2024-2025学年七年级英语上学期期中模拟卷含答案（仁爱科普版2024）

这是一份2024-2025学年七年级英语上学期期中模拟卷含答案（仁爱科普版2024），共14页。试卷主要包含了本试卷分第Ⅰ卷两部分，测试范围等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1．本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．回答第Ⅰ卷时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
3．回答第Ⅱ卷时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．测试范围：七年级上册Units 1-3（仁爱科普版2024）。
5．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第Ⅰ卷 选择题（满分70分）
I. 单项选择（共15小题；每小题1分，计15分。）
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。
1．选出画线部分读音为/p/的单词。
A．beeB．penC．bat
2．Which pair f wrds with the underlined letters has the same sund?
A．cake makeB．bag takeC．five dig
3．—D yu play ________ pian in yur free time?
—N. I like sprt, s I ften play ________basketball with my friends.
A．a; theB．the; /C．the; the
4．Hw many _________ are there in these _________?
A．tmats; phtsB．tmates; phtsC．tmates; phtes
5．—Ms Li teaches ________ Math this term.
—Yu’re lucky. ________ is a gd teacher.
A．ur; SheB．us ; SheC．us ; He
6．—What’s in yur bag?
—________ tw bks and a pen.
A．They’reB．There’reC．There have
7．— Hw will yu g there _______ Friday mrning?
—I will g there _______ my car.
A．n; byB．in; byC．n; in
8．—________ shes are these?
—They are mine.
A．WhseB．WhC．Where
9．—D yu ften g fishing with yur father?
—N, ________. I dn’t like fishing at all.
A．neverB．alwaysC．usually
10．—Hw ld is yur sister?
—She is an ________ girl.
A．8 years ldB．8-years-ldC．8-year-ld
11．—Des Linda ________ three sisters?
—N. She nly ________ ne.
A．have; haveB．have; hasC．has; have
12．—Is that ________ dg?
—Yes. ________ name is Lucky.
A．yur; ItsB．yu; ItsC．yur; It
13．—Can yu sing ________ dance?
—I can sing.
A．andB．butC．r
14．—Are yu in ________?
—N, we’re in ________.
A．the same grade; different grades
B．same grade; different grade
C．same grades; different grades
15．—What club d yu want ________?
—The ________. I like sprts very much.
A．jin; chess club
B．t jin; swimming club
C．t jin; music club
II. 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，计15分。）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
My name is Bill. 16 peple are in my family: my grandparents, my parents and I. My mther is a wrker. She likes red and is ften 17 red clthes. My 18 is a teacher in a middle schl. He likes playing 19 , and he ften buys clthes 20 sprts. Tmrrw is Nvember 28th. That’s his 21 . I want 22 a birthday gift fr him. My grandparents are retired (退休的). My grandmther is 61 years ld. Her birthday is 23 August 3rd. She likes cking (烹饪), and she cks 24 . My grandfather is 63 years ld. He has a bird. 25 name is Snw.
16．A．ThreeB．FurC．FiveD．Six
17．A．withB．nC．underD．in
18．A．grandfatherB．grandmtherC．fatherD．mther
19．A．sccer ballB．vlleyballC．tennis ballD．ping png ball
20．A．atB．frC．withD．in
21．A．ballB．friendC．watchD．birthday
22．A．buyB．t buyC．buyingD．buys
23．A．inB．atC．nD．f
24．A．niceB．gdC．wellD．easy
25．A．ItB．ItsC．It’sD．He’s
III. 阅读理解（共两节，20小题；计40分。）
第一节 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（共15小题；每小题2分，计30分。）
A
Here is Paul’s family pht. Paul is frm a big family. His grandparents have a sn and a daughter. The sn is Paul’s father, Jack. And the daughter is Paul’s aunt, Amy. Paul has a sister. Her name is Alice and she is eight years ld. Aunt Amy and Uncle Frank have tw daughters. They are Grace, 14, and Helen, 12. They are students f N. 5 Middle Schl. Tday is Saturday. The family are in the grandparents’ hme. They have a gd time and take a picture. In the picture, Alice is in frnt f her parents. Grace and Helen are between their grandmther and their father. Where is Paul? Aha, he is n his father’s knee.
