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      安徽省合肥市38中学2025-2026年九年级下三模英语试卷(含答案,有听力原文)

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      安徽省合肥市38中学2025-2026年九年级下三模英语试卷(含答案,有听力原文)

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      这是一份安徽省合肥市38中学2025-2026年九年级下三模英语试卷(含答案,有听力原文),共4页。
      1.本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
      2.全卷包括“试题卷”(8页)和“答题卡”(2页)两部分。
      3.请务必在“答题卡”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题无效。
      4.考试结束后,请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。
      第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
      Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
      1. When will Mary's parents have a party fr her?
      2. Hw was the weather this mrning?
      3. What will Anna d?
      A. Have breakfast.B. Thrw the milk bx.C. Clean the kitchen.
      4. Whse is the new bike?
      A. Jack’ s.B. Tny's.C. Jhn's.
      5. Hw many times has Anna been t the Hngcun Ancient Village?
      A. Three times.B. Fur times.C. Five times.
      Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
      听下面一段对话,回答第6、7题。
      6. What des Lisa have t d at hme?
      A. D her hmewrk.B. Lk after her little sister.C. Take care f her pet.
      7. When will Jack give Lisa a call?
      A. Tnight.B. Tmrrw afternn.C. Tmrrw evening.
      听下面一段对话,回答第8至10题。
      8. What will the speakers d this weekend?
      A. Have a picnic.B. Have a trip.C. Fly kites.
      9. Hw d they g t the Peple's Park?
      A. By bike.B. By subway.C. By bus.
      10. When will they meet at the girl's huse?
      A. At 9:00.B. At 9:30.C. At 10:00.
      Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A,B,C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
      11. Where did the speaker find the phts?
      A. In the dining hall.B. In the bedrm.C. In the ld schlbag.
      12. Hw ld was the speaker in the first pht?
      A. Six years ld.B. Seven years ld.C. Eight years ld.
      13. What was the speaker ding at the schl cncert?
      A. Playing the vilin.B. Singing a sng.C. Dancing happily.
      14. What clur was the speaker's primary schl unifrm?
      A. White.B. Blue.C. Black.
      15. What des the speaker wear n weekends nw?
      A. Lng dresses.B. A sweater.C. A T-shirt.
      Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
      第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
      V.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
      从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填人空白处的最佳选项。
      21. When students take part in utdr activities, we must think mre abut their wn first.
      A. interestB. hbbyC. prgressD. safety
      22.—— We have practiced fr tw hurs. Are yu t tired t g n?
      —— Nt really. I think we can practicing fr a while lnger.
      A. stpB. cntinueC. refuseD. avid
      23.—— I heard yu lst yur bag n the bus. Is there anything imprtant in it?
      —— Yes, there is a ntebk with many useful ntes in it.
      A.cmfrtableB. ppularC. strangeD. valuable
      24.—— Yu must be very excited abut the cming schl trip.
      —— That's true. I have lked frward t it fr a lng time.
      A. exactlyB. finallyC. quicklyD. slwly
      25. It is nt wise t an excuse fr yur mistakes, and yu shuld be hnest instead.
      A. put upB. make upC. give upD. pick up
      26. The article is easy t understand. The writer it in simple and clear language.
      A. writesB. wrteC. will writeD. is writing
      27.—— Huangshan is famus fr its wnderful muntains and strange stnes.
      —— N trip t Huangshan is perfect enjying the amazing sunrise early in the mrning.
      A. exceptB. withC. twardsD. withut
      28.—— Culd yu tell me we can prteet traditinal culture?
      —— Of curse. We can start with small things arund us.
      A. hwB. whatC. whyD. where
      29. In ur cuntry, space museums are pen t the public fr free mre yung peple can fall in lve with science.
      A. as ifB. even thughC. s thatD. ever since
      30.—— I'm afraid I can't g t the cncert with yu this weekend.
      —— ! We can find anther chance t enjy music tgether.
      A. Of curseB. I agreeC. That's rightD. That's OK
      Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
      阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
      A
      These days, a game abut taking care f a grandma has tuched many hearts. In the game, players need t d sme things fr a grandma, such as 31 meals and buying her favurite drinks. At last, the grandma says“thank yu” t the players. Then a big bird 32 her away, meaning that she leaves the wrld.
      Zhu Yichen, a yung man frm Wuhan, Hubei, made the game t remember his grandma. Zhu has lived with his grandparents 33 the age f three. In his memry, his grandma was strng and always smiled. But his grandma had a 34 last March. Since then, she has becme 35 . S he tk care f her. Sadly, his grandma passed away mnths later. Zhu 36 their days tgether and turned these memries int a game t remember his grandma.
      The game gt 37 after Zhu shared it nline. A lt f peple said it 38—— memries f their wn elderly family members. Zhu was happy. He said lve is the greatest 39 in the wrld. He hped t pass n the 40 f lve thrugh this game, s that everyne in the wrld culd understand each ther better.
