2022年宁远县初中学业水平考试英语模拟试卷2（含答案）

这是一份2022年宁远县初中学业水平考试英语模拟试卷2（含答案），共14页。

宁远县2022年初中学业水平考试模拟试卷（二）
英 语（试题卷）
温馨提示：
1．本试卷包括试题卷和答题卡，考试结束后，将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
2．考生作答时，选择题和非选择题均须按答题卡中注意事项的要求答题，在试题卷上作答无效。
3．本试卷满分120分，时量100分钟。由听力技能、阅读技能、知识运用和写作技能四个部分组成，其中听力材料朗读两遍。
4. 本试卷共8页，如有缺页，请申明。
第一部分 听力技能（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 （共5分，每小题1分）听下面5段材料，每段材料后各有1个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并划或写在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
1. What can the man play?
A. B. C.
2. How does the woman learn English every day?
A. . B. . C. .
3. What are the speakers talk about?
A. . B. . C. .
4. How does the woman go to work?
A.. B. C.
5. What’s the man doing?
A. . B. C.
第二节(共15分，每小题1分)听下面6段材料，每段材料后各有几个小题，从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
听第一段材料,回答第6~7小题。
6. What will the weather be like tomorrow?
A. Cloudy. B. Rainy. C.Sunny.
7. What will the boy do tomorrow?
A. Go swimming. B. Read books. C. Play the guitar.

听第7段材料，回答第8~9小题。
8. What sports can Bob play?
A. Basketball. B. Soccer. C.Volleyball.
9．What is Jane good at?
A. Drawing pictures. B. Telling stories. C.Singing.
听第8段对话，回答第10~11小题。
10. Who did the girl go to Guizhou with last month?
A. Her family. B. Rick. C.Her classmates.
11. What did the boy do last month?
A. Went to see Huangguoshu Waterfall.
B. Took quite a few photos.
C. Stayed at home to read and relax.
听第9段对话，回答第12~14小题。
12. Which class were they in?
A. Class l. B. Class 2. C.Class 8.
13.Who used to be quiet in class?
A. Steve. B. Gina. C.The teacher.
14.What is Gina more interested in now?
A. Piano. B. schoolwork. C.Sports.
听第10段对话，回答第15~17小题。
15.Why can’t the woman find the way?
A. Huangzhou has changed a lot. B.She is too old to remember the way.
C. She has never been to Huangdlou before.
16.Why doesn’t the woman’s daughter come to meet her?
A. She is too busy. B. She doesn’t know her mother will come. C. She is ill in hospital.
17. Where does the woman’s daughter work?
A. At the train station. B. In the Children’s hospital. C. In a school.
听第11段对话，回答第18~20小题。
18.When does Linda have to be home on school nights?
A. By 10:00 p.m. B. By 5:15 p.m. C. By 5:30 p.m.
19.What does Linda usually do on Sunday?
A. Does her homework. B. Plays the piano. C.Goes to schoo1.
20.What can Linda do with friends on weekends?
A. Hang out after school. B. Eat out. C.Go to the movies.
第二部分 阅读技能 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解（共10小题；每小题2分，满分40分）阅读下面的短文，从每题所给的A、B和C三个选项中，选出最佳选项回答问题或完成句子。并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑。
（A）
Chinese Climbers Reached the Top of Qomolangma Again.
The time of setting out: May 6th, 2020
The time of reaching the top: May 27th, 2020
Members of the Chinese survey team: 35 members and 8 of them reached the top
Purpose: To measure （测量） the new height of Qomolangma
21.What’s the purpose of climbing Qomolangma again?
A. Have fun. B. Take risk. C. Measure the new height of it.
22. When did the climbers reach the top of Qomolangma?
A. On May 6th, 2020 B. On May 27th, 2020 C. On May 8th, 2020

（B）

Hot hotels in town
Name
Single room（单人间）
Double
Specials
Address
Telephone:
678-453-4416
Website:
www. bshotel. com
No money?
No worry!
Customers can also pay by:

