山东聊城市临清市2025-2026学年七年级上学期期末调研 英语试题

这是一份山东聊城市临清市2025-2026学年七年级上学期期末调研 英语试题，共11页。试卷主要包含了听力理解，完形填空，阅读理解，根据汉语提示完成句子，每空一词，语法填空，阅读表达，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
时间：130分钟 满分：150分
选择题(三大题，共计90分)
一、听力理解(共30小题；每小题1分，满分30分)
第一节 听下面10个小对话。每个对话后面有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每个对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个对话仅读一遍。
1. What will the wman take t the party?
A. Sme fruit.B. Sme flwers.C. Sme ballns.
2. What des the by want t be when he grws up?
A. A ck.B. A dctr.C. A teacher.
3. What time des the by usually get t schl?
A. At 7:00.B. At 7:30.C. At 8:00.
4. What's in Anna's pencil case?
A. Her pen.B. Her ruler.C. Her pencil.
5. What kind f drink des the by like?
A. Tea.B. Cla.C. Cffee.
6. What will they plant in their garden?
A. Sme fruit.B. Sme flwers.C. Sme vegetables.
7. What is Peter ging t d this weekend?
A. He is ging t the library.
B. He is ging t plant sme flwers.
C. He is ging t climb the muntains.
8. Which animal des Tim like best?
A. The dg.B. The panda.C. The sheep.
9. Wh can't cme back at the Spring Festival?
A. Jim's uncle.B. Jim's cusin.C. Lily's daughter.
10. What's Mike's family's traditinal dish n the Spring Festival?
A. Sixi balls.
B. Dumplings.
C. The lin's head.
第二节 听下面四段对话。每段对话后各有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第11至13小题。对话读两遍。
11. Wh is Amy?
A. Jhn's cusin.B. Alice's sister.C. Jhn's sister.
12. What's Amy's favurite subject?
A. P
E.
B. Music.C. Science.
13 . Why des Jhn like PE best?
A. Because he likes playing sprts.
B. Because he thinks PE is relaxing.
C. Because his PE teacher is interesting.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至17小题。对话读两遍。
14 . Hw is Mary's life in the new schl?
A. Pretty gd.B. A little nervus.C. A little difficult.
15 . What club des Mary jin?
A. The Art Club.B. The Cking Club.C. The Basketball Club.
16 . Wh is Alice?
A. Mary's sister.B. Mary's friend.C. Mary's cusin.
17 . What d Mary and Alice ften d?
A. D sprts.B. G shpping.C. D hmewrk.
听下面一段对话，回答第18至21小题。对话读两遍。
18 . Hw will Jhn g t the z?
A. By car.B. By bus.C. By train.
19 . What animal isn't mentined(提及) in the dialgue?
A. Tigers.B. Pandas.C. Elephants.
20 . Where d the mnkeys cme frm?
A. China.B. England.C. America.
21 . When and where will they meet?
A. In frnt f the z at 8:00 am.
B. In frnt f the z at 9:00 am.
C. At the schl gate at 8:00 am.
听下面一段对话，回答第22至25小题。对话读两遍。
22 . Hw was Amy's hliday?
A. Terrible.B. Relaxing.C. Wnderful.
23 . Hw did Amy get t Kunming?
A. By car.B. By plane.C. By train.
24 . Hw was the weather in Kunming?
A. Sunny and ht.B. Warm and windy.C. Cl and windy.
25 . What did Amy d in Kunming?
A. Swam in the sea.
B. Played n the beach.
C. Visited sme places f interes
第三节 听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中
选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5
秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。
26 . What festival is the speaker talking abut?
A. Christmas.B. Thanksgiving Day.C. The Spring Festival.
27 . When des the festival usually cme?
A. In February.B. In December.C. In Nvember.
28 . What is the speaker's mther ding in the first pht?
A. Buying presents.
B. Cleaning the huse.
C. Enjying a delicius dinner.
29. What fd is the speaker eating fr dinner in the secnd pht?
A. Turkey.B. Jiazi.C. Hamburgers.
30. What d the speaker’s family usually d after dinner?
A. Watch TV.B. Tell stries.C. Share presents.
二、完形填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文后所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Are yu lking at me? D yu knw me? I’m a dd! Yu may think I’m just a character in Alice's Adventures in Wnderland. 31 , there used t be thusands f us - fr real. But nw yu can nly see us in 32 .
We lived n an 33 in the Indian Ocean. In the happy ld days, there was 34 fd t eat. All the ther animals were 35 . What a peaceful and safe life!
Hwever, in 1598, humans 36 . They cut dwn the trees and ur lvely 37 was gne. They 38 us because we were slw and culdn't fly. What's mre, their pigs, cats and dgs ate ur eggs. As a result, we sn died 39 .
S tday we are standing in museums arund the wrld. When yu see us, please remember ur sad stry. The wrld is 40 f fantastic animals. Please try yur best t help them. Make them as happy as a clam, nt as dead as a dd.