      31. A. preparingB. discveringC. inventingD. preferring
      32. A. getsB. carriesC. putsD. gives
      33. A. ifB. becauseC. unlessD. since
      34. A. chanceB. fallC. walkD. rest
      35. A. strngB. strictC. weakD. friendly
      36. A. recrdedB. frgtC. remindedD. greeted
      37. A. hurtB. ppularC. lnelyD. prud
      38. A. tk utB. picked upC. brught backD. fund ut
      39. A. magicB. rderC. tasteD. secret
      40. A. purpseB. pwerC. curageD. price
      B
      Sme life skills are very imprtant in a child's life. When children learn them, they will live independently, take care f themselves, and als help their 41 and clse relatives live a better life.
      Learning life skills starts with mastering 42 but imprtant daily tasks when yur child is 2 r 3years ld. As he 43 , he will learn mre skills based n these simple nes, and at last becme a really independent 44 .
      Many f these skills are nt 45 at schl. As a parent, it's yur jb t teach yur child these life skills. He shuld learn early that his parents wn't always clean up after him.
      Besides, being able t clean and 46 things nt nly helps yur child d his part in running the family, but als makes him realize hw 47 it is fr things t get brken r dirty—— and that they need t be fixed and cleaned in time.
      Yu can use the list belw as a t-d list t 48 what life skills t teach yur child, accrding t his age. Remember that every child grws at a different 49 . Sme skills fr ne age grup can be learned by a yunger child.
      50 yur child can d mst f these skills by himself, sme may need yur supervisin(监督).
      41. A. familyB. friendsC. classmatesD. schl
      42. A. seriusB. clearC. simpleD. difficult
      43. A. hands utB. gives upC. gets upD. grws up
      44. A. adultB. fatherC. mtherD. teacher
      45. A. seenB. taughtC. takenD. understd
      46. A. hurtB. hitC. fixD. save
      47. A. hardB. easyC. relaxingD. interesting
      48. A. knwB. expressC. exerciseD. supprt
      49. A. weightB. cstC. speedD. time
      50. A. AlthughB. AsC. HweverD. Since
      Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
      A: Henry, I visited Hngcun in Anhui last summer hliday.
      B: Linda, Really? 51
      A: Yes. The huses there lk s special and quiet.
      B: 52
      A: Sure. There is clean water everywhere.
      B: 53
      A: Of curse I did. The whle village is like a painting.
      B: Hw was the weather during yur trip?
      A: 54
      B: Did yu try any lcal snacks there?
      A: Yes. 55
      B: Sunds wnderful. I als want t g there ne day.
      第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
      Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
      第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      A
      56. Why is the Stay Safe training held fr children?
      A. T let them enjy free lunch.B. T help them make mre friends.
      C. T imprve their safety abilities.D. T teach them t ck healthy fd.
      57. Hw lng des the First Aid training last in ttal at the weekends?
      A. Fr 7.5 hurs.B. Fr 15 hurs.C. Fr 16 hurs.D. Fr 17 hurs.
      58. What is the text?
      A. A diary.B. A piece f news.C. A stry.D. A pster.
      B
      Anvi is an Indian girl. In 2024, she was just 4 years and 254 days ld. Anvi’ s first bk, Little Girl’ sBig Emtins, came ut. This made her the yungest girl writer t publish a bilingual (出版一本双语的)bk. Anvi wrte the bk in English and Spanish t help children understand and express their feelings calmly.
      Besides writing, Anvi is als a great speaker. She was 5 years and 96 days ld last year, and she became the yungest girl TEDx speaker in histry. TEDx is a speech event. In her speech, she shared that creativity is everyne's true pwer. Thugh it was her first big stage speech, she wasn't. nervus, even jking abut her large shes.
      Fr Anvi, creativity isn't just abut wrds. Painting is anther way fr her t express feelings and ideas.“Every time I feel happy r angry, I just paint it ut,” she said. Anvi started painting at 9 mnths ld and had her first art shw at age 2. The shw was a sucess.
      When asked abut her advice t thers, Anvi said,“Discver yur abilities, and believe in yurself!”
      59. Why did Anvi write her bilingual bk?
      A. T practice painting skills.B. T becme a famus speaker.
      C. T make much mre mney.D. T help kids deal with feelings.
      60. What did Anvi talk abut in her TEDx speech?
      A. The imprtance f big shes.B. Her ideas abut creativity.
      C. Hw t write a stry quickly.D. Ways t hld an art shw.
      61. Which f the fllwing best describes Anvi?
      A. Quiet and shy.B. Serius and friendly.
      C. Creative and talented.D. Outging and lazy.
      C
      Nancy was a shy little girl. She lved hrses and dreamed day and night abut having ne. One day,Nancy's mum tld her that a farm in twn needed sme vlunteers. Nancy wanted t give it a try.