Orchard Hotel
$28
$49
French restaurant
233
Edward Road
Coffee shop and bar（酒吧）
Swimming pool
Osaka Hotel
$60
$67
Underground parking lots
129 North Road
Indian restaurant
Near the airport
Fairview Hotel
$55
$71
Dry-cleaning shops
126
Venning Road
Japanese and Chinese restaurant
Large garden
23. How much will you pay if you book （预定） a single room for 2 nights in Orchard Hotel?
A. $28 B. $56 C. $98
24. Japanese travelers can enjoy Indian food in_____________.
A. Orchard Hotel B. Fairview Hotel C. Osaka Hotel
25. Where is Fairview Hotel?
A. At 233 Edward Road B. At 129 North Road C. At 126 Venning Road

（C）
A couple often went shopping together. They both liked teacups. One day they saw a beautiful teacup in a store. As they picked it up, it suddenly spoke.
"I haven't always been a teacup. Once I was red clay. My master rolled(揉、搓) me over and over and I shouted, but he only smiled."
"Then I was placed on a rolling wheel and suddenly I went around and around. 'Stop!' I cried, but the master only nodded."
"Then he put me in the oven. I had never felt so hot. I could see him through the opening and I could read his words, 'Not yet.' "
"Finally the door opened, and he took me out and put me on a shelf. Then he brushed me and put me back into the oven. This time it was twice as hot. I begged. I cried. I could see him through the opening nodding his head, saying, 'Not yet.' "
"Then I knew there wasn't any hope. I was ready to give up, but the door opened and I was taken out and placed on a shelf. Later he handed me a mirror and said, 'Look at yourself.' I said, 'That can't be me. It's becautiful!"
" 'I want you to remember,' he said, 'if I had just left you without rolling, you'd have dried up. If I had stopped rolling you around on the wheel, you would have been out of shape. If I hadn't put you in the oven, you would have broken. If I hadn't brushed you all over, you would not have any color in your life. If I hadn't put you back in that oven for the second time, you wouldn't be kept for very long because the hardness would not have held. Now you are a finished product. You are what I had in mind when I first started with you."
26. On the rolling wheel, when the red clay asked him to stop, the master ________.
A. stopped rolling it at once B. only nodded C. shouted at it angrily
27. Which of the following shows the right process of making the teacup?
a. It was put into the oven for the first time.
b. It was put on a rolling wheel and went around.
c. The master took it out and brushed it all over.
d. It was put back into the oven again.
e. The master rolled the red clay over and over.
A. e, c, a, b, d B. e, b, c, a, d C. e, b, a, c, d
28. The master brushed the teacup all over to make it become ________.
A. hot B. hard C. colorful
29. From the last paragraph, we can infer that ________.
A. the master knew how to make the teacup B. the master disliked the teacup
C. the teacup will dry up if it is rolled
30. What lesson does the passage mainly teach us?
A. Beautiful look won't be refused by people.
B. Going through hard time can make you better.
C. Caring about others makes the world wonderful.

（D）
Three-two-one, fire!
At the moment of 9:43 a.m., on Tuesday, June 23rd, 2020, at the Xichang Satellite Launch Center(卫星发射中心) in Sichuan Province, the last satellite of the third-generation network(第三代导航系统) was sent into space. It is the 55th member in the family of BeiDou. It belongs to China’s Beidou Navigation Satellite System(BDS北斗卫星导航系统). So far, 59 satellites, including the first four test ones, have been launched from Xichang. With the development of China, we have already owned three other famous satellitle launch centers — Jiuquan, Taiyuan and Wenchang.
After a period of tests in space, this new satellite has started to work with other Beidou satellites together. It is designed to work for at least 12 years. So far, China has completed the third-generation network of China’s BDS. It was a new milestone in the nation’s space research work. The launch showed our country has completed our largest space-based system. It’s one of four global(全球的) navigation networks, including the United States’ GPS, Russia’s GLONASS and the European Union’s Galileo.
BDS has been widely used as public resources(资源) in our daily life. It has been shared by the whole world. It will provide more services around the world. BDS is the common wealth of the development of human beings.
31. Where did China launch the last satellite of the third-generation network?
A. Xichang. B. Jiuquan. C. Wenchang.
32. How many members are there in the family of Beidou?
A. 4. B. 55. C. 59.

33. What does the underlined word “milestone” mean in Chinese?
A. 记录 B. 事业 C. 里程碑
34. GLONASS belongs to .
A. China B. the United States C. Russia
35. According to the passage, we can know that .
A. The last satellite of BDS was launched at 9:43 p.m., June 23rd, 2020.
B. So far, China has completed the third-generation network of China’s BDS.
C. BDS is shared only by China as public resources.

