2022年安徽省安庆市中考二模英语试题（无听力含答案）

这是一份2022年安徽省安庆市中考二模英语试题（无听力含答案），共15页。试卷主要包含了全卷包括“试题卷”两部分等内容，欢迎下载使用。

2022年安徽中考目标二模
英 语 试 题
注意事项：
1.本试卷共四个部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2.全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。
3.请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷上”答题无效。
4.考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。

第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What does Jimmy usually do after school?
A. B. C.
2. How will Mr. Green go to Shanghai tomorrow?
A. B. C.
3. What's the boy's hobby?
A. Reading books. B. Writing articles. C. Collecting coins.
4. How much should the woman pay if she buys two blue dresses?
A. $75. B. $140. C. $150.
5. What does the man mean?
A. They arrive late. B. They can eat now . C. They have to wait.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6,7小题。
6. Who is Grace going on vacation with?
A. Her parents. B. Her friends. C. Her classmates.
7. Where will Tim and his parents go?
A. To Sanya. B. To Mount Huangshan. C. To some ancient forests.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. What did Jack get as a prize last year?
A. A dictionary. B. A book. C. A violin.
9. How did Jack learn to play the violin?
A. He learned it by himself.
B. He learned it at a music school.
C. He learned it from a musician.
10. When will Jack take part in the school art festival?
A. On April 20th. B. On April 22nd. C. On April 24th.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有5个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. Where is Zhang Jiacheng from?
A. Guangdong. B. Jiangsu. C. Beijing.
12. How old was Zhang Jiacheng when he lost his right arm?
A. 5. B. 10. C. 15.
13. Why did Zhang Jiacheng become famous?
A. Because he put some pictures on Douyin.
B. Because he told some stories on Douyin.
C. Because he put some videos on Douyin.
14. What did Zhu Fangyu think about Zha Jiacheng?
A. Zhang would never achieve his dream.
B. Zhang has a strong will though he’s young.
C. Zhang is the best child he has ever seen paying basketball.
15. What can we learn from the story?
A. It’s never too old to learn.
B. Never give up your dream.
C. A good beginning is half done.
Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。
短文读两遍。
Notice about the Art Festival
Where
It will be held at Central Park.
When
From 9 o’clock to 11 o’clock on 16._______ 25th
What
You can enjoy many beautiful paintings about different people.
You can also try to17._______ your own paintings.
We will invite some famous young18._______
How
The best way to get there is to go by 19._______
How long
It takes about 20._______ minutes.