      Nancy's mum brught her t the farm that weekend. There, Nancy saw a small hrse standing all the way in the crner.
      “Oh, that's Lil Bit,” said the farmer.“ She is a little shy because she is shrter and nt as pretty as the ther hrses. She desn't get much attentin.”
      “She is like me!” Nancy thught.“But I think Lil Bit is beautiful.” Naney made up her mind and chse Lil Bit as her hrse friend.
      Nancy had s much fun vlunteering n the farm that she stayed there fr almst ten years. She wnLil Bit's trust and they became best friends. Each day, Nancy walked Lil Bit n the grassland, brushed her.cat, and talked t her like friends d.
      As time went by, Nancy became mre cnfident and utging. She made friends bth n the farm and at schl. She knew Lil Bit had changed her life. She learned t be patient and hw t win trust. Mst f all, she learned that true beauty desn't cme frm the utside, but frm the inside.
      62. What did Nancy dream abut day and night?
      A. Having a lvely hrse.B. Visiting a big farm.
      C. Making new friends.D. Helping pr animals.
      63. What can we learn frm paragraph 3?
      A. Lil Bit was very tall and strng.B. Lil Bit liked staying with ther hrses.
      C. Lil Bit was shy and gt little attentin.D. Lil Bit was ppular amng the vlunteers.
      64. Hw lng did Nancy vlunteer n the farm?
      A. Fr abut tw years.B. Fr almst five years.
      C. Fr nearly ten years.D. Fr ver fifteen years.
      65. What is the best title fr the text?
      A. Ways t Make New FriendsB. A Farmer and His Friendly Animals
      C. A Farm and Many Kind VlunteersD. A Girl and Her Hrse Friend
      D
      At 8 p. m. n a weekday, the waiting rm at a hspital in Beijing is full f peple in their 20s r30s. While waiting, they talk abut sprts and share exercise advice. The waiting rm lks mre like a gym than a place in the hspital.
      Dctrs say that mre yung peple are cming t see them fr pain r injuries(损伤) frm exercise.Sme have back pain because they sit fr t lng at wrk r use phnes and cmputers t much. Others get hurt because they play sprts t hard r dn't knw the right way t wrk ut.
      T get better, many yung peple try smething called sprts rehabilitatin. It uses medical tls,manual therapy(手法治疗) and exercise t help the bdy. Dctrs say medical tls and matiual therapy like manipulatin(推拿) can help peple feel less pain, but they can't slve the prblem nce and fr all.S, sprts rehabilitatin als includes exercise. This way, peple nt nly feel better but als becme strnger. This is als why sme peple jke that the hspital feels like a sprts club!
      Dctrs say yung peple tday care mre abut their health. When they feel pain, they g t the dctr right away. They nt nly slve prblems, but are als learning t take care f their bdies befre prblems start.
      66. What is paragraph 2 mainly abut?
      A. Ways f sharing exercise advice with thers.
      B. Time fr yung peple t d sprts at night.
      C. Reasns fr yung peple's exercise injuries.
      D. Places fr yung peple t wrk ut after wrk.
      67. What d the underlined wrds“sprts rehabilitatin” in paragraph 3 mean?
      A., Advice n making new exercise plans.B. Ways t wrk ut in a hspital gym.
      C. Tls t help play sprts mre easily.D. Help t get better after exercise injuries.
      68. What d dctrs think f yung peple tday?
      A. They care much abut health.B. They seldm use cmputers.
      C. They never d exercise at all.D. They dislike ging t hspitals.
      E
      Drinking warm water, ding baduanjin Many freigners are trying ut these Chinese habits and psting their vides n TikTk. It has becme a scial media trend (潮流) called“Becming Chinese”!
      In ne ppular vide, a man purs ht water with hney while guzheng music plays. He said it's abut“resetting the bdy leveling up ne sip (一小口 ) at a time.” Anther user shared her experience at a dim sum(点心) restaurant, calling it“a very Chinese time f my life”
      Chinese culture values living in peace with nature and keeping a balance between yin and yang. These lifestyles can bring calm and rder in a fast-changing wrld. As Western scieties face mre and mre uncertainty, peple want t lk fr new ways f living.
      “Many yung peple abrad hld a gd view f China,” CCTV said. This shws China's grwing sft pwer. It means freigners are changing their minds, frm viewing Chinese culture far away t taking part in it.
      Chinese prducts have been imprtant in Western life fr many years, frm Chinese phnes and AImdels t tys like Labubu. The trend is a natural result f this influence, US tech magazine Wired said.
