2020届山西省大同市高三下学期3月模拟考试英语试卷 （Word版）
展开山西省大同市2020届高三下学期3月模拟考试英语试卷
本试卷共8 页 满分：150分 考试用时：120分钟
第Ⅰ卷（共100分）
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分60分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题3分,满分45分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Bull Run Regional Park
Thus family- friendly park is around 30 miles from the District. Bull Run is a history fan's delight：It provides access to the nearly 20-mile Occoquan Trail, which was used during the war. The trail is one of many hiking options on the 1,500-acre grounds. Each cabin($85 to $95 per night) accommodates six people and offers such luxuries（奢华）as electricity, heat and swing.
Savage River Lodge
Savage River Lodge-about three hour drive from the District-- specializes in a solid roof and a side of luxury. Savage River is surrounded by more than 700 acres of thick forest, and popular activities include fly-fishing. biking, hiking and cross -country skiing. Cabins start at $250 per night.
Cherry Hill Park
Given its proximity (邻近) to the District, this family-owned campground is particularly appealing to visitors who are traveling to the area via recreational vehicle. It also offers buses to the subway and organizes sightseeing tours as well as daily educational sessions. Guests can play mini golf, go fishing, or hit the basketball court. Cabins start at $99 per night.
Maple Tree Campground
Maple Tree Campground is about a 90-minute drive from the District. Come to this campground for nature's evening show: It always has really pretty sunsets. While there's no electricity, guests can use a wood stove for heat and cooking. Field tent sites start at $8 per night and tree cottages $65 per night
21. What's the minimum cost for a group of 10 to stay at Bull Run Regional Park for one night?
A $85. B.$95 C.$170 D. $850
22 Which tour spot is suitable for people traveling by public transport?
A. Cherry Hill Park. B Savage River Lodge.
C. Bull Run Regional Park. D. Maple Tree Campground.
23. The passage most probably appeals to those who are .
A. planning a business trip B. seeking a weekend getaway
C. fond of online shopping D. interested in geography study
B
The new garbage sorting regulation has taken effect in Shanghai starting July 1. Many citizens are still confused about the classification of the four different types of trash. Thankfully, authorities have released an official guideline to clarify the new rules.
The guideline, published by the Shanghai Greenery and Public Sanitation Bureau, provides a rather clear definition on the four kinds of waste: recyclable waste, hazardous (有害的) waste, household food waste and residual (剩余的) waste.
Hazardous waste, as the name suggests, includes assorted poisonous materials like used batteries, light bulbs, out-of-date medicines, paint and pesticides.
Household food waste, which is translated to “wet trash” in Chinese，refers to food leftovers, rotten food, pet food, fruit peels, remains of TCM herbs (中药) and flowers.
Paper, plastic, glass, metal and textiles (纺织品) are counted as recyclable waste.
The definition of residual waste is a little confusing. Anything that is not listed above belongs in this category.
As specific as the new guideline is, residents still have a hard time sorting trash correctly and are finding it challenging to memorize them all. For instance, both plastic bottles and bubble tea or coffee cups are plastic materials. However, the former falls to the category of recyclable waste and the latter belongs to residual waste. To save the hassle, some netizens have come up with their own ways to sort trash.
“We should do this from a pig’s angle,” commented one netizen. “Those edible (可食用的) for pigs are household food waste. Those even pigs don’t want to eat are residual waste. If a pig consumes something and dies of it, then something must be hazardous waste. Those which can be sold and the money we gain can be used to purchase pigs are recyclable waste.” The new regulation has gone into effect on July 1. Those who do not sort their trash properly will be fined RMB200.
24. What do the old thrown-away sweaters belong to?
A. Residual waste. B. Hazardous waste.
C. Recyclable waste. D. Household food waste.
25. What does “wet trash” have in common?
A. They are completely wet. B. They all come from plants.
C. They can give off bad smell. D. They can break up easily.
26. What is the tone of the netizen?
A. Humorous. B. Serious.
C. Delightful. D. Uncertain.
27. What is the main idea of the text?
A. Shanghai bans four sorts of garbage.
B. Shanghai launches garbage sorting enforcement.
C. Citizens in Shanghai still question garbage sorting.
D. Citizens in Shanghai welcome the garbage sorting policy.
C
In the old days, when you had to drive to a movie theater of to to a video store to get some entertainment, it was easy to see how your actions could have an impact om the environment.You were hopping into your war, driving across town and coughing out emissions（排放）and using gas all the way.
