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      2026年浙江省湖州市中考一模英语试卷(学生版)

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      2026年浙江省湖州市中考一模英语试卷(学生版)

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      这是一份2026年浙江省湖州市中考一模英语试卷(学生版),共9页。
      第一节(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
      听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题 和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
      1.Hw is the weather nw?
      A.Rainy.B.Sunny.C.Windy.
      2.Hw ften des Nancy play the pian?
      A.Every day.B.Once a week.C.Twice a week.
      3.What d Jenny and her brther usually d at hme?
      A.Wash the dishes.B.Sweep the flr.C.Take ut the rubbish.
      4.Where des the man want t g?
      A.The bank.
      B.The bkstre.
      C.The supermarket.
      5.What’s the pssible relatinship between the speakers?
      A.Dctr and patient.
      B.Teacher and student.
      C.Dad and daughter.
      第二节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
      听下面2段较长对话,每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出 最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
      听下面一段较长对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
      6.Hw des Maggie like the bk?
      A.Interesting.B.Meaningful.C.Exciting.
      7,Wh is the writer f the bk?
      A.Mark Twain.B.Charles Dickens.C.Ernest Hemingway.
      听下面一段较长对话,回答第8至第10三个小题。
      8,What clr sweater des Anna want?
      A.Black.B.Green.C.Yellw.
      9.Hw much is the sweater nw?
      A.$69.B.$99.C.$129.
      10.What will Anna d tmrrw?
      A.Have a meeting.B.Get a sweater.C.Call a friend.
      第三节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
      听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的A 、B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,
      各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
      听下面一段独白,回答第11至第15五个小题。
      11.When is the schl trip?
      A.On Wednesday.B.On Thursday.C.On Friday.
      12.Hw lng is the trip?
      A.Fr tw days.B.Fr ne week.C.Fr tw weeks.
      13.What special activity is prepared in the evening?
      A.A dinner party.B.A welcme party.C.A dancing party.
      14.What shuld the students wear n the secnd day?
      A.Swimsuits.B.Suits and dresses.C.Sprts shes.
      15.What des the speaker mainly talk abut?
      A.What t bring fr the trip.
      B.When t start the schl trip.
      C.Where t stay during the trip.
      第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
      第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
      阅读下面四篇短文,从每题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      A
      Useful English Idims!
      ①Hit the Bks
      Bks are fr reading, nt hitting! But “Hit the bks”desn’t mean t thrw bks. It means t study hard, especially befre an exam.
      I have t hit the bks tnight—I have an exam tmrrw!
      Cmmn Situatins:
      Schl exams, hmewrk
      ②Hit the Sack
      “Sack” here isn’t a heavy bag—it means bed! We use “hit the sack” when we’re really tired and ready t g t sleep.
      It’s 11 pm.! I’m s tired and need t hit the sack.
      Cmmn Situatins:
      Late night, tiredness
      ③Hit a Wall
      Smetimes we can’t g n ding
      smething because smething stps us frm making prgress—that’s “hit a wall”.
      I’ve hit a wall with my hmewrk—I can’t finish it at all!
      Cmmn Situatins:
      Difficulties, study prblems
      ④Be a Hit
      If smething r smene is very ppular and lved by peple, it’s “a hit”.
      He was a hit at the party last night—everyne liked him!
      Cmmn Situatins:
      Ppular peple/things, daily life
      16.Which picture best shws the idim “Hit the Sack”?
      A.B.
      C.D.
      17.What will Tm prbably d if he says,"I’ll hit the bks tnight fr my writing."?
      A.He is ging t give up his writing.
      B.He wants t ask his classmates fr help.
      C.He will get ready fr the party tmrrw.
      D.He plans t wrk hard t imprve his writing.
      18.In which part f the magazine can we read the text?
      A.Travel.B.Health.C.Language.D.Business.
      B
      Linda, a 13-year-ld girl,is very curius (好奇) abut nature.Instead f playing cmputer games at hme r ging shpping, she lves watching ants walking in lines r listening t birds singing utside.