      69. What scial media trend are freigners jining in?
      A. Learning Chinese sngs.B. Becming Chinese.
      C. Making shrt vides.D. Travelling t China.
      70. What des the underlined wrd“it” refer t?
      A. Drinking warm hney water.B. Ding baduanjin exercise.
      C. Listening t guzheng music.D. The dim sum restaurant experience.
      71. What des Chinese culture value mst?
      A. Fast and busy lifestyle.
      B. Peace with nature and balance between yin and yang.
      C. Strng cmpetitin and prgress.
      D. Mdern science and technlgy.
      72. Why des this cultural trend appear?
      A. China's sft pwer is grwing.B. Western lifestyles are disappearing.
      C. Chinese prducts are very cheap.D. Freigners dislike their wn culture.
      第二节 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
      F
      Mr. Green had a sn with bad habits. One day, he tk his sn t ask an ld teacher fr help. The
      teacher tk the yung by fr a walk thrugh a garden. Stpping suddenly, he asked the by t pull ut a tiny plant grwing there.
      The yung by held the plant between his thumb and frefinger(拇指和食指) and pulled it ut. The teacher then asked him t pull ut a little bigger plant. The by pulled hard and the plant came ut, rts and all.“Nw pull ut that ne,” said the teacher pinting t a bush(灌木). The by had t use all his energy t pull it ut.
      “Nw take this ne ut,” said the teacher, pinting t a large tree. The by held the tree and tried t pull it ut. But it wuld nt mve.“It's impssible,” said the by, panting(气喘吁吁的) with the effrt.
      “S it is the same with bad habits,” said the teacher.“When they are yung, it is easy t pull them ut. But when they grw bigger, they cannt be pulled ut cmpletely. Dn't wait fr bad habits t grw in yu. Drp them while yu have cntrl ver them, r they will get cntrl ver yu.“
      The talk with the teacher changed the by's life.
      73. Where did the teacher take the yung by fr a walk?(不超过5个词)

      74. What did the teacher ask the by t pull ut first?(不超过10个词)

      75. What can we learn frm the stry?(不超过15个词)

      第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
      .单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分 5分)
      根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
      76. Yu shuld use a right m (方法) t imprve English listening.
      77. I listened t sft music t feel r (放松的) after hmewrk.
      78. My classmate l (借) me his umbrella when I frgt mine this mrning.
      79. My friends and I ften play a fun c (卡片) game after schl.
      80. We shuld try ur best t s (传播) kindness and warmth t everyne arund us in daily life.
      X.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
      假如你是李华,在成长路上,总有一些小事让我们学会坚持、懂得珍惜,一次尝试、一份坚持,都能成为我们成长中的宝贵财富。请根据下面的提示写一篇英语短文,介绍让你收获成长的一次难忘的经历。
      写作提示:1.介绍事情发生的时间、地点和背景;
      2.详细描述事情的经过(如遇到的挑战、你如何坚持完成);
      3.说明这次经历让你收获了什么,对你的成长有何意义。
      写作要求:1.条理清晰,语句通顺;
      2.文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等相关信息;
      3.词数90左右。




      中考英语(四)参考答案及评分标准
      第一部分 听力
      Ⅰ. 1-5 CBBCA
      Ⅱ. 6-10 BBCAC
      Ⅲ. 11-15 BCABC
      Ⅳ. 16. feet17. hear18. smell19. special20. perids
      评分标准:1~20题每小题1分。16~20中的单词拼写错误可酌情扣分。
      第二部分 英语知识运用
      V. 21-25 DBDAB26-30 BDACD
      评分标准:21~30题,每小题1分。
      Ⅵ. 31-35 ABDBC36-40 ABCAB41-45 ACDAB46-50 CBACA
      评分标准:31~50题,每小题1分。
      Ⅶ. 51-55 GFEBD
      评分标准:51~55题,每小题1分。
      第三部分 阅读
      Ⅷ. 56-58 CBD 59-61 DBC 62-65 ACCD 66-68 CDA 69-72 BDBA
      73. Thrugh a garden.
      74. T pull ut a tiny plant first.
      75. We shuld drp bad habits when we still have cntrl ver them.
      评分标准:56~75题,每小题2分。(73~75意思对即可)
      第四部分 写
      IX. 76. methd77. relaxed78. lent79. card80. spread
      评分标准:76~80题,每小题1分。
      X.【范文】 One pssible versin:
      Last mnth, ur schl held a speech cmpetitin. I was nervus because I had never spken in public befre, but I decided t have a try.
      Every evening, I practiced my speech again and again, crrecting my prnunciatin and bdy language. When I felt tired, my teacher encuraged me t keep ging. On the cmpetitin day, I tk a deep breath and spke cnfidently.
      Thugh I didn't win the first prize, I felt prud f myself. This experience taught me that as lng as we are brave t try and keep practicing, we will make prgress. It becmes a valuable memry that encurages me t face challenges bravely.