26．Amy is Paul’s ________.
A．sisterB．grandmtherC．mtherD．aunt
27．Where is the family tday?
A．In the schl.B．In Uncle Frank’s hme.
C．In the grandparents’ hme.D．In the park.
28．Paul has ________ cusins.
A．twB．threeC．furD．five
29．There are ________ peple in Paul’s big family.
A．sevenB．eightC．nineD．ten
30．What d we knw abut Helen?
A．She is 14 years ld.B．She is in a middle schl.
C．She is Paul’s sister.D．She is n her father’s shulders.
B
31．When des Mna ften g t the schl music club?
A．On Mnday.B．On Thursday.C．On Wednesday.D．On Friday.
32．What des Susan want t be?
A．A teacher.B．A dctr.C．A nurse.D．A farmer.
33．What d Helen’s parents buy her?
A．B．C．D．
34．Wh des Mandy ften play the guitar with?
A．Her mther.B．Her friends.C．Her cusin.D．Her teacher.
35．What d the fur students mainly talk abut?
A．What musical instruments they like.B．When they g t the schl music club.
C．Wh they play music with.D．Why they like music a lt.
C
Hell, my name is Linda. I am eight years ld. This is my family. I have tw brthers and ne sister. Their names are Jim, Bill and Jane. Jim is 13. Jane is 11. Bill is the yungest ne in my family. He’s nly 5. My mm’s name is Sarah and my dad’s name is Jhn. They are teachers. My mther teaches English, and my father teaches (教) Chinese. Wh are they in the pht n the wall? They are my grandparents Michael and Annie. They are my dad’s parents. They are n vacatin (度假) nw. I als have a dg. He is nice. His name is Charlie.
36．Jim is Linda’s ________.
A．uncleB．fatherC．brtherD．cusin
37．________ peple are in the family.
A．SixB．SevenC．EightD．Nine
38．Which ne is TRUE?
A．Jim and Bill are cusins.B．Michael is Linda’s grandfather.
C．Linda’s father is an English teacher.D．Annie is Sarah’s mther.
39．划线单词的汉语意思是“________”。
A．最老的B．年龄最小的C．最高的D．最矮的
40．The best title (标题) fr the passage is ________.
A．My ParentsB．My BrthersC．My FamilyD．My Friends
第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分。）
D
Laura is my cusin. She wrks at a radi statin. 41 Tday I want t tell yu abut her life.
42 She usually gets up at 6:30 and exercises fr half an hur. She has a nice breakfast at 7:15. After that, she ges t wrk. 43 She usually gets hme at abut 7:00 p. m. Then she makes dinner and has it at abut 8:00 p. m. Then she watches TV with her cat. At abut ten, she ges t bed.
44 On Saturdays, she either plays ping­-png r ges swimming. They are relaxing fr her. What des she usually d n Sundays? 45 She is gd at drawing. My last questin is nt easy fr her. I ask, “Yu like art. Why nt be an artist (艺术家)?” She says, “I like t talk t peple n the radi. I can help mre peple in this way.”
根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使文章意思通顺，内容完整。
A．She always ges t the art club.
B．On weekends, she is free.
C．She has lunch at the statin.
D．She thinks it’s an interesting jb.
E．Laura is very busy frm Mnday t Friday.
第II卷 非选择题（满分50分）
IV. 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分。）
Hell, everyne. I am Peter. Welcme t my schl. Lk! My schl is very big. There are fur buildings in it. Our library is in Building A and the ffices are in Building D．The library is very big.
There are lts f bks in it. We can read bks and newspapers there but we can’t write in the bks r take the newspapers hme. There are tw playgrunds in my schl t. Every Tuesday I play basketball with my friends n the basketball curt （球场）. There are ver five hundred students and abut fifty teachers in my schl. The teachers are gd and kind. I lve them. I lve my schl t.
46．Hw many buildings are there in Peter’s schl?