      Last summer,she fund a big eagle with wide wings when she explred a nearby frest.Its sharp eyes and strng flight surprised her a lt, and she wanted t knw mre abut this strange bird.
      Frm that day n, she went t the frest after schl every day, hiding behind trees t bserve the eagle quietly. She fund that the eagle flew back t the same treetp every evening. She als discvered the eagle culd feel danger frm shaking leaves and faraway deer barks.She wrte these things dwn in her ntebk.
      At schl, Mr.Wu, her bilgy teacher, nticed Linda’s lve fr nature. He gave her a magnifying glass (放大镜) and said, “Curisity is yur superpwer. Ask questins, test ideas, and recrd results,” With his encuragement, Linda began t research after schl every day. She put sme bread near the eagle’s path t see if it wuld change its habit. The bird nly mved its landing place a little and still came back. She thught it was amazing. Finally her prject n eagles wn the first prize at the science fair.
      She later jined an envirnmental club, planting flwers fr butterflies and building sme mini htels fr birds, Many classmates arund her became interested in nature and decided t give it a g,t. Linda understd curisity nt nly brught fun but als cnnected her deeply t the wrld. She wuld explre nature’s endless secrets.
      19.Where des Linda mst prbably spend her free time?
      A.In a gym.B.In a frest.
      C.In a shp.D.In a cmputer rm.
      20.What des the underlined wrd “bserve” in Paragraph 3 prbably mean?
      A.Watch.B.Keep.
      C.Cunt.D.Imagine,
      21.Why did Mr.Wu say “Curisity is yur superpwer.” t Linda?
      A.He wished her t be mre active in class.
      B.He wanted t praise her physical appearance.
      C.He expected her t keep explring the unknwn.
      D.He hped she culd pay attentin t bilgy grades.
      22.What is the writer’s purpse in writing this passage?
      A.T explain the secrets f many wild animals.
      B.T encurage us t be curius and lve nature.
      C.T shw us hw t win prizes at a science fair.
      D.T teach us hw t d prjects n the envirnment.
      C
      Am I Real r AI?
      Imagine yu are shwn 10 phts f faces and tld that half are real, and the ther half are made by AI.Can yu recgnize (识别) the real nes just by lking?
      Yu might think this is an easy task,but a new study shws it is far mre challenging than we believe.Tday’s AI-generated (生成) faces lk surprisingly real,making it difficult fr mst peple t tell the difference.
      Researchers tested 125 peple t see if they culd discver which faces were AI-made.One-third f them were “super recgnizers”—peple wh are especially skilled at remembering and recgnizing faces in daily life, Hwever,in this study,these experts gt nly 57%crrect n average, while the ther peple gt 51%crrect, almst n different frm blind guessing.
      Early AI-generated faces ften had clear mistakes and were easy t ntice. As AI technlgy imprves rapidly, it has learned frm millins f real faces and becme much smarter. Besides, there are better ways t make the pictures clear and beautiful. Nw Al-generated faces lk s perfect that peple can hardly tell them frm real nes. This has becme a grwing challenge in ur wrld.
      Telling real faces frm AI nes is becming harder every day. “Fr years, we believed phts shwed real peple and real situatins,” said researcher James Dunn. But nw when we lk at pictures nline, we may n lnger trust “ ▲ ” We shuld be mre careful with fake (假的) AI images n scial media and ther websites.
      The team plans t study the tp perfrmers in the tests and find ut the secrets behind their ability t identify AI-generated faces. In the future, they hpe t create simple and useful tls t help peple tell real faces frm AI-generated nes mre easily.
      23.What des the underlined wrd “it” in Paragraph 2 refer t?
      A.Sharing phts nline.
      B.Lking at the phts.
      C.Making AI-generated faces.
      D.Telling real faces frm AI nes.
      24.What can we learn abut “super recgnizers” frm the passage?
      A.They culd perfrm perfectly in the test.
      B.They gt 51%crrect n average in the test.
      C.They like creating different kinds f AI faces.
      D.They are especially gd at recgnizing faces.
      25.Which f the fllwing is mentined in Paragraph 4?
      A.When the early AI-generated faces appeared.