      一、评分原则:
      1.本题总分20分,分五个档次给分。
      2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次,然后以档次的要求来衡量,结合内容和语言表达,综合给定分数。
      3.考生可根据要点适当发挥,加入自己的观点。
      4.词数少于60个单词,在总分当中扣除一分。
      5.拼写错误多以及书写差影响表达,在所确定档次内扣除一分。
      二、各档次的划分以及给分要求:
      听力部分录音文字稿
      Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
      1. W: My parents will have a party fr me n June 30th. Wuld yu like t cme, Jack?
      M: Of curse, I'd lve t, Mary.
      2. W: Yu' re all wet. What happened?
      M: I was riding the bike t schl when it suddenly rained this mrning. Bad luck!
      3. M: Anna, thrw yur empty milk bx int the bin in the kitchen after yu finish breakfast.I have tld yu many times.
      W: OK, Dad.
      4. W: Hi, Tny! Is this yur new bike? It lks cl.
      M: N. It is my elder brther Jhn's. Mine was brken this mrning.
      5. M: Where will yu g fr a hliday, Anna?
      W: I' ll visit the Hngcun Ancient Village again. Althugh I have been there three times, Ican always find smething new there.
      Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
      听下面一段对话,回答第 6、7题。
      W: Hell, this is Lisa. Wh's that speaking?
      M: Hi, Lisa, this is Jack. Wuld yu like t g t the mvies with me tnight?
      W: I'd lve t, but my parents are away n business. I have t take care f my little sister at hme. Hw abut tmrrw night?
      M: Sunds gd. I' ll give yu a call tmrrw afternn.
      W: Great! I can't wait t see the new mvie.
      M: Me t. See yu then!
      听下面一段对话,回答第8至 10题。
      W: What are yu ging t d this weekend, Bruce?
      M: I have n idea. D yu have any plans?
      W: Yes. Let's fly kites this Saturday!
      M: Sunds great! Where shall we g?
      W: Let's g t the Peple's Park.
      M: Gd idea! It's a gd place t fly kites. Hw shall we get there?
      W: Let's g there by bike. It's nt far.
      M: All right. When and where shall we meet then?
      W: Hw abut meeting at 9:00 am at my huse?
      M: That's t early. What abut an hur later?
      W: OK. See yu then.
      M: See yu.
      Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
      I was tidying my bedrm yesterday, and I fund sme f my phts. They were really funny. Lk at the first ne! I was nly 8 years ld at that time. I was shrt and had lng curly hair. In ne f the phts, I was playing the vilin at a schl cncert. But nw I dn't play any instrument. I like listening t pp music instead! There was als a pht f me and my brther n ur bikes. We were ging t schl. Nw I still like riding my bike t schl. In ne pht, I was wearing my primary schl unifrm. It was blue. Nw I can chse my wn clthes and I usually wear lng dresses n weekdays and a T-shirt and jeans n weekends.
      Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
      Kalas are amng the cutest animals in the wrld. They have grey fur and strng feet,which are great fr living in the trees. They are mainly fund in the frests f eastern Australia.When a baby kala is brn, it can't see r hear. Hwever, it can use its strng senses f tuch and smell t find its way. The baby kala stays in its mther's special pcket fr abut six mnths. Once it becmes strng enugh, it will ride n its mther's back fr anther six mnths.
      Althugh kalas are prtected by law, their hmes are getting smaller. Sadly, arund 80%f kalas’ hmes have been lst because f human activities, lng dry perids, and frest fires.