Ⅴ. 单项填空（共10小题； 每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. ---Kids from happy families are more confident.
--- That’s true. A happy family provides a loving______for its children.
A. environment B. activity C. expression D. development
22. My friend often gives money away to those homeless children in Africa______, not letting others know that.
A. secretly B. simply C. slowly D. seriously
23. --- Your parents have moved to the countryside, haven’t they?
--- Yeah. They hate the noise in the city. They think the life in the countryside is more______.
A. helpful B. useful C. peaceful D. colorful
24. --- What do you think we should do to make our school cleaner?
---It’s necessary to______rubbish and put it into the proper bin.
A. cut up B. pick up C. put up D. mix up
25. Earth Hour could______people to protect the environment and deal with climate (气候) change.
A. trust B. spread C. question D. lead
26. ______it’s a bit rainy, it really feels quite nice to walk on the green grass.
A. Unless B. Because C. Although D. Since
27. ---As we know, the movie I Am What I Am______a hit these days.
--- Yeah. Many people, especially, teenagers love watching it.
A. become B. was becoming C. has become D. became
28. --- Boys and girls, do you remember______you came here three years ago?
--- To realize our dreams!
A. when B. how C. what D. why
29. --- Three Chinese astronauts have come back and we’ve learnt something new about space.
--- That’s true.______, China has made great progress in space science these years.
A. First of all B. In fact C. For example D. To begin with
30. --- All of Wu Jing’s movies are wonderful.
---______. Especially The Battle at Lake Changjin (长津湖).
A. I can’t agree more B. Don’t mention it
C. That’s not the point D. I’m afraid not
Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
There is an ancient town called Meishan in Sichuan, southwest of China. The Mount Emei is not far away, and the famous Min River runs 31 it. The great poet Su Shi was born here in 1037. Su Shi had a brother named Su Zhe, who was two years younger. The two boys 32 together, and were very friendly to each other.
Their father paid great 33 to their studies and the boys had a wide 34 of literature (文学) and history.
When Su Shi was 10 years old, his father was called away to be an official (官员) 35 his mother took care of the children. One day, he was 36 with his mother. The book was about a man called Fan Pang who was a very 37 official in the Eastern Han Dynasty. He died young because of his honesty. Su Shi felt 38 after reading the story and he said to his mother, “ Mum, when I grow up, I want to be a man like Fan Pang.”
His mother 39 , “If you are a man like Fan Pang, I’ll be like his mother.”
Since then, Su Shi made a decision to be an honest person to 40 the poor people.
31. A. between B. through C. over D. against
32. A. set off B. took after C. grew up D. cared for
33. A. attention B. service C. time D. force
34. A. influence B. knowledge C. example D. introduction
35. A. because B. though C. until D. while
36. A. reading B. playing C. living D. producing
37. A. humorous B. talented C. honest D. careful
38. A. sad B. excited C. relaxed D. lonely
39. A. cried B. added C. remembered D. replied
40. A. compare B. serve C. control D. follow
B
When I woke up, rain was loudly hitting my window. Weekends are my only 41 to sleep in, but I couldn’t because of the sound of the rain. My brain was 42 and full of ideas, so I decided to get up and finish my English homework.
I went to a coffee shop and started taking notes on 43 was happening around me. When I looked at the parking lot (停车场), an elder couple in a car 44 my attention. After parking, the woman got out and went to help her 45 out of the car. They entered the shop together.
As soon as they came inside, another car 46 in the parking lot, with all four windows rolled down（摇下来）and a group of people inside. The teenager who was driving it had turned the speakers up so high that I could hear their 47 inside the coffee shop.
However, they were not bad kids. They were just 48 the music.
Many memories jumped into my 49 . I could not stop thinking about the people who have been by my side since I was young.
Similar to life in the real world, everyone is different, but whether 50 or enemies, we are all still part of the same group. When we disagree with others, we should take a step back, look carefully and try to understand them before judging (判断) them.
41. A. accident B. chance C. treasure D. suggestion
42. A. frozen B. empty C. awake D. worried
43. A. what B. where C. when D. how
44. A. brought B. paid C. watched D. caught
45. A. sister B. husband C. daughter D. uncle
46. A. broke B. blew C. appeared D. cancelled
47. A. music B. voice C. shouting D. sound
48. A. making B. singing C. writing D. enjoying
49. A. face B. dream C. life D. mind
50. A. parents B. doctors C. friends D. relatives
第三部分　阅读理解 （共两大题，满分45分）
Ⅶ．补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hello, Grace! We’ll have a long summer vacation after finishing middle school. 51
A. I just want to keep healthy.
B. But I believe I can make it.
C. Do you have any plans?
D. I never eat junk food.
E. How are your parents?
F. How are you going to do that?
G. I will stop eating junk food.
B: Yes, I plan to visit my grandparents with my father. I haven’t seen them for four months. I miss them a lot. What about you?
A: 52 You know, nothing is more important than health.
B: I agree with you. 53
A: I’m going to run in the park for half an hour every morning.
What’s more, 54
B: Junk food? Sounds difficult for you.
A: Maybe you are right. 55 Wait and see.
B: Well, I hope your dream will come true.
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Wang Ruoyu, 13, Hangzhou, figure skating (花样滑冰)

There are many artificial ice rinks （人工雪场）here. Russian figure skater Alexandra Trusova （特鲁索娃）is my favorite player. She encouraged me to learn figure skating. She is known for challenging tricks that people think only boys can do.
In 2021, my team took part in an Asian figure skating tour competition in Hangzhou. We won the gold medal in the team event.
Zhen Xi, 16, Beijing
Snowboarding

Snowboarding is one of my favorite sports. In 2014, I started to learn it from my father, a super fan of the sport. He has a left-foot –forward-stance (左脚在前的站立姿势), which is common.
In 2019, my family traveled to Austria. I got a professional coach, a nice lady, she taught me to stand on the snowboard with my right foot in front.
Li Zimeng, 13, Sanya
ice hockey（曲棍球）

