四川省资阳市雁江区2025-2026学年七年级下学期阶段检测英语试题卷

这是一份四川省资阳市雁江区2025-2026学年七年级下学期阶段检测英语试题卷，共6页。试卷主要包含了第一部分，听力，第一节，第二部分，第三部分，第四部分等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、第一部分，听力，第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读一遍。
1．What time des the by usually get up n weekdays?
A．At 6:30.B．At 7:00.C．At 7:30.
2．Hw des the girl g t schl every day?
A．By bus.B．By bike.C．On ft.
3．What club des Tm want t jin?
A．The chess club.B．The music club.C．The art club.
4．Where are the tw speakers?
A．In a library.B．In a restaurant.C．In a museum.
5．What is Lucy ding nw?
A．Ding her hmewrk.
B．Watching TV.
C．Cleaning the rm.
二、第一部分，听力，第二节，听下面几段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听材料，回答问题。
6．What is the by's favrite subject?
A．Math.B．English.C．Science.
7．Why des he like it?
A．It's easy.
B．It's interesting.
C．The teacher is funny.
听材料，回答问题。
8．What's the weather like tday?
A．Sunny.B．Rainy.C．Cludy.
9．What will they d this afternn?
A．Play basketball.
B．G t the cinema.
C．Stay at hme.
10．Wh will cme with them?
A．Mike.B．Linda.C．N ne.
听材料，回答问题。
11．What's wrng with the man?
A．He has a headache.
B．He has a fever.
C．He has a cld.
12．What did he d last night?
A．He played cmputer games.
B．He watched a mvie.
C．He did his hmewrk.
13．What shuld he d?
A．Take sme medicine.
B．Drink ht water.
C．Bth A andB.
听材料，回答问题。
14．Where is the bus stp?
A．Next t the bank.
B．Acrss frm the park.
C．On Main Street.
15．Which bus ges t the z?
A．N. 5 bus.B．N. 12 bus.C．N. 18 bus.
16．Hw lng des it take t get there by bus?
A．Abut 10 minutes.B．Abut 20 minutes.C．Abut 30 minutes.
听材料，回答问题。
17．What day is it tday?
A．Friday.B．Saturday.C．Sunday.
18．Where is the girl ging tmrrw mrning?
A．T the library.B．T the park.C．T the beach.
19．Wh will ck dinner tmrrw evening?
A．The girl's mther.B．The girl's father.C．The girl herself.
20．What will they d after dinner?
A．Watch TV.B．Play chess.C．Take a walk.
三、第二部分：阅读理解，第一节，阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读理解
A Welcme t the City Z! Here is sme infrmatin abut ur animals.
Animal Frm Activity time Favrite fd
Panda China 9:00-11:30, 14:30-16:00 Bamb
Lin Africa 10:00-12:00， 15:00-17:00 Meat
Elephant India 8:30-11:00, 13:30-16:30 Fruit
Penguin Antarctica 9:30-11:30, 14:00-16:00 Fish
Rules:
- Dn't feed the animals.
- Dn't g near the cages.
- Keep the z clean.
- Children under 12 must g with parents.
21．Where des the panda cme frm?
A．India.B．China.C．Africa.D．Antarctica.
22．What time can yu see the lins?
A．At 9:00.B．At 11:00.C．At 14:30.D．At 16:30.
23．What is the elephant's favrite fd?
A．Bamb.B．Meat.C．Fruit.D．Fish.
24．Wh can g t the z alne (独自)?
A．A 10-year-ld by.B．An 11-year-ld girl.
C．A 13-year-ld student.D．A 9-year-ld child.
25．Which f the fllwing is allwed (被允许)?
A．Feeding the pandas.
B．Thrwing rubbish n the grund.
C．Taking phts f the penguins.
D．Tuching the lins.
阅读理解
Dear Linda,
Thank yu fr yur last e-mail. I'm happy t tell yu abut my schl life.
I usually get up at 6:30 a.m. frm Mnday t Friday. Then I take a shwer and have breakfast. I g t schl at 7:20. My hme is far frm schl, s I take the bus. It takes me abut 30 minutes.