      试题解析
      21. D 考查名词辨析。A. interest“兴趣”;B. hbby“爱好”;C. prgress“进步”;D.safety“安全”。学生参加户外活动时,我们必须首先多考虑他们自身的 。结合句意可知参加活动,首先必须注意安全。故选 D。
      22. B 考查动词辨析。A. stp“停止”;B. cntinue“继续”;C. refuse“拒绝”;D. avid“避免”。根据答句“Nt really.(不完全是)”可知,说话人不想停止练习,还想再继续一会儿。故选 B。
      23. D 考查形容词辨析。A. cmfrtable“舒适的”;B. ppular“受欢迎的”;C. strange“奇怪的”;D. valuable“珍贵的”。根据“with many useful ntes(有很多有用的笔记)”可知,这个笔记本是珍贵的。故选 D。
      24. A 考查副词辨析。A. exactly“确切地,完全地”;B. finally“最终”;C. quickly“快速地”;D. slwly“慢慢地”。根据“I have lked frward t it fr a lng time.(我已经期待很久了)”可知,说话人对学校旅行的兴奋是完全真实的。That's exactly true意为“完全是这样”。故选 A。
      25. B 考查动词短语辨析。A. put up“张贴,举起”;B. make up“编造”;C. give up“放弃”;D. pick up“捡起,拾起”。结合句意“为你的错误 借口是不明智的,你应该诚实”,可知此处指“编造借口”。故选 B。
      26. B 考查动词时态。A. writes一般现在时;B. wrte 一般过去时;C. will write 一般将来时;D. is writing 现在进行时。文章已经写好,才会让人觉得容易理解,因此“写文章”是过去发生的动作,用一般过去时。故选 B。
      27. D 考查介词辨析。A. except“除……之外(不包括)”;B. with“和……一起”; C.twards“朝向”;D. withut“没有”。结合句意“没有清晨欣赏令人惊叹的日出,黄山之旅就不完美”,可知此处表示“没有”。故选 D。
      28. A 考查宾语从句引导词。A. hw“如何,怎样”;B. what“什么”;C. why“为什么”;D. where“在哪里”。根据答句“We can start with small things arund us.(我们可以从身边的小事做起)”可知,问句是询问“如何保护传统文化”,用 hw 引导宾语从句。故选 A。
      29. C 考查短语辨析。A. as if“好像,似乎”;B. even thugh“即使”;C. s that“为了,以便”;D. ever since“自从”。“太空博物馆免费向公众开放”的目的是“让更多年轻人爱上科学”,s that 引导目的状语从句。故选 C。
      30. D 考查情景交际。A. Of curse“当然”;B. I agree“我同意”;C. That's right.“那是正确的”;D. That's OK“没关系”。根据答句“We can find anther chance(我们可以找另一个机会)”可知,说话人在安慰对方,说“没关系”。故选 D。
      31. A 考查动词辨析。A. preparing“准备”;B. discvering“发现”;C. inventing“发明”;D. preferring“更喜欢”。结合语境,游戏中玩家需要为奶奶做一些事,“准备饭菜”是照顾老人的常见行为,符合逻辑,其他选项均与“照顾奶奶”的语境不符。故选 A。
      32. B 考查动词辨析。A. gets“得到”;B. carries“带走”;C. puts“放置”;D. gives“给予”。根据后文“meaning that she leaves the wrld”(意味着她离开了这个世界),可知此处指一只大鸟把她带走了,carry away 意为“带走”,符合语境。故选 B。
      33. D 考查连词辨析。A. if“如果”;B. because“因为”; C. unless“除非”;D. since“从”。结合句意“周从三岁起和祖父母住在一起”, since符合“他和祖父母一起生活”的时间逻辑,其他连词均无法体现该语境。故选 D。
      34. B 考查名词辨析。A. chance“机会”;B. fall“跌倒,摔倒”;C. walk“散步”;D. rest“休息”。根据后文“Since then, she has becme weak”(从那以后,她变得虚弱),可推断奶奶是摔倒后身体变差,have a fall意为“摔倒”,符合语境。故选 B。
      35. C 考查形容词辨析。A. strng“强壮的”;B. strict“严格的”;C. weak“虚弱的”;D.friendly“友好的”。前文提及奶奶摔倒,后文提到“他开始照顾奶奶”,可知奶奶摔倒后变得虚弱,与前文“his grandma was strng”(奶奶曾经很强壮)形成对比。故选 C。
      36. A 考查动词辨析。A. recrded“记录”;B. frgt“忘记”;C. reminded“提醒”;D.greeted“问候”。结合语境,奶奶去世后,周记录下他们在一起的日子,并把这些回忆变成游戏来纪念奶奶,recrd符合语境,此处用过去式 recrded。故选 A。
      37. B 考查形容词辨析。A. hurt“受伤的”;B. ppular“受欢迎的”;C. lnely“孤独的”;D. prud“骄傲的”。根据后文“A lt f peple said it... memries f their wnelderly family members”(很多人说它唤起了他们对自家老人的回忆),可知这款游戏在网上很受欢迎。故选 B。
      38. C 考查动词短语辨析。A. tk ut“拿出”;B. picked up“捡起,学会”;C. brughtback“使回忆起”;D. fund ut“查明”。结合语境,很多人玩完游戏后,想起了自己家的老人, bring back memries 意为“唤起回忆”,符合语境。故选 C。
      39. A 考查名词辨析。A. magic“魔力”;B. rder“顺序,命令”; C. taste“味道”;D.secret“秘密”。结合全文,周通过游戏传递对奶奶的爱,而爱能打动很多人,所以他说“爱是世界上最伟大的魔力”,magic符合语境。故选 A。
      40. B 考查名词辨析。A. purpse“目的”;B. pwer“力量”; C. curage“勇气”;D.price“价格”。结合语境,周希望通过这款游戏传递爱的力量,让世界上的每个人都能更好地相互理解,pwer(力量)符合语境。故选 B。