But now that we’re used to staying at home and streaming movies, we might get a little cocky. After all ,we’re just picking up our phones or maybe turning on the TV. You’re welcome.Mother Nature.
Not so fast, says a recent report from the French-based Shit Project. Watching a half-hour show would lead to 3.5 pounds of CO2 emissions. That’s like driving 3.9 miles. According to "Climate Crisis: The Unsustainable Use of Online Video," digital technologies are responsible for 4% of greenhouse gas emissions, and that energy use is increasing by 9% a year. Stored in data centers, videos are transferred to our terminals such as computers, smart phones, etc. via networks: all these processes require electricity whose production consumes resources and usually involves CO2 emissions.
In the European Union, the Eureca project lead scientist, Rabih Bashroush, calculated that 5 billion downloads and streams of the song "Despacito" consumed as much electricity as the countries of Chad, Guinea-Bissau, Somalia, Sierra Leone and the Central African Republic used in a single year.
Streaming is only expected to increase as we become more attached to our devices. Online video use is expected to account for 80%of all internet traffic by 2022 according to CISCO. By then, about 60% of the world's population will be online.
You're probably not going to give up your streaming services, but there are things you con do to help lessen the impact of your online use.
Here are some tips:
※Disable autoplay for video on social media.
※Stream over Wi-Fi, not mobile networks.
※Watch on the smallest screen you can.
※Don’t use high-definition（高清）video on devices.
- It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that people think .
- they should welcome Mother Nature
- watching movies at home is more fun
- it is inconvenient to drive to a movie theater
- streaming at home avoids possible emissions
- We may learn from the text that .
- 3.9 miles may produce 3.5 pounds of CO2
- digital technologies account for 4% of electricity use
- Online video use makes up 80% of all internet traffic
- 60% of the world’s population watch videos online
- Why are the five countries mentioned in paragraph 4?
- To praise their energy-efficient practice.
- To prove the poverty of the five countries
- To stress the popularity of the song “Despacito”
- To show the high energy use of downloads and streams
- How can people help to save energy when streaming?
- Use high-definition videos. B. Turn off video autoplay
C. Stream over mobile networks. D. Watch movies on bigger screens.
D
As they reach school age, about 90 percent of children will have experienced a condition in which fluid (液体) fills the middle ear, muffling (使模糊) sound and sometimes causing infection. The fluid usually clears on its own, but if not, it can lead to a painful ear infection called acute otitis (中耳炎) media. In some cases the fluid can persist for more than a year, causing hearing loss during this period, and slowing down their development of language and social skills.
Diagnosis usually requires a visit to a specialist—but researchers have now developed an app that detects this fluid just as accurately, with only a smartphone and a paper funnel (漏斗).
Doctors typically detect the problem by peering into the ear for a visual assessment. Yet, this method has only a 50 percent accuracy rate. “Right now, if you bring your child to a pediatrician, or to any urgent care family doctor, the way they look at whether or not there’s fluid in the middle ear is by looking at the eardrum,” says Sharat Raju, a surgeon in the department of head and neck surgery at the University of Washington.
For a cheaper and more accessible alternative, researchers at the University of Washington turned to smartphones. First the user follows a template to cut and tape a piece of paper into a funnel, which can be placed between a smartphone and the patient’s ear. Next the app plays a chirping sound through the phone’s speaker; the sound waves bounce off the eardrum and hit the phone’s microphone, where they register and are analyzed by the app. An eardrum with fluid behind it will vibrate (振动) differently than if the middle ear is full of air, as it normally is.
To develop the app, the researchers first played chirps for patients with and without fluid in their ears. They recorded the echoes (回音), which indicate the eardrum’s mobility. Then they used a machine learning model to classify the returning sound waves, determining which audio characteristics indicated a normal ear and which suggested the presence of fluid. Once they tested the app on 98 children, ranging from 18 months to 17 years old, at Seattle Children’s Hospital. It correctly detected fluid in 85 percent of cases, and correctly identified fluid-free ears in 82 percent.