31. A. QuicklyB. FinallyC. Actually
32. A. zsB. museumsC. libraries
33. A. islandB. xygenC. ending
34. A. a ltB. s manyC. plenty f
35. A. awakeB. friendlyC. amazing
36. A. arrivedB. changedC. recgnised
37. A. schlB. frestC. wrkshp
38. A. mixedB. huntedC. treated
39. A. fB. inC. ut
40. A. fullB. lstC. ppular
三、阅读理解（共25小题；每小题2分，满分50分）
本题分为三节：第一节共5小题，计10分；第二节共15小题，计30分；第三节共5小题，计10分。
第一节 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容判断其后面所给句子的对错，并在答题卡上将所选的对应选项涂黑。选“对”涂A，选“错”涂B。
Hell, everyne. I’m Jacky and tday I’d like t talk abut reading.
Sme f my friends and classmates dn’t like reading. They say it’s bring. But I enjy reading! I spend tw hurs reading bks every day. There are always interesting stries t read and things t learn. I can learn a lt frm bks. My father ften read t me befre I went t bed when I was a little by. It was my favurite time f the day! The stries gave me a lt f happiness! I still remember ne stry abut a dragn and a beautiful girl. That is ne f my favurite stries. I liked t dream that I was a her and I saved the girl in a dark huse.
Nw I like ther kinds f stries. Adventure stries are my favurite. It’s fun t imagine(想象) that I travel t different places f the wrld and d really exciting and special
things! And I'm als interested in real life stries because they make me think and learn a lt.
S, reading can never be bring! It's a really useful and interesting thing t d. Let's lve reading and explre the sea f bks!
41. Jacky reads fr 3 hurs every day.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
42. When Jacky was a little by, his mther ften read t him befre sleeping.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
43. One f Jacky's favurite stries is a stry abut a dragn and a beautiful girl.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
44. T Jacky, reading is useful and interesting.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
45. Jacky wants t call n(号召) thers t read mre bks.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
第二节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个能回答所提问题或能完成所给句子的最佳选项。
A
Traditinal Chinese Culture Clubs
46. What can students d in Rm 303?
A. Learn t play the erhu.B. Make jiazi and zngzi.
C. Learn abut paper - cutting.D. Knw abut Jurney t the West.
47. Wh teaches in the Reading Club?
A. Mr. Lu.B. Mr. Li.C. Ms. Ta.D. Miss Ma.
48. Where can students learn Chinese fd culture?
A. In Rm 205.B. In Rm 303.C. In Rm 402.D. In Rm 118.
49. Hw can students find ut mre abut the clubs?
A. Visit Mr. Jin.B. Visit Rm 402.
C. Write an email t Mr. Jin.D. Visit the schl's library.
50. What can we learn frm the passage?
A. Yu can watch TV at the Reading Club.
B. Yu can jin the clubs frm Mnday t Sunday.
C. Yu can make Chinese art films at Chinese Art Club.
D. Yu can learn Chinese fd culture at Chinese Fd Club.
B
Our parents are imprtant peple in ur life. They are ur first teachers in ur life. They lve us and help us all the time. S d yu want t get n well with them? Here are sme ways t help yu t be happy with yur parents.
Have fun tgether
Hw much time d yu spend just enjying being with each ther? Ask yur parents t play with yu. G utside tgether, try sme sprts, r g t the mvies.
Be kind
Little things may bring a lt t yur parents. Make a meal fr them by yurself and that can make yur parents happy.
Ask fr help
When yu have a prblem r meet sme sad things, yu can ask yur parents fr help and advice. They will be happy t listen t yu and help yu.
Have a try
Yu dn't have t be the best but yu need t have a try. They will be happy t see yu have the curage(勇气) t make yur dream cme true. It lets them knw they're ding a gd jb in helping yu grw up.
51. Why are ur parents imprtant persns fr us?
A. They live with us.B. They ck meals fr us.
C. They always lve and help us.D. They teach us in ur schl.
52. Hw many suggestins des the writer give us in the passage?
A. Three.B. Fur.C. Five.D. Six.
53. Hw d yu have fun with yur parents?
A. G utside tgether.B. Help with husewrk.
C. Tell them funny things.D. Make a card fr them.
54. What shuld we d if we have a prblem accrding t the passage?
A. Listen t ur teachers.
B. Ask ur parents fr help.
C. Turn t ur friends fr help.
D. Ask a dctr r nurse fr help.
55. The best title fr this passage is ______.
A. Hw t grw upB. Hw t lve and teach kids
C. Hw t talk with yur parentsD. Hw t be happy with ur parents
C
Bamb is ne f the wrld's mst useful plants. Bamb can be used in many different ways. Bamb can be made int chairs, fishing rds(鱼竿), baskets and paper. It can be eaten, t.