      41. A 考查名词辨析。A. family“家人”;B. friends“朋友”; C. classmates“同学”;D.schl“学校”。结合语境,孩子学会生活技能后,能独立生活、照顾自己,也能帮助“家人”和亲近的亲戚过上更好的生活,与“clse relatives”(亲近的亲戚)呼应,其他选项均不符合语境。故选 A。
      42. C 考查形容词辨析。A. serius“严肃的”;B. clear“清晰的”;C. simple“简单的”;D. difficult“困难的”。根据后文“but imprtant daily tasks”(但重要的日常任务)及“based n these simple nes”(以这些简单的任务为基础),可知此处指从掌握“简单的”日常任务开始,simple符合语境。故选 C。
      43. D 考查动词短语辨析。A. hands ut“分发”;B. gives up“放弃”;C. gets up“起床”;D. grws up“长大”。结合句意,随着孩子“长大”,他会在简单技能的基础上学习更多技能,grws up 符合“从 2、3岁到独立”的成长逻辑。故选 D。
      44. A 考查名词辨析。A. adult“成年人”;B. father“父亲”; C. mther“母亲”;D.teacher“老师”。结合语境,孩子从小学习生活技能,最终会成为一个真正独立的“成年人”,其他选项均是具体的身份,不符合“独立”的泛指语境。故选 A。
      45. B 考查动词辨析。A. seen“看见”;B. taught“教”;C. taken“带走”;D. understd“理解”。根据后文“As a parent, it's yur jb t teach yur child these life skills”(作为父母,教孩子这些生活技能是你的职责),可知很多生活技能在学校是不被“教授”的, taught 符合语境。故选 B。
      46. C 考查动词辨析。A. hurt“伤害”;B. hit“击打”;C. fix“修理”;D. save“拯救”。结合后文“they need t be fixed and cleaned in time”(它们需要及时被修理和清理),可知此处指能够打扫和“修理”东西,fix 与后文相呼应,符合语境。故选 C。
      47. B 考查形容词辨析。A. hard“困难的”;B. easy“容易的”; C. relaxing“令人放松的”;D. interesting“有趣的”。结合语境,孩子学会打扫和修理东西,会意识到物品“容易”损坏或变脏,进而明白及时修理和清理的重要性,easy符合逻辑。故选 B。
      48. A 考查动词辨析。A. knw“知道,明确”;B. express“表达”;C. exercise“锻炼”;D.supprt“支持”。结合句意,你可以用下面的清单作为待办清单,根据孩子的年龄来“明确”应该教他哪些生活技能,knw 符合语境。故选 A。
      49. C 考查名词辨析。A. weight“重量”;B. cst“花费”;C. speed“速度”;D. time“时间”。根据后文“Sme skills fr ne age grup can be learned by a yunger child”(某个年龄段的技能可能被更小的孩子学会),可知每个孩子的成长“速度”不同,atadifferent speed 意为“以不同的速度”,符合语境。故选 C。
      50. A 考查连词辨析。A. Althugh“虽然”;B. As“因为,当……时”; C. Hwever“然而”(通常后接逗号);D. Since“自从,因为”。结合句意,“虽然”你的孩子能自己完成大部分技能,但有些可能需要你的监督,前后句为转折关系,Althugh 符合语境,且无需后接逗号。故选 A。
      56. C 考查细节理解。根据海报中“Stay Safe”部分的“Help develp children's andteenagers’ abilities t imprve safety”可知,为儿童举办 Stay Safe 培训的核心目的是提升他们的安全能力。故选 C。
      57. B 考查细节理解与计算。根据海报中“First Aid”部分的信息,培训时间是7月11日
      (周六)9:30至 17:00、7月 12 日(周日)9:30至 17:00。单日时长为17:00-9:30 =7.5小时,两天总时长为 7.5×2 = 15小时。故选 B。
      58. D 考查推理判断题。选项A(日记)是个人日常记录,不符合;选项B(新闻)侧重报道时事,本文无相关属性;选项C(故事)侧重叙事,本文未讲述具体情节;选项D(海报)用于宣传信息,本文清晰介绍了培训的各项关键信息,属于海报文体。故选 D。
      59. D 考查细节理解。根据短文第一段“Anvi wrte the bk in English and Spanish t helpchildren understand and express their feelings calmly.”可知, Anvi写这本双语书是为了帮助孩子们平静地理解和表达自己的情感,即帮助孩子们应对情绪。故选 D。
      60. B 考查细节理解。根据短文第二段“In her speech, she shared that creativity iseveryne’ s true pwer.”可知, Anvi在 TEDx 演讲中分享了她关于创造力的观点,即创造力是每个人真正的力量。故选 B。
      61. C 考查推理判断。Anvi出版双语书籍、成为 TEDx 演讲者,还擅长绘画,从小就展现出突出的能力,由此可判断她富有创造力且天赋异禀。选项 A(安静害羞)与她不紧张且开玩笑的表现不符;选项 B(严肃友好)文中未体现“严肃”;选项 D(外向懒惰)与她积极展现自我、持续创作的表现不符。故选 C。
      62. A 考查细节理解。根据短文第一段“She lved hrses and dreamed day and night abuthaving ne.”可知,南希日夜梦想拥有一匹属于自己的马。故选 A。
      63. C 考查细节理解。根据短文第三段“She is a little shy because she is shrter and nt aspretty as the ther hrses. She desn't get much attentin.”可知,利尔比特很害羞,而且很少得到关注。故选 C。
      64. C 考查细节理解。根据短文第五段“Nancy had s much fun vlunteering n the farmthat she stayed there fr almst ten years.”可知,南希在农场做志愿者近十年。故选C。