      B.Why tday’s AI faces are hard t recgnize.
      C.Wh will create a new tl fr telling AI faces.
      D.Hw many peple can easily discver AI faces.
      26.Which f the fllwing can be put in“ ▲ ”?
      A.Seeing is believing.
      B.N pains, n gains.
      C.Practice makes perfect.
      D.Well begun is half dne.
      D
      A study in the AHA (美国心脏协会) Jurnal Circulatin shws that eating five servings (份) f fruit and vegetables a day may lwer the risk f death by 13%.
      Researchers studied data frm ver 100,000 men and wmen. The study started in the mid-1980s and ended in 2014. The testers were asked abut their diet at the beginning f the study,and again every tw t fur years. By the end f the study, 33,898 testers had died.
      The study fund that peple wh ate tw servings f fruit and three servings f vegetables daily had the lwest chance f death. Hwever, eating mre than five ttal servings a day did nt make the risk lwer.
      Cmpared with thse wh ate nly tw servings a day, peple wh ate five servings were:
      ·10% less likely t die frm cancer
      ·12% less likely t die frm heart disease
      ·35% less likely t die frm lung disease
      ·13% less likely t die frm all causes
      T make the result mre believable,the researchers cmbined their data with 24 ther studies.In ttal, they lked at 1.9 millin peple frm 29 cuntries acrss Asia, Africa, Eurpe, Oceania, Nrth America and Suth America. They gt the same result: five servings a day led t a 13% lwer risk f death frm any cause.
      But lead authr Dr.Dng Wang said nt all fruits and vegetables are the same. Sme may cause health prblems. Fr example, starchy (淀粉类) vegetables like crn and ptates didn’t help lwer the death risk. Fruit juices were als nt helpful.
      Stick t five servings a day, and keep yur plate clrful. Small changes in yur fd chices can lead t big health benefits ver time.
      27.Hw des the writer intrduce the study?
      A.By telling stries.B.By listing numbers.
      C.By asking questins.D.By describing feelings.
      28.Accrding t the study,wh pssibly has the lwest risk f death?
      A.Peple wh drink fruit juice r eat fruit very ften.
      B.Peple wh fcus n diet t lse weight every day.
      C.Peple wh eat tw fruits and three vegetables a day.
      D.Peple wh change their diets every tw t fur years.
      29.Why des the writer mentin crn and ptates in Paragraph 6?
      A.T explain they are unhealthy fds.
      B.T tell us they are starchy vegetables.
      C.T suggest we shuld eat mre f them.
      D.T shw vegetables have different effects.
      30.What is the best title fr the passage?
      A.Fruit Juice: A Healthy Daily Drink
      B.Sprts &Diet: Gd fr Our Health
      C.Daily Chice: Keep Yur Plate Clrful
      D.Fruit &Vegetables: The Mre, the Better
      第二节 任务型阅读(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
      阅读下面材料,从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选出正确选项(其中一项是多余选项), 将其序号填入第31-34小题,并回答第35小题。
      Have yu ever seen a revlving lantern? It is called Zu Ma Deng in Chinese. It’s a kind f traditinal Chinese flk art frm, which has a lng histry. 31 It became very ppular during the Tang and Sng Dynasties. In the Ming and Qing Dynasties, its frms became mre creative.
      32 When the candle inside is lit, the heat makes the air warm and light. The ht air rises and makes the small fan wheel at the tp mve arund slwly. Pictures n the lantern lk like they are mving, just like a shrt play. Zu Ma Deng shws that Chinese wisdm is ahead f its time.
      In the past, peple made the lanterns t light up dark streets at night. 33 They are als becming a way t spread traditinal culture. During the Spring Festival r Mid-Autumn Festival, hanging Zu Ma Deng is a ppular traditin acrss China. They are seen as symbls f happiness and gd wishes.
      Mre and mre yung peple are interested in making Zu Ma Deng. 34 Sme Chinese artists teach peple hw t make them in museums and cmmunities. By making the lanterns, peple can learn mre abut Chinese culture and histry.