My first class starts at 8:00. We have fur classes in the mrning and three in the afternn. My favrite subject is gegraphy because I can learn abut different places. I dn't like math. It's t difficult fr me.
After schl, I ften play basketball with my friends fr an hur. Then I g hme and d my hmewrk. I have dinner at 7:00 p.m. and then I watch TV fr a while. I g t bed at 9:30.
What abut yur schl life? Please write t me sn.
Yurs,
Mike
26． Hw des Mike g t schl?
A．On ft.B．By bus.C．By bike.D．By car.
27．Hw lng des it take Mike t get t schl?
A．20 minutes.B．25 minutes.C．30 minutes.D．35 minutes.
28．What is Mike's favrite subject?
A．Math.B．Gegraphy.C．English.D．Science.
29．What des Mike d after schl?
A．He des his hmewrk.B．He watches TV.
C．He plays basketball.D．He takes a shwer.
30．What time des Mike g t bed?
A．At 9:00 p.m.B．At 9:30 p.m.
C．At 10:00 p.m.D．At 10:30 p.m.
阅读理解
In many English hmes, peple have fur meals a day: breakfast, lunch, afternn tea and dinner.
Breakfast is usually befre 8:00 in the mrning. They ften eat eggs, bread and drink milk r cffee.
Lunch cmes at abut 12:30. It is usually a quick meal. Sme peple eat at hme, but many peple bring their lunch t wrk r schl. They ften have sandwiches r hamburgers.
Afternn tea is between 4:00 and 5:00. It is nt a big meal. Peple usually drink tea with cakes r biscuits (饼干).
Dinner is the mst imprtant (最重要的) meal. It starts at abut 7:00 in the evening. It ften has sup, meat r fish, vegetables and dessert. Family members eat dinner tgether and talk abut their day.
31．Hw many meals d English peple have a day?
A．Three.B．Fur.C．Five.D．Six.
32．What d peple ften eat fr breakfast?
A．Sup.B．Fish.C．Eggs.D．Cakes.
33．When is afternn tea?
A．Befre 8:00 a.m.
B．At abut 12:30.
C．Between 4:00 and 5:00 p.m.
D．At abut 7:00 p.m.
34．What des the wrd "imprtant" prbably mean in Chinese?
A．简单的B．重要的C．丰盛的D．快速的
35．Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A．Lunch is a big meal in England.
B．Peple ften have hamburgers fr breakfast.
C．Dinner is the mst imprtant meal in England.
D．Peple dn't talk during dinner.
四、第二部分：阅读理解，第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
D yu ften make a telephne call? When yu speak n the phne, yu can't see the ther persn. S yu shuld be mre plite (礼貌的). Here are sme tips (建议).
First, speak clearly and slwly. 36．
Secnd, say "hell" first and tell the persn wh yu are. Dn't say "Wh are yu?" It is nt plite. 37．
Third, if yu want t talk t smene, yu can say "May I speak t…?" 38．
Furth, if the persn is nt there, yu can leave a message. 39．
Fifth, when yu finish the call, say "Gdbye" plitely. 40．
五、第三部分：语言知识运用，第一节：完形填空（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
I'm a student frm N. 1 Middle Schl. Let me tell yu smething abut my schl life.
Every mrning, I get up at 6:30. Then I 41． my teeth and wash my face. After that, I have breakfast. I usually have milk and bread. 42． 7:00, I g t schl. My schl is nt far frm my hme, s I always 43． there. It takes me abut 15 minutes.
I have 44． lessns every day. They are Chinese, math, English and sme ther subjects. My favrite 45． is English. I think it's very useful. The English teacher, Miss Li, is very 46． and her classes are interesting. I dn't like math. It's t 47． fr me.
After schl, I ften g t the library. I like 48． bks there. Smetimes I play basketball with my classmates. It's 49． . On weekends, I dn't have any classes. I can 50． a lt f things. I ften help my mther 51． husewrk. Smetimes I g t the park with my parents. We 52． a gd time.
This is my schl life. What abut 53． ? Can yu 54． me smething abut yur schl life? I hpe t 55． yur letter sn.