The researchers are currently trying to get FDA approval for the app, and have founded a company to commercialize it. They hope to make it available by the end of the year, to help parents track children’s ear health at home.
32. What do we know about the fluid from the first paragraph?
A. It is mostly part of children’s growth.
B. It is unavoidable for any child.
C. It is a permanent physical condition.
D. It is beyond any medical means.
33. What does the underlined word “pediatrician” refer to in Paragraph 3?
A. A hospital. B. A specialist. C. A relative. D. An app.
34. What is the fourth paragraph mainly about?
A. The application of the app.
B. The causes of the kid’s ear problem.
C. The purpose of developing the app.
D. The experiment of the smartphone.
35. What do the researchers expect of the app?
A. It will upgrade the medical technology.
B. It will hit the market in the near future.
C. It will help children do better academically.
D. It will save doctors medical operations.
第二节(共5小题:每小题3分，满分15分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Put on new set of gasses for a new view
Today I visited San Francisco’s modern-art museum. I was there to see a new exhibit about spaceflight. 36 I like to “visit” this particular painting every time I go to the museum not only because it evokes（唤起）strong feelings, but because I always find something new.
There's real pleasure to be found in revisiting a museum replaying a game or rewatching a movie. Some of that enjoyment comes from the feeling of familiarity of course. 37 .There’s always plenty more to see, hear, taste, smell, feel, of understand the second or third time around. But how do your discover the exciting new thing in the familiar?
One way is approaching whatever task is at hand by searching for the things that you you didn't see in the first time around. First, recognize that everything is always changing. 38 Second, remove judgment from the experience, if possible, and just observe what's new. For example, look for the ways in which a change in your neighborhood is interesting or exciting.
39 That could mean removing sugar, coffee, a certain kind of media from your life for a specified time. Once the break is over, that same thing will have more of its former interest or excitement. 40 So is true that novelty is fun, but given enough of a break in between, repeated experiences regain that initial excitement.
A. Repeated experiences like this are valuable.
B. Visiting a new country brings fresh experience.
C. Coffee will never taste better if you quit it for a month.
D. But the piece of art that made me cry was a familiar one.
E. But in also comes from noticing new things in what is so familiar.
F. So the second experience is never exactly the same as the first one.
G. Another way is changing your routine and taking a break of some kind.
第三部分英语知识运用 (共两节，满分55分)
第一节 完形填空(共20小题:每小题2分，满分40分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Linda worked as a waitress at the Route 130 diner in Dover, New Hampshire. One Thursday morning around 5:30 am, she was 41 two firefighters, Young and Hulling. Quite 42 , she heard that they had been up all 43 putting out a fierce warehouse fire, which took twelve hours to get under control.
44 , Linda decided to honor these two heroes by picking up their 45 and writing them a heartfelt message of gratitude. It 46 , “Your breakfast is on me today. Thank you for all that you do... Fueled by fire and driven by 47 , what an example you are! Get some rest.”
This simple act of kindness meant so much to the 48 firefighters. The firefighters 49 and thanked her before leaving the 50 .
To return the young lady’s kindness, upon his arrival home, Hullings posted a Facebook update 51 his friends to go eat at the diner, which was quickly 52 over 3,000 times.
However, it was not until afterwards that they realized Linda was 53 the one that could use the 54 . When they found out that Linda was trying to 55 money for her paralyzed father to get a wheelchair-accessible van, Young posted with a 56 to a GoFundMe page for Linda’s dad, and the support 57 .
The total donations reached $60,000 and went beyond Linda’s wildest dreams. She had never 58 that her small gesture would be paid in such a 59 way. “I’m truly blessed that those two walked through the doors today and 60 for the opportunity to be a part of something so positive and uplifting.” Linda said on Facebook.