      Zu Ma Deng cnnects ur past with mdern science, making it a wnderful treasure f bth culture and knwledge. We shuld keep this traditinal art alive and pass it n.
      A.Making it is nt easy, but it is very fun.
      B.It first appeared in the Qin and Han Dynasties.
      C.Hw des a traditinal Zu Ma Deng wrk?
      D.Pictures f hrses and peple n them are clurful.
      E.Tday, the lanterns are nt just beautiful decratins.
      35.What ther traditinal arts are yu mst interested in?Why?(不超过15词)
      _______________________________________________
      第三部分 语言运用 (共三节,满分40分)
      第一节 完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
      阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      Elsa had lked frward t her 9th birthday fr weeks. Her mther Shirley. 36 t make it a really special day fr her. The big day finally arrived. After weeks f. 37 , Elsa culd hardly cntrl her excitement.
      At a lcal restaurant, tw waiters were busy helping Shirley 38 clrful lights. Elsa circled her and asked, “Will yu finish befre the guests cme?” Her mther smiled, feeling happy t give her daughter the 39 she had lked frward t fr s lng.
      It was time fr the party. Elsa sat at the table and fixed 40 eyes n the dr. Thirty minutes passed, 41 still n friends had arrived.
      The rm stayed quiet and 42 , and the smile n Elsa’s face disappeared. Suddenly, Shirley realized her 43 —she had written the wrng date, s the kids wuldn’t cme until the next day.
      “I let her dwn.” Shirley thught. Instead f giving up, she decided t d smething 44 She tk ut her phne and 45 a message in a lcal cmmunity grup, asking peple t jin Elsa’s birthday if they were free.
      What happened next was mre than she ever expected. Many peple 46 replied t her invitatin. In a shrt time, 47 began t shw up, carrying small gifts fr the birthday girl. Elsa felt 48 and her eyes lit up with jy when peple came t say “happy birthday” t her.
      At the end f the party, Shirley tried t express her thanks, but tears ran dwn her cheeks befre she culd 49 . She wuld never frget the kindness 50 these warm neighbrs.
      Smetimes, the best gifts cme frm peple wh remind us n ne wuld feel alne.
      B.refusedC.prmisedD.learned
      B.studyingC.travelingD.training
      awayB.lk atC.put upD.pay fr
      B.lessnC.partyD.speech
      B.yurC.hisD.her
      B.rC.sD.and
      B.wetC.emptyD.warm
      B.chiceC.hpeD.plan
      B.differentC.simpleD.dangerus
      B.fundC.readD.cpied
      B.safelyC.secretlyD.ludly
      B.neighbrsC.teachersD.classmates
      B.prudC.patientD.surprised
      B.speakC.leaveD.wrk
      B.byC.withD.frm
      第二节 词汇运用(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
      A.用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空,每词仅用一次。
      hug plite actually chpstick if arund the wrld
      Welcme t Wrld Cultural Exchange Channel. I’m yur hst, Li Yue. We are ging t explre fascinating dining cultures 51 —hw peple behave at the dinner table in different cuntries.
      In China, children are taught hw t use. 52 prperly frm an early age. Fr example, never stick them int the fd. Als, it’s 53 t hit an empty bwl with them.
      In India, many peple eat with their right hand. 54 yu are nt familiar with this custm, yu might think it’s nt clean. 55 , it is an imprtant part f Indian culture. Interestingly, in many Suth American cuntries, peple 56 each ther as a greeting befre meals.
      Different cuntries have different table manners, and that’s what makes ur wrld s clrful.
      B.阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
      Sleeping in space is quite different frm sleeping in ur daily life. Because f zer gravity (失重), astrnauts cannt 57 (躺) dwn n a bed. If they d, they will flat arund and be in danger. T 58 (解决) this prblem, they sleep in special sleeping bags that are tied t the wall r a hk (钩子). This keeps them safe and stps them frm flating away.
      59 (另一个) big prblem is the light. On the Internatinal Space Statin (ISS), the sun rises and sets every 45 minutes because the statin travels arund the 60 (地球) much mre quickly. As a result, astrnauts need t wear special eye masks t 61 (保护) their eyes frm the strng light.