47．Where is the library?

48．What can’t they d in the library?

49．What d Peter and his friends d every Tuesday?

50．Des Peter like his schl?

V. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分。）
A: Kate, is this a pht f yur family?
B: 51
A: Wh’s the yung wman in yellw?
B: Oh, 52 . I have a big family.
A: Is the wman in a white dress yur mther？
B: Yes, she is
A: 53 ?
B: She is a dctr. She wrks in a hspital.
A: Is the man yur father?
B: 54 . He lks very yung. He is an ffice wrker.
A: 55 ?
B: Lk! I am n the sfa with my grandparents and my cusin.
VI. 情景运用（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分。）
56．
A:
B: Yes, she can.
57．
A: What time d yu usually get up?
B:
58．
A: What d Jack and Tny d after schl?
B:
59．
A:
B: Because they are cute.
60．
A: Hw des yur sister get t schl?
B:
VII. 短文填空。（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分。）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Hi guys! My 61 (ne) name is Meimei and my family name is Han. I g t schl frm Mnday t Friday. I like Mnday best because I have English!
62 (we) English teacher Mrs. Lin ften 63 (help) us with English. Nw I can talk with my friends 64 English. After that, we have a math class. Math is difficult 65 fun.
Tw classes 66 (be) n Mnday afternn. We have a music class at 2:00. I like it because 67 music teacher Mr. Singer is interesting! He plays the guitar and sings sngs. And he always sings 68 (gd). Then we have a P.E. I ften play ping-png in P.E. class. That’s great because I want 69 (be) a ping-png player ne day. It is the last class that day and it 70 (finish) at 3:30.
VIII. 书面表达。（计15分。）
71．学校广播站正在征集以My Schl Life为主题的征文，请你写一篇征文参加，介绍你的校园生活。
内容包括：
(1) 每天7:30到校，6:00放学回家；
(2) 最喜欢周四，因为下午只有两节课；
(3) 最喜欢的学科是英语，经常在英语方面帮助同学；
(4) 放学后和同学一起运动，保持身体健康；
(5) 补充一两点相关信息或想法。
要求：
1. 要点齐全，表达清楚，语句通顺，意思连贯，可适当发挥；
2. 文中不得出现真实的人名和校名；
3. 60词左右。
My Schl Life
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
英语·参考答案
（考试时间：90分钟 试卷满分：120分）
I. 单项选择（共15小题；每小题1分，计15分。）
1．B2．A3．B4．B5．B
6．B7．C8．A9．A10．C
11．B12．A13．C14．A15．B
II. 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，计15分。）
16．C 17．D 18．C 19．B 20．B
21．D 22．B 23．C 24．C 25．B
III. 阅读理解（共两节，20小题；计40分。）
A篇：26．D 27．C 28．A 29．D 30．B
B篇：31．B 32．A 33．D 34．C 35．A
C篇：36．C 37．C 38．B 39．B 40．C
D篇：41．D 42．E 43．C 44．B 45．A
IV. 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分。）
46．There are fur.
47．It’s in Building A.
48．They can’t write in the bks r take the newspapers hme.
49．Every Tuesday they play basketball n the basketball curt.
50．Yes, he des.
V. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分。）
51．Yes, it is
52．She is my aunt
53．What des yur mther d/ What is she?
54．Yes, he is.
55．Where are yu?
VI. 情景运用（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分。）
56．Can she dance?
57．I usually get up at 6:30/ six thirty/ half past six.
58．They play sccer.
59．Why d yu like pandas?
60．She rides a/the/her bike./ She gets t schl by bike.
VII. 短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分。）
61．first 62．Our 63．helps 64．in 65．but
66．are 67．the 68．well 69．t be 70．finishes
VIII. 书面表达（计15分。）
My Schl Life
I’m glad t tell yu smething abut my middle schl life. I arrive at schl at 7:30 am and finish schl at 6:00 pm every day. I like Thursday best because there are nly tw classes in the afternn. My favrite subject is English. I ften help my classmates with English. After schl, I exercise with my classmates t keep fit. I like playing basketball. If we have time, we ften play basketball tgether n the playgrund.
I am Mna. The vilin is my favurite musical instrument (乐器). I am in the schl music club (社团) and I g there every Thursday. I usually play the vilin there with sme f my friends. I can't play it very well, but my friend Lisa can. S she ften teaches me.
My name is Susan. I am an English girl but I am in Beijing nw. I am a student f a middle schl. Miss Lee is my music teacher. She is really gd at playing the erhu. I like it t. S we ften spend a lt f time tgether n Wednesday afternns. I really want t be a teacher like her.
Helen is here. I like music and my parents buy me a black pian. After getting hme after schl, I usually d my hmewrk first. Then I play the pian fr half an hur. My mther is a dctr and she likes playing it t. But she usually plays it n Mnday afternns.
I'm Mandy. I have a nice guitar. It is a gift frm my aunt Lucy. I am very gd at playing it. My cusin Nancy is a nurse and she likes playing the guitar t. She als has a nice guitar. We ften play the guitar tgether n Friday afternns.