      65. D 考查主旨大意。全文围绕害羞的女孩南希和内向的小马利尔比特成为好朋友的故事展开,讲述了她们互相陪伴、共同成长的经历。A选项侧重交友方法,B 选项侧重农场主和动物,C选项侧重农场和志愿者,均不符合文章主旨。故选 D。
      66. C 考查段落主旨。根据短文第二段内容可知,本段主要说明了年轻人出现运动损伤和身体疼痛的原因,包括久坐、过度使用电子产品、运动过度或方法不当。故选 C。
      67. D 考查词义猜测。根据短文第三段“T get better, many yung peple try smething called sprts rehabilitatin. It uses medical tls, manual therapy and exercise t help the bdy.” 可知, sprts rehabilitatin 是帮助运动损伤者恢复健康的治疗方式。故选 D。
      68. A 考查细节理解。根据短文第四段“Dctrs say yung peple tday care mre abuttheir health.”可知,医生认为现在的年轻人很关心自身健康。故选 A。
      69. B 考查细节理解。根据短文第一段“It has becme a scial media trend (潮流) called‘Becming Chinese’!”可知,外国人参与的社交媒体潮流是“Becming Chinese”。故选 B。
      70. D 考查代词指代。根据短文第二段“Anther user shared her experience at a dim sum(点心) restaurant, calling it‘a very Chinese time f my life’.”可知, it 指代她在点心店的经历。故选 D。
      71. B 考查细节理解。根据短文第三段“Chinese culture values living in peace with natureand keeping a balance between yin and yang.”可知,中国文化重视与自然和平共处及阴阳平衡。故选 B。
      72. A 考查细节理解。根据短文第四段“This shws China’ s grwing sft pwer.” 以及后文内容可知,这种文化潮流出现是因为中国软实力不断提升。故选 A。
      Sme infrmatin abut kalas
      Lks
      They have grey fur and strng 16
      A baby kalas
      When it is brn, it can't see r 17
      It can use its strng senses f tuch and 18 t find its way.
      It stays in its mther's 19 pcket fr abut six mnths.
      Challenge
      Arund 80% f kalas’ hmes have been lst because f human activities, lng
      dry 20 , and frest fires.
      A. Can we take many nice phts there?
      B. It was cl and nice, perfect fr walking.
      C. When is the best time t visit Hngcun?
      D. They tasted great and were nt expensive.
      E. Did yu take any phts there?
      F. Are there any rivers r lakes in the village?
      G. I knw it's a beautiful ld village.
      Stay Safe & First Aid Training fr children & teenagers
      Stay Safe
      Age:7~13
      Time:9:00 t 16:00, Saturday, 11 July
      Help develp children's and teenagers' abilities t imprve safety.
      ▲“Check-Call-Care” in a medical emergency(急救事件).
      ▲What t d with bleeding and pain.
      ▲Hw t stay safe at hme and at schl.
      First Aid
      Age:14~18
      Time:9:30 t 17:00, Saturday, 11 July & Sunday, 12 July
      Teach first aid
      ▲Knw what t d in an accident r a medical emergency.
      ▲Learn abut CPR(心肺复苏术), and learn when and hw t perfrm CPR n different age grups.
      Place:ABC Health Centre,129 Fifth Rad
      Free training
      The centre will serve free lunch. Call Diana Mills at 123-456 t sign up(报名).
      第五档(很好):
      (20~17分)
      完全完成了试题规定的任务,涵盖了所有的内容要点,或在发挥时内容有新意有亮点,语言基本无错误,行文连贯,表达清楚。
      第四档(好):
      (16~13分)
      完成了试题规定的任务,涵盖了基本的内容要点,语言有少量错误,行文基本连贯,表达基本清楚。
      第三档(一般):
      (12~9分)
      基本完成了试题规定的任务,写出了一些内容,语言有一些错误,行文不够连贯。
      第二档 (较差):
      (8~5分)
      未恰当完成试题规定的任务,只能写出个别观点,语言错误较多,未能清楚表达信息。
      第一档(差):
      (4~0分)
      未能完成试题规定的任务,只能写出有关内容的一些单词,语法错误很多,未能清楚表达信息。

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