      Their sleeping place is als very small. On the ISS, each astrnaut has his/her wn private space—nly the 62 (尺寸) f a telephne bth (电话亭). In sme smaller spacecraft, they may have t sleep clse 63 (一起) in an pen area.
      NASA expects astrnauts t sleep 8.5 hurs a day but studies shw they ften sleep nly abut 6 hurs. Nt getting 64 (足够) sleep is a serius prblem fr everyne. 65 (幸运), new technlgies and better sleep plans are being develped t help them rest well in space.
      第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
      阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词,或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
      James Sun is a 39-year-ld Chinese. He used t be 66 engineer.A few years ag, he was ging thrugh a dark perid in his life. One day, sme nline vides f sand art suddenly calmed 67 (he) dwn. In the vides, the artists put clred sand int cmmn bttles. They wuld then use a special tl 68 (make) the sand int any shape they needed.
      James searched nline fr infrmatin n many famus sand art 69 (master). T learn frm them, he traveled t different parts f China and ther East Asian cuntries. 70 his jurney t study was full f difficulties, he still kept ging.
      Later, as a big sprts fan, he started t make sand art prtraits (肖像)f well-knwn sprtsmen, 71 2023, James began psting his artwrks nline. These artwrks sn became very ppular. James nw spends abut ten hurs a day making sand prtraits. S far, he 72 (create) sand artwrks fr many famus cmpanies.
      James finds his new jb very. 73 (enjy) and interesting. “When I gave up my engineering jb, everyne thught I was crazy. But it is 74 (gd) decisin I’ve ever made in my life!” the artist said.
      75 a new wnderful life he has!
      第四部分 书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
      近期你校英语社团将开展以Manage Time, Manage Myself为主题的“时间管理达人”经验分享活动。请你根据以下要点,结合自身经历写一篇英语短文进行分享。
      注意:1.提供的信息仅供参考,可适当发挥;
      2. 文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息;
      3. 词数80左右。首句已给出,不计入总词数。
      Hell, everyne! I’m glad t share my ideas abut time management. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
      参考答案
      一、听力理解
      1.B 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.A
      6.B 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.A
      11.C 12.A 13.C 14.C 15.A
      二、阅读理解
      16.C 17.D 18.C 19.B 20.A
      21.C 22.B 23.D 24.D 25.B
      26.A 27.B 28.C 29.D 30.C
      三、任务型阅读
      31.B 32.C 33.E 34.A 35. (言之有理、表达基本正确即可得分)
      四、完形填空
      36.C 37.A 38.C 39.C 40.D
      41.A 42.C 43.A 44.B 45.A
      46.A 47.B 48.D 49.B 50.D
      五、词汇运用
      51.arund the wrld 2.chpsticks 53.implite 54.If 55.Actually 56.hug 57.lie 58.slve
      59.Anther 60.earth 61.prtect 62.size
      63.tgether 64.enugh 65.Luckily
      六、语法填空
      66.an 67.him 68.t make 69.masters 70.Althugh/Thugh
      71.In 72.has created 73.enjyable 74.the best 75.What
      七、书面表达
      Pssible versin 1:
      Hell, everyne! I’m glad t share my ideas abut time management. I think it is very necessary fr us, as it helps imprve urselves in many ways.
      T manage time well,I usually d sme simple things.I make clear daily plans.I ften write dwn the tasks and finish them ne by ne.I als try t use my free time wisely,like listening t English prgrams befre bed.Besides,I never put ff tday’s wrk till tmrrw.This way,I can finish my schlwrk n time and have mre time t relax.
      Pssible versin 2:
      Hell, everyne! I’m glad t share my ideas abut time management. I think it is very necessary fr us, as it helps us imprve urselves in many ways. When we use time well, we can nt nly finish ur schlwrk quickly, but als have mre time t relax.
      T manage time well, I usually d sme simple things. First, I make clear daily plans and finish tasks ne by ne. Secnd, I try t use my free time smartly, like listening t English prgrams befre bed. Besides, I never put ff tday’s wrk till tmrrw.

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