Peple in China like bamb shts(竹笋) very much. They think the bamb shts are a kind f delicius vegetable fr parties and meals.
In many parts f Asia, bamb shts are a kind f favurite fd. The winter bamb shts are the best because they are sft, with a white and green clur. Usually they are biled(煮) in water with sme salt. Spring bamb shts are darker and harder, s they take lnger t ck. But they are cheaper than winter bamb shts.
Fresh bamb shts are seldm fund utside bamb's hmetwn. But peple in ther places can buy bamb shts, t. These shts are kept in bttles and cans(罐). They need n cking and are almst as gd as fresh bamb shts.
Bamb shts are really delicius. Have a try. I'm sure yu will enjy them very much.
56. What des Paragraph 1 mainly talk abut?
A. The use f bamb.
B. Hw t eat bamb.
C. The clur f bamb.
D. Bamb is a kind f favurite fd.
57. Which part f bamb d peple like t eat?
A. Bamb rts.B. Bamb leaves.C. Bamb shts.D. Bamb flwers.
58. What are the winter bamb shts like?
A. Sft and dark.
B. Hard and dark.
C. Hard, with a black and green clur.
D. Sft, with a white and green clur.
59. What des the underlined wrd "They" refer t?
A. Cans.B. Shts.C. Bttles.D. Vegetables.
60. What's the structure f the passage? (①=Paragraph 1 ②=Paragraph 2...)
A. ①/②③④/⑤B. ①②③/④⑤
C. ①/②/③④/⑤D. ①②/③/④⑤
第三节 阅读短文，将下面选项还原到文中空白处，使短文内容完整、通顺，每个选项只能用一次。
Hw d yu knw abut the weather f this week? 61. ________ We can als knw it by watching sme animals. Animals can knw the change f the weather easily and d smething fr the bad weather.
Bees(蜜蜂) can talk t each ther by dancing. 62. ________ That's why it's easy fr them t knw the change f the weather in a shrt time. 63. ________ Because they may get hurt(受伤) in the rain. 64. ________ "If bees fly away, it will be fine."
We can als knw the cming up f the rain by ther animals. 65. ________ It's really interesting, isn't it? Learn mre and knw mre frm nw n.
S nw yu may knw this saying(谚语) well.
And a lt f bees can live very well with each ther.
But d yu knw why bees dn't g ut n rainy days?
Fr example, if the dragnflies(蜻蜓) fly very lw, the rain is cming.
By listening t the radi, by using the Internet r the cell phne r by watching TV.
非选择题(三大题，共计 60 分)
四、根据汉语提示完成句子，每空一词。（共 5 小题；每空 1 分，满分 10 分）
66. 成立一个写作小组怎么样？咱们星期三午饭后在这儿见。
______ ______ starting a writing grup? Let's meet here n Wednesday after lunch.
67. 《大山里的邮递员》是一个关于父子之爱的感人故事。
Pstmen in the Muntains is a tuching stry abut the lve ______ father ______ sn.
68. 他不得不每天待在家里，他经常感到孤独。
He has t stay at hme every day and he ften ______ ______.
69. 艾米莉亚在餐厅里挂好灯笼和气球后，玲玲把最后一道菜放在桌上。
After Emilia ______ ______ and ballns in the dining rm, Lingling puts the last dish n the table.
70. 鸽子能在镜子里认出自己。多么令人惊讶！
Pigens can recgnise themselves in mirrrs. ______ ______!
五、语法填空（共 20 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 20 分）
A
阅读下面短文，根据音标或汉语提示在空白处填入单词的正确形式。每空 1 个单词。
Fr Chinese peple, festivals usually mean a 71. ______ /breɪk/ frm wrk. But fr Leng Wenying, festivals nly mean mre wrk.
As a dctr in the emergency rm, Leng 72. ______ /'mɪsɪz/ many family meals with her lved nes. She is ften much busier during festivals. Smetimes she has t wrk withut resting fr 20 hurs. This makes her tired and 73. ______ (口渴的). "Festivals are a 74. ______ (挑战) because ur 75. ______ (病人) are ften in a bad situatin. We need t stand by every minute," says Leng.
Leng's 76. ______ (职责) means she has little time t be with her family at festivals. But she never 77. ______ (后悔) her decisin t be an ER dctr. "I make the mst f every minute with my family. I'm very thankful fr their 78. ______ /sə'pɔ:t/," she says.
Leng is nly ne f millins f 79. ______ /'medɪkəl/ wrkers in China. They give up their family time. In ur hearts, their hard wrk shines brighter than festive 80. ______ /'faɪəwɜ:ks/.
B
阅读下面短文，在空白处按要求填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。每空 1 个单词。
Rck music is cming ut f my cmputer. I am 81. ______ (冠词) rck music lver. Smetimes I write sngs and share 82. ______ (they) nline. There is s much fun in music.
Right at this mment, the sund f Grandpa's erhu cuts in. Yes