（E）
For Miller, an 80-year-old man, it’s a chance of a lifetime. Miller is a part of a group of around 60 Germans who are on a bus journey along the ancient Silk Road.
About this journey, he says:“I have been deeply interested in the Silk Road since I was a child. But now I finally have a chance to experience it.”
The two-month bus journey will take the group through Germany, Russia and other 4 European countries. They will then enter China from the country’s western part. It will be an unforgettable memory for them.
Nearly half of the 13,000-kilometer trip will be inside China. From Xinjiang in the west to Shanghai in the east, the German visitors will see more than 20 Chinese cities. “we have managed the trip of the Silk Road for around 10 years. An increasing number of people, not only from German-speaking countries, have been joining us.” Says Liu Guoqiang from China Tours.
Almost 26 million foreigners traveled to China in 2015, and about 5 million of them were from Europe. Beijing, Xi’an, Shanghai and the Yangtze River are traditional Chinese travel destinations for European tourists. Speaking of where he wants to go, Miller says: “Compared with modern cities, the culture in western China attracts me more.”
As Shi Xiang, head of China Tours says “Being a new brand to attract foreign visitors, the Silk Road is good for people to know more about China, especially the northwestern part of the country.”
36. How will the group of around 60 Germans have the tour?
A. By plane. B. By bus. C. On foot.
37. Where will the German group enter China?
A. From Beijing. B. From the western part of China.
C. From the eastern part of China.
38. The underlined word “destinations” in the fifth paragraph means .
A. 目的地 B. 道路 C. 品牌
39. According to the passage, how long has China Tours managed the trip?
A. For 20 years. B. For 5 years. C. For 10 years.
40. Which is the best title for the passage?
A. Silk Road: An old brand to attract Chinese.
B. Silk Road: A new way to learn about China.
C. Silk Road: A better chance to see modern cities.

第二节 阅读匹配（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）阅读下面的短文，从所给的A～F六个选项中，选出正确的答案填空，使短文通顺，内容完整，并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑，其中选项中有一项是多余的。
When you are a teenager it seems that every time you say. “I want to…”, your parents answer, “No, you can’t.” Teenagers often think they should be allowed to make their own decisions, ___41___ .
Li Hai, a 15-year-old boy from Huarong, is a middle school student. He is often late for school because he stays up too late. __42___ Unless he arrives at school on time, he will be punished by his teacher. Also, Li Hai thinks that he should be allowed to watch TV and play computer games as much as he wants. If his parents refuse his requirements （要求）, ___43___ “Maybe my son thinks the family rules are too strict or unfair.” says Mrs Li, “But we think we’re doing the right thing. ___44___ We expect him to get into a good university.” Li Hai is always asking, “Could you make the bed for me?” or “Could you help me to sweep the floor?” ___45___ His parents insist doing chores with him every weekend. Gradually he realizes the importance of doing housework. Sometimes he helps his mother with housework. These days, Li Hai knows his parents care about him and he must follow these strict family rules. Only then will he have a chance to become a better teenager.
A.Li Hai needs to spend more time on his study.
B. His parents always ask him to go to bed early and have enough sleep.
C. He thinks doing housework is a waste of time.
D. Li Hai feels lonely and nervous at home.
E. he will argue with his father or mother.
F. but their parents may worry about children’s development.