41. A. calling B. praising C. serving D. anticipating
42. A. in private B. in public C. by design D.by coincidence
43. A. day B. night C. morning D. afternoon
44. A. Touched B. Shocked C. Excited D. Embarrassed
45. A. uniform B. money C. check D. breakfast
46. A. replied B. wrote C. indicated D. read
47. A. concern B. courage C. confidence D. curiosity
48. A. worried B. ambitious C. modest D. exhausted
49. A. showed up B. sat up C. teared up D. stayed up
50. A. apartment B. station C. restaurant D. warehouse
51. A. urging B. forcing C. helping D. reminding
52. A. collected B. examined C. removed D. shared
53. A. really B. normally C. suddenly D. hardly
54. A. fire B. help C. diner D. message
55. A. count B. donate C. change D. raise
56. A. note B. picture C. link D. click
57. A. poured in B. spread out C. declined D. doubled
58. A. promised B. expected C. doubted D. accepted
59. A. rapid B. generous C. proper D. conventional
60. A. grateful B. eager C. ready D. greedy
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题 共50分）
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Numerous Chinese cultural and art treasures have been put on show in many parts of the world over the past years, showcasing the fantastic Chinese civilization on the global stage and 61 (promote) cultural exchanges.
In December, 2018. New Zealand's national museum started a four- month exhibition, where both terracotta warriors (兵马俑) and more than 160 ancient antique pieces 62 (make) of gold, jade and bronze were displayed. On the opening day, local citizens 63 (line) up to enjoy this "once in a lifetime" experience. The exhibition,64 provided visitors with some knowledge of long standing Chinese civilization, was 65 (high) appreciated for the individuality of each terracotta warrior and the unbelievable creativity needed to build the army.
Treasures showing the lives of emperors and empresses from the Qing Dynasty also went on display in museums in Washington. D. C.and Moscow in 2019. 66 over 100 pieces put on show, including realistic 67 (painting), furnishings and jewelry from the Palace Museum in Beijing. The exhibition was also 68 huge success.
Chinese and foreign museums have been making exchanges to encourage dialogue between civilizations and foster people’s 69 (understand) of and engagement with cultures that interest 70 (they). It is an important job for museums to bring the world closer.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节短文改错(共10小题:每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加，删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2．只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
One morning that I was in primary school, I tried cooking for first time. As my parents weren’t in, I have to cook something to eat. I took an egg from the refrigerator, putting some’ oil in the pan and cracked an egg into it. After a few second, I tried to turn the egg over in case it would get burnt. Unexpectedly, it caught fire. Not known what to do, I screamed but rushed out of the kitchen. After a while, I realized I should put out the fire, so I returned back, only to find something but a black burnt egg. I’ve learned that I can’t be too carefully while cooking.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假如你是李华， 你的英国朋友Elvin听说你寒假打算参加社区服务活动，他想跟你一起参加。请你写一封电子邮件向他介绍本次活动的具体安排，内容包括：
1. 表示欢迎；2. 活动安排；3. 你的希望。
注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 可增加细节，以使行文连贯。
3. 开头语和结束语已为你写好。
Dear Elvin,
How is it going?
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
英语学科参考答案及评分标准
一、阅读理解 （本题包括20小题，每小题3分，共60分）
21-23 CAB 24-27 CDAB 28-31 DADB
32-35 ABAB 36-40 DEFGC
二、完形填空（本题包括20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
41-50 CDBAC DBDCC 51-60 ADABD CABBA
三、语法填空 （本题包括10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
61.promoting 62.made 63.lined 64.which 65.highly
66.with 67.paintings 68.a 69.understanding 70.them
四、短文改错 (满分10分)
1. that— when 2.first前加the 3.have—had 4.putting—put
5.second—seconds 6.known—knowing 7.but—and 8.去掉back
9.something—nothing 10.carefully—careful
五、书面表达(满分25分)
Dear Elvin,
How is it going? I am delighted to hear that you will come to China and join me in community service. Now I’m writing to tell you something about it.
With the New Year approaching, some elderly people who live in the nursing home in our community may feel extremely lonely without a family. In order to create a joyous atmosphere for them, I plan to visit them every week this winter vacation. Helping them with their house work and chatting with them will surely bring them much pleasure and drive their loneliness away. If you could come, they would be more than pleased to receive “international” care.
I hope we can gain happiness from our voluntary service. Looking forward to your arrival.
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