I can play ice hockey in Sanya, though a long time ago I never thought I could. In 2020, my school opened a class in ice hockey and invited three players from UK to teach them. We usually train on the playground at school. There is one ice rink in Sanya. I go there to train twice a month.
In fact, I was born in Northeast China. I learned to ski and skate there. But when I was 4 years old, my family moved here. Now, I can feel a winter like my friends up north.
56. Who encouraged Wan Ruoyu to learn skating?
A. Her father. B. Her coach. C. A Russian player. D. Three players from UK.
57. Where did Zhen Xi learn to stand on the snowboard with his right foot in front?
A. In Austria. B. In China. C. In UK. D. In Russia.
58. What does Li Zimeng go to the ice rink for?
A. To meet her friends. B. To practice ice hockey.
C. To train how to skate. D. To experience the winter.
B
Koalas are one of the loveliest animals all around the earth. They look like teddy bears. They are gentle and quiet. Children and adults all like them.
Australia is the only area of the world that has koalas. Koalas means “no water” in Australia. Because koalas hardly drink water, but they get fluids from their food--- eucalyptus (桉树) leaves.
Koalas are marsupials (有袋类动物). They carry their babies in the mother’s pocket. A newborn baby koala is born blind and hairless. At first it drinks its mother’s milk. It spends its first six months inside the mother’s pocket. The next 2-3 months the baby koala will be seen catching its mother’s fur in the daytime. But it always hides in its mother’s pocket at night for safety. A mother koala will carry her baby until it is old enough to be its own.
Koalas live in trees in their lifetime. A baby koala starts to climb trees by itself when it is nine months old. After a long time of eating and climbing, the little koala is ready to sleep. They usually come out at night and they sleep for eighteen hours during the day. They are moving slowly and really don’t move around a lot, except to feed. Koalas are also excellent swimmers. They sometimes swim across rivers when there is flood (洪水) in their areas.
59. What do we know about koalas from Paragraph 1-2?
A. Koalas drink much water. B. Koalas only live in Australia.
C. Koalas are a kind of teddy bears. D. Koala means “water” in Australian.
60. What does the underlined word “fluid” mean in the passage?
A. 液体 B. 细菌 C. 营养 D. 热量
61. How long does a baby koala stay in its mother’s pocket?
A. One year. B. 2-3 months. C. 6 months. D. Until it is old enough.
62. What can we learn from the passage?
A. Koalas aren’t good at swimming.
B. Koalas sleep for long hours in trees at night.
C. Koalas move quickly and don’t move around a lot.
D. When koalas are born, they can’t see anything clearly.
C
A food delivery (投递) driver from Hangzhou has been a champion of the third season of CCTV’s Chinese Poetry Competition (中国诗词大会) show.
Lei Haiwei won in the TV contest’s final on 4th, April 2018, remaining calm as he answered a lot of difficult questions on ancient Chinese poetry.
More than ten years ago, he didn’t have enough money to buy books. In order to read poetry, he would go to the bookstore and memorize poems, then return home and write them down from memory. In this way, he learned over 800 poems.
These days, as a busy worker, he reads ancient poetry when waiting for food to be prepared or when he has a moment to rest. Like most delivery drivers, Lei Haiwei’s work is hard and he often has to deliver more than 50 meals in one day. While delivering food to others, he’s often hungry himself, but he hardly spends more than half an hour a day in eating and won’t spend over 25 RMB.
Lei was born in1981, in Hunan, but moved to Hanzhou ten years ago to find work. He lives in an 80-square-metre apartment with several other delivery drivers and usually works 10-hour days.
63. What kind of feeling did Lei Haiwei have during the final contest?
A. Peaceful. B. Nervous. C. Angry. D. Afraid.
64. How did Lei Haiwei learn over 800 poems？
A. By buying books. B. By memorizing poems.
C. By learning poems from TV shows. D. By copying poems from books directly.
65. When did Lei Haiwei read so many poems as a food delivery driver?
A. When having lunch. B. When making dinner.
C. When waiting for food. D. When delivering food to others.
66. What does the fourth paragraph mainly talk about?
A. Lei Haiwei’s food. B. Lei Haiwei’s hobby.
C. Lei Haiwei’s good friends. D. Lei Haiwei’s hard work.
D
One day in class, the teacher held up an apple. She stood on the platform (讲台) and said. “Please smell it in the air, and…”
One student raised his hand and said, “I can smell it. It is the smell of an apple.”
The teacher walked nearer to the students, passed by each of the students and said. “Smell it again to see if the smell of the apple is still in the air.”
Half of the students put up their hands to show that they could smell it. The teacher returned to the front of the classroom and asked again who else could smell the apple. The rest raised their hands except one boy. The teacher came to the boy and asked, “You really can't smell the apple?”
The boy answered, “No, I can't smell it. I don't think it's a real apple.” The teacher smiled at the boy and said to the class, “He's right! It's not possible to get the apple smell from this apple.”
