero in My Heart”为题举行一次英语演讲比赛，请你写一篇演讲稿，包括以下内容：
（1）谁是你心目中的英雄；
（2）他/她做过哪些令你印象深刻的事情；
（3）你从他/她身上学到了什么。
注意：（1）词数90左右。开头结尾已经给出，不计入总词数；
（2）可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
（3）文中不能出现可能透露考生真实身份的任何信息。

Ladies and gentlemen,
I’m Li Hua. I am honored to stand here and give a speech today.
_______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

That’s all. Thank you.


2022年初中学业水平诊断性测试试题卷
（英语）参 考 答 案

第一部分 听力技能 （共两节，满分30分）
1.CABBC　　6.AABCB　　　11.ACBAB　　16.ACACB
第二部分 知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 语法填空（共10个小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
21. ACABC 26. CBBAC
第二节 完型填空 （共10个小题，每小题2分，满分20分）
31. ACCBA 36. CBABC
第三部分 阅读技能（共20个小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
41. ACBAC 46. BACAC　　51. BACBA 56. BCBCA

第四部分 写作技能 （共三节，满分50分）

第一节 双向翻译 （共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据上下文内容，将文中画线部分译成汉语或者英语。
61. The first question is about understanding English films(or: movies). /
The first question is about the understanding of English films(or: movies).
62. 看电影是学习英语的好方法!
63.我还建议你和你的朋友谈论电影。
64.在你开始之前，你应该对她微笑！
65. Read the words when you see them, and try to use them. /
When you see the words, read them, and try to use them.

第二节 回答问题 （共5个小题；每小题3分，满分15分）
66.In England./ In the UK. / In London.
She lives in England. / in the UK. / in London.
67.For 15 years.
She has been at school for 15 years.
68. At 1: 15 pm.
It starts at 1: 15 pm.
69.No. Some people learn German instead of French.
70.语句正确，言之成理即可。（如：I think it’s great. Because students don’t have exams in every subject.）

第三节 情景作文（共1个小题， 满25分 ）

作文评分标准
一、评分原则
1．本题满分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分，可精确到0.5分。
3．评分重点：内容要点、语言准确，适当兼顾词汇运用和语法结构的丰富性以及上下文的连贯性。
4．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5．如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。

二、分值组成参考：
内容要点（18分）
（1）谁是你心目中的英雄；（点题３分，简要介绍３分）
（2）他/她做过哪些令你印象深刻的事情；（点题4分，细节、感受3分）
（3）你从他/她身上学到了什么。（点题３分，自身行动2分）
书写整齐规范，字数足够（２分）
语言流畅准确（３分）
高级词汇或优美句式（１分）
主题意义积极向上，情感升华（１分）

三、各档给分范围及要求
第五档（21-25分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
——覆盖所有内容要点。
——应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致。
——有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（16-20分）
完成了试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
——应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第三档（11-15分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
——应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（6-10分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（1-5分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
——明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
——语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息，内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
四、说明
1．内容要点可用不同方式表达。
2．应紧扣主题，可适当发挥。