第三部分 知识运用（共两节；满分20分）
第一节 词语填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）通读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将该编号字母涂黑。
Many people are playing a role in saving the earth on Earth Day. Earth Day is on April 22nd. Lots of people all over the world try to do something ___46___ on this day. In China, people expected to keep lights off for one hour at night. People don’t use ___47___ in Italy. People dress up like ___48___ and animals to dance in Times Square, New York（纽约时代广场）. On that day, people can see many posters about protecting ___49___ animals in Canada and Norway （挪威）. After reading them, people are supposed to avoid ___50___ things made of animals, such as ivory and shark fin.
The World Wide Fund for Nature （WWF） has made a list of ___51___ things that each person can do to save the environment.
☆___52___ the lights when you leave a room.
☆Don’t leave the tap（水笼头）running.
☆No turning on your computer every night.
☆Wash your clothes in warm or ___53___ water, not hot water.
☆Use as little water as you can when you do the dishes.
Some environmental protection groups believe that humans will ___54___ the true spirit of Earth Day and try _____55_____ best to protect the earth. Small actions can make a difference and lead to a better future.
46. A. harmful B. green C. bad
47. A. recycling books B. reusable bags C. plastic bags
48. A. plants B. emperors C. trucks
49. A. delicious B. wild C. magic
50. A. building B. buying C. improving
51. A. three B. four C. five
52. A. Turn on B. Turn off C. Turn up
53. A. cold B. dirty C. dangerous
54. A. change B. finish C. understand
55. A. its B. their C. his
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）阅读下面的材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（每空不超过3个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式，使句子通顺完整。
56．The （死亡）of my dog made me sad.
57. A hen on my farm (lay) a green egg yesterday.
58. No matter what happens, believe in (you), boys and girls.
59. A Chinese father made some nice dresses for his daughter with his (wife) old shirts.
60. Chinese parents try their best （提供）a good environment for their children.
61. The (careful) you work, the fewer mistakes you’ll make.
62. There are some boys (swim) in the river now. It’s very dangerous.
63. Cathy and Linda ( not be) back to their hometown for two years.
64. Look! The Browns (eat) supper in the kitchen.
65.﹣﹣﹣Must we finish the work today？
﹣﹣﹣Yes,we________．We have something else to do tomorrow．

第四部分 写作技能（共三节；满分30分）
第一节 回答问题（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）阅读下面的短文，然后根据短文内容回答问题，并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
The Spring Festival is the most important traditional festival in China. Chinese people have been celebrating it for centuries. It comes in winter. We usually have a 15-day holiday, but in 2020, a disease called COVID-19（新型冠状病毒） hit China. We had a longer holiday than before.
As we all know, the Spring Festival is a time to get new. We usually clean and decorate（装饰）our house carefully before it comes. Before the new year, I helped my mother clean the rooms and wash our quilts. My father put up red couplets（春联）on the doors and red paper cutting on the windows. It’s said that red is a lucky color in China. In the new year, no matter how far it is, we come back to have a big dinner together with all the family members. However, we didn’t visit any relatives and friends because of the sudden illness. I just said “Happy new year,” to my parents. At night, I was glad to talk with my friends on Wechat（微信）. It’s exciting for me to get Wechat red packet（微信红包） from my grandparents. My mother likes buying all the products from the supermarket. During this new year, she had to order things on the Internet, so she received many packages（包裹）.
After the Lantern Festival, we couldn’t go to school. Instead we studied on computers or pads at home. Our teachers organized online teaching for us, and we were able to have classes through the new way of teaching. During the holiday, how I hoped that I could go to school earlier.
On April 7th, 2020. I went back to school. As I started my new journey, I couldn’t forget this special spring festival.
66. Why did we have a longer holiday this year?
________________________________________________
67. Did the writer’s father put red paper cutting on the windows?
________________________________________________

68. Who gave the writer the Wechat red packet?
________________________________________________
69. How did the writer’s mother buy products during this spring festival?
________________________________________________
70. What did our teacher organize for us this holiday?
________________________________________________
第二节 语篇翻译（共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分）阅读下面的短文，然后将划线的句子译成汉语或英语，并将答案填写在答题卡上对应题号的横线上。
Last month, we did a survey about the ways of transportation in Sunshine Community. Here are the results.
The most popular choices are cars and buses. Twenty-five percent of residents (居民) choose cars while thirty percent choose boses. Most office staffs go to work by car. (71)In their opinion, cars are not only fast but also comfortable. The survey mentions that buses are mainly chosen by students in Sunshine Community. As for everyone in our city, there are about 42 bus lines running from 6:30 a. m. to 10:30 p. m.
We found that twenty-five percent prefer to go outside by bike or on foot. (72) Going out by bike are nothing and it is healthy for residents’ body. (73) 老人们习惯在小区附近购买日常用品，so they would like to go to the local market on foot.
The other twenty percent choose motorbikes and taxis, Motorbikes may be dangerous, but some sell think travelling by motorbike is the best way to avoid traffic jams(堵塞) in rush hours. Speaking of taxis, those residents without private cars are willing to take a taxi when they are in a hurry.
With the development of transportation in Yongzhou, people can get here and there, more easily. However, some residents said they still met plenty of traffic problems in their daily life. (74) 为了解决这些问题，他们希望永州有朝一日会有地铁。 Do you like this convenient way of transportation?
71. ________________________________________________________________
72. ________________________________________________________________
73. ________________________________________________________________
74. ________________________________________________________________
第三节 书面表达（1个大题，满分12分）
75.现在越来越多的学生使用“作业帮”这个APP 来搜查他们不会做的题目。对此，不同
的人有不同的看法。请根据以下文字的提示，并适当发表自己的观点，写一篇英语短文。