The teacher gave all the students a lesson. Some of them may have thought that perhaps was not real, but they didn't have self-confidence (自信) to speak up. They just followed the first student blindly and went along with him.
67. Why did the teacher ask the students to smell the apple?
A. To kid them. B. To make them happy.
C. To give them a lesson. D. To sell the apples.
68. What can we learn from the text?
A. The first student smelt the smell of the apple.
B. The boy has self-confidence to tell others the truth.
C. Most of the students knew that the apple wasn't real.
D. The teacher wanted to share the apple with the students.
69. What's the best title for the passage?
A. The Smell of the Apple B. A Clever Teacher and Stupid Students
C. Never Follow Others Blindly D. A Sweet Apple and Interesting Answer
E
Do you still remember the lecture from China’s Tiangong space station last year? On March 23, astronauts Zhai Zhigang, Wang Yaping and Ye Guangfei gave another one! What fun things did they do this time?
A bridge of water
How do you build a “bridge” with water? It’s hard to do it on Earth. But in the space station, with little gravity (重力), it’s quite easy!
In the lecture, Wang Yaping first made two water balls on two plates, then let them touch each other. Next, Wang pulled the two plates apart, and the water between them didn’t break. It became a “bridge”! This is because the surface tension (表面张力) of water is not disturbed (干扰) by gravity in space. The surface tension keeps the “skin” of the water strong so that the bridge doesn’t break.
Separate water and oil
If we mix oil and water in a bottle on Earth, they will quickly separate because they have different densities (密度). Gravity brings the water down while the oil stays on top. However, if you do this in the space station, with no gravity, the oil and the water will stay together.
How can we separate them, then? In the lecture, Ye Guangfu rotated (旋转) the bottle to create centrifugal force (离心力). With this man-made gravity, the heavier water is pushed to the furthest point, which brings the lighter oil closer to the center.
70. How many steps did Wang do to make a bridge of water?
A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.
71. Why will oil and water quickly separate on Earth?
A. Because of thin air on Earth. B. Because of no gravity on Earth.
C. Because of strong people on Earth. D. Because of different densities and gravity.
72. What did Ye do to separate oil and water?
A. He rotated the bottle. B. He pushed oil to the center.
C. He created different densities. D. He threw water to the furthest point.
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题后面的词数要求）。
F
People usually connect Qing Ming with Jie Zitui, who lived in Shanxi province in 600 B.C. Legend has it that Jie saved his lord's (君王) life by serving a piece of his own leg. When the lord succeeded in becoming the ruler of a small country, he invited his faithful follower (忠诚的追随者) to join him. However, Jie turned down his invitation, preferring to lead a simple life with his mother in the mountains. 
Believing that he could force Jie out by burning the mountain, the lord ordered his men to set the forest on fire. To his surprise, Jie chose to remain where he was and was burnt to death. To make people remember Jie, the lord ordered all fires in every home to be put out. In this way, the "cold food feast" began, a day when no food could be cooked since no fire could be lit.
 The “cold food” festival falls on the eve of Qing Ming and is often considered as part of the Qing Ming festival. As time passes, the Qing Ming festival took the place of the "cold food" festival. The basic aim of Qing Ming is to remember one's elders by making a special effort to visit their tombs (坟墓). To make the visit even more meaningful, some time should be spent to remind the younger members of the family of their root (祖先) and the spirit of Jie Zitui.
73. How did Jie Zitui save his lord according to the passage? （不超过10个词）
_______________________________________________________________________________
74. Why did the lord burn the mountain? （不超过10个词）
_______________________________________________________________________________
75. What should the younger members of the family be reminded of? （不超过10个词）
_______________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写（共两大题 满分 25 分）
Ⅸ. 单词拼写(共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. We don’t have to r______ (后悔) if we have made a decision.
77. As a birthday gift, I bought a b______ (鲜艳的) dress for my mother.
78. The little boy was excited because he got five s______ (星星) for helping others.
79.Our teachers always w______ (警醒) us not to swim alone, especially in summer.
80. We all cheered with j______ (高兴) when we heard Su Yiming won the gold.
Ⅹ. 书面表达(共 1 小题；满分 20 分)
目前，一些中小学生的精神压力仍然不小，这一现象引起了学校和家长的高度关注。为了减轻学生的压力，学校英文报社向在校学生征求意见。假如你是李华，请以“How to reduce （减少）our stress”为题，用英语写一篇短文向报社投稿。
内容包括：
1. 精神压力产生的原因；
2. 减轻压力的建议和方法（至少两条）。
注意：
1.词数80-100；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3.文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称；
4.短文的开头已给出，不计入总词数。
How to reduce our stress
Nowadays, some students still have much stress._______________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________