41．A． washB． brushC． makeD． clean
42．A． AtB． InC． OnD． Fr
43．A． runB． driveC． walkD． ride
44．A． threeB． furC． fiveD． six
45．A． sprtB． subjectC． clrD． fd
46．A． strictB． funnyC． kindD． bring
47．A． easyB． difficultC． interestingD． cl
48．A． readingB． lkingC． seeingD． watching
49．A． sadB． scaryC． bringD． relaxing
50．A． dB． makeC． haveD． take
51．A． frB． withC． fD． t
52．A． takeB． haveC． playD． make
53．A． yursB． yurC． yuD． yurself
54．A． askB． speakC． tellD． talk
55．A． giveB． writeC． getD． send
六、第三部分：语言知识运用，第二节：语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
It is Sunday tday. The weather is sunny and warm. My family and I are having a 56． (relax) day.
My father is 57． (read) a newspaper in the living rm. He likes 58． (read) news every mrning. My mther is cking lunch in the kitchen. She is a gd ck. The fd 59． (smell) nice.
My sister is in 60． (she) rm. She is ding her hmewrk. She has 61． lt f hmewrk t d this weekend. I 62． (be) in the garden. I am watering the flwers. They are very beautiful.
What is my little brther ding? He 63． (play) with ur dg, Cc. They 64． (run) arund the yard happily.
We are all busy but happy. I lve my family 65． much!
七、第三部分：语言知识运用，第三节：单词拼写，根据句意和首字母或汉语提示写出单词的正确形式。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
66． My sister can play the g very well. She ften plays it after schl.
67． Please be q . The baby is sleeping.
68． I usually take a s befre I g t bed.
69． There are many (动物) in the z.
70． My birthday is n (三月) 12th.
八、第四部分：书面表达，第一节：句子翻译。根据中文提示完成句子。（共5小题；每小题3分，满分15分）
71． 我每天花30分钟步行去学校。
It me 30 minutes t schl every day.
72． 她擅长唱歌和跳舞。
She is singing and dancing.
73． 不要忘记做作业。
Dn't d yur hmewrk.
74． 图书馆在邮局的对面。
The library is the pst ffice.
75． 你觉得这部电影怎么样？
What d yu this mvie?
九、第四部分：书面表达，第二节：作文（满分15分）
76．假设你是李华，你的英国笔友Tm想了解你的日常生活。请你给他写一封电子邮件，介绍你的一天（包括起床、上学、课程、活动、睡觉等）。
要求：
1. 内容完整，语句通顺，书写规范；
2. 词数60-80词；
3. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Tm,
I'm happy t tell yu abut my daily life.
……
What abut yur daily life? Please write t me.
Yurs,
Li Hua
答案解析部分
【答案】1．
2．
3．
4．
5．
【答案】6．
7．
【答案】8．
9．
10．
【答案】11．
12．
13．
【答案】14．
15．
16．
【答案】17．
18．
19．
20．
【答案】21．B
22．C
23．C
24．C
25．C
【答案】26．B
27．C
28．B
29．C
30．B
【答案】31．B
32．C
33．C
34．B
35．C
【答案】36．A；37．C；38．B；39．D；40．E
【答案】41．B；42．A；43．C；44．D；45．B；46．C；47．B；48．A；49．D；50．A；51．B；52．B；53．A；54．C；55．C
【答案】56．relaxing；57．reading；58．tread/reading；59．.smells；60．her；61．a；62．am；63．isplaying；64．arerunning；65．very/s
66．【答案】guitar
67．【答案】quiet
68．【答案】shwer
69．【答案】animals
70．【答案】March
71．【答案】takes；t；walk
72．【答案】gd；at
73．【答案】frget；t
74．【答案】acrss；frm
75．【答案】think；fA. Then the ther persn can understand yu better.
B. Yu can call again later.
C. Yu can say "This is ... speaking."
D. It's a gd way t say what yu want.
E. Dn't hang up (挂断) suddenly.
F. Yu shuld shut n the phne.
G. It's nt imprtant t say gdbye.