优点
1.及时帮助学生解决在学习中遇到的困难；
2.在家就能学习，简单，方便；
3.可以选择自己喜欢的老师，学习兴趣更浓。

缺点
1.有的学生假装学习，事实上在玩游戏；
2.有的学生不想独立思考，直接照抄答案，
他们根本不关心自己的学习，只是虚度光阴。
你的建议
联系实际，给出自己合理的建议。
要求：
1. 80－100 词。（开头的首句已给出，不计算在词数内）
2. 文中不能出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称及其他相关信息，否则，不予评分。
参考词汇：convenient 方便的，便利的 pretend to do… 假装做…
think independently 独立思考
Today, more and more students are using the App zuoyebang. However, different people have different ideas about it. Some people think


宁远县2022年初中学业水平考试模拟试卷一
英语
参考答案和评分细则
听力材料
第一部分 听力技能（共两节，满分20分）
做题时，先将答案划（写）在试卷上，录音内容朗读完后，你将有2分钟的时间将1~20小题答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）听下面五段材料，每段材料后各有1个小题，从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
1. W: Can you play the guitar?
M: Sorry, I can’t. But I can play the drums.
2. M: Your English is so good.
W: Thanks a lot. I keep reading English books every day.
3. W: My favorite animal is koalas. Do you like koalas?
M: Yes,I like koalas best,because they’re really cute.
4. M: Alice, do you go to school by bus?
W: Oh,no,I go to school by car, my father drives me to school.
5. M: Hello,Rick speaking.
W: Hello,Rick.This is Sally .Do you want to swim with me now?
M:I’d love to but I’m running now
第二节(共15小题。每小题1分,满分15分)听下面六段材料，每段材料后各有几个小题，从每小题所给的A.B.C三个选项中选出最佳答案，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7小题。
M: Mom,what will the weather be like tomorrow?
W: The radio says it will rain.
M: What a pity！We can’t go swimming.
W: Why not do something else.
M: Well,I will read some interesting books.
听第七段材料，回答第8~9小题。
W: Hi. Bob,what club do you want to join?
M: I want to join a sports club.
W: Great !What sports can you play ?
M: Basketball.
W: Then you can join the basketball club.
M: What about you, Jane ? You’re very good at singing.I think you can join the music club.
W: Sounds good.Let’s join now.

听第八段材料，回答第10、11小题。
M: Hi. Hellen,Long time no see.
W: Hi!Rick,Yes,I was on vacation last month.
M: Oh!Did you anywhere interesting ?
W: Yes,I went to Guizhou with my family.
M:Wow,Did you see Huangguoshu Water Fall?
W:Yes,I did.It was wonderful.We took quite a few photos there.What about you ?Did you do anything special last month?
M:Not really.I just stayed at home to read and relax.
听第九段材料，回答第12~14小题。
W: Hi!Steve!Don’t you remember me ?
M: Oh!You’re Gina,Aren’t you ?
W: That’s right,We were in the same class,Class one,Grade eight,right ?
M:Yes,now I remember.You used to be really quiet.Didn’t you ? I remember you were always silent in class.
W:Yeah,I wasn’t very outgoing then.I was never brave enough to ask teachers questions.
M:But you were always friendly.Emm...Wait a minute.Did you use to play the piano ?
W:Yes, I did.But now I’m more interested in sports.I play volleyball and I’m underwenting.
M:Wow!People shall change.
听第十段材料，回答第15~17小题。
M: What can I do for you, Madom ?
W: I’ve come to see my daughter,but I can’t find the way
M:You’ve been to Huangzhou before ?
W:Yes,Several years ago,I did, but Huangzhou has changed a lot.
M:That’s true.So your daughter should come to meet you at the train station.
W:I didn’t tell her about it .I don’t want to trouble her.
M:Where does she work,do you know ?Do you have her adress ?
W:I only know she works in a school and beside it it’s the children’s hospital.
M:Great! I know where it is.Come on with me .I can help you find it .
W:Thanks a lot
听第十一段材料,回答第18~20小题。
W: Hi,Linda,Would you like to go shopping with me after school?
M:Yes,I’d love to .But I can’t, Mike
W:Oh,Why ?
M:My parents don’t allow me to hang out after school.I must be home by 5:30 P.M on school nights
W:What do you do at home on weekends?