2022年安徽中考目标二模
英语试题参考答案及评分标准

第一部分 听力

1-5ABABC 6-10 BBACC 11-15 AACCB
16. June 17. create 18. painters 19. subway 20. 25/ twenty-five
评分标准: 1- 20题每小题1分。16- 20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情扣分。

第二部分 英语知识运用
21-25 AACBD 26-30 CCDBA
评分标准: 21~ 30题每小题1分。
31-35 BCABD 36-40 ACADB
41-45 BCADB 46-50 CADDC
评分标准: 31- 50题每小题1分。

第三部分 阅读理解
51-55 CAFGB
评分标准: 51~ 55题每小题1分。
56-58 CAB 59-62 BADD 63-66 ABCD
67-69 CBC 70-72 CDA
73. By serving a piece of his own leg.
74.He wanted Jie to join him./ He wanted to invite Jie to follow /join him. /He wanted to force Jie out to join him.
75. Their root and the spirit of Jie Zitui.
评分标准: 56~ 75题每小题2分。(73~ 75题意对即可。)

第四部分 写
76.regret 77. bright 78. stars 79. warn 80. joy
评分标准: 76~ 80题每小题1分。
X. One possible version
How to reduce our stress
Nowadays, some students still have much stress. It’s mainly from our school and our family. At school, some teachers give us too much homework so we have to stay up late doing it. Meanwhile, we have to face the competition from our classmates. Also, our parents expect us to work hard to get good grades.
If you ask me how to reduce our stress, here is the advice. I think it’s necessary for us to have less homework and not to judge us only by grades. We are allowed to do some outdoor or indoor activities. Our parents should spend more time communicating with us and give us plenty of support. All in all, our teachers and parents may do something to help us be relaxed.
一、评分原则:
1.本题总分为20分，按五个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，结合内容和语言表达，综合给定分数。
3.考生可以根据要点适当发挥，加入自己的观点。
4.词数少于80的，从总分中减去1分。
5.拼写错误多，书写较差以致影响表达，在所确定档次的分数范围内，减去1分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求:
第五档(很好): (20~17分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务，涵盖了所有内容要点，或在发挥时内容有新意或亮点:语言基本无误，行文连贯，表达清楚。
第四档(好): (16~13分)
完成试题规定的任务，涵盖了基本的内容要点:语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。
第三档(一般): (12~9分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务，写出了一些内容:语言有一些错误， 行文不够连贯。
第二档(较差): (8~5分)
未能恰当完成试题规定的任务，只能写出个别要点:语言错误较多，未能清楚传达信息。
第一档(差)： (4~0分)
未能完成试题规定的任务，只能写出与内容有关的一些单词:语言错误很多，未能清楚传达信息。