M:I have to do my homework on Saturday.And on Sunday I have to play the piano.
W:Are you allowed to go to the movies with friends on weekends?
M:Yes, But I must be back home by ten o’clock p.m.
W:That’s great.Let’s go to the movies tomorrow evening.I will call you after dinner,Ok?
M:Sure.See you.
M:See you then.






























宁远县2022年初中学业水平考试模拟试卷二
英语
参考答案和评分细则
第一部分 听力技能 (共两节，满分20分)
1-5 ABACB 6-10 BBACA 11-15 CABCA 16-20 BCCBC 
评分说明：本大题满分10分，每小题1分，与本答案不符者该小题不给分。
第二部分 阅读技能 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 阅读选择（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
21-25.CBBCC 26-30 BCCAB 31-35 ACCCB 36—40 BBACB
第二节 短文匹配（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
41-45. F B E A C
第三部分 知识运用（共两节；满分20分）
第一节 词语填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
46-50 BCABB 51-55 CBACB
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
56. death 57. laid 58.yourselves 59.wife’s 60. to provide
61. more carefully 62.swimming 63. haven’t /have not been 64. are eating 65.must
评分说明：本大题满分10分，每空1分。与本答案不符，但该答案符合题目要求，且在意义、结构、逻辑上均正确，该空可考虑给分，否则该空不给分。
第四部分 写作技能（共两节；满分30分）
第一节 回答问题（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
61. Because a disease called COVID-19 hit China.
62. Yes, he did.
63. His grandparents gave him the Wechat red packet.
64. During this new year, she ordered things on the Internet.
65. Our teachers organized online teaching for us this holiday.
评分说明：
1. 本大题满分10分，每小题2分;
2. 结构正确，用给定的英语单词完整表达所给的汉语信息，给满分；
3. 未用所给定的词不给分；
4. 语法结构不正确，一处扣1分；
5. 结构正确，信息完整，拼写错误一处扣0.5分；
6. 结构正确，信息有遗漏，添加无关信息一处扣0.5分；
7. 本大题答案多样，只要符合题意可按评分说明酌情给分。
第二节 语篇翻译（共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分）

71. 在他们看来，轿车不但快而且舒服。
72. 骑自行车外出没什么，而且它对居民的身体来说是有利于健康的。
73. The old are used to buying daily things near the neighborhood.
74. To solve the problems，they hope there will be subways one day.
七、书面表达：（略）
One possible version:
Today, more and more students are using the APP zuoyebang. Different people
have different ideas about it. Some people think it’s useful. The APP zuoyebang can help
students to solve difficulties in their studying in time. It’s easy and convenient for them.
They can study at home. They can choose their own teachers they like, and they will be more
interested in studying .
However, others don’t think so. They think some students just pretend to study, in fact
they play games. They don’t want to think independently, but only copy the answers. They
don’t care about their studying at all. It’s a waste of time.
I think it’s good for students who are hard-working. They can study better. But for
students who don’t want to study, it’s very bad.

作文评分标准

第一档：（13—15）短文包括所给绝大部分信息，写出的句子表达意思清楚且基本无错误，单词拼写基本正确。
第二档：（10—12）短文包括所给大部分信息，写出的句子能表达意思且无严重错误，单词拼写存在少数几个错误。
第三档：（7—9）短文包括大部分信息，写出的句子虽然存在语法错误，但能表达基本意思，有较多单词拼写错误。
第四档：（6分以下）短文包括部分信息，写出的句子有严重语法错误，表达的意思也不清楚，有较多的单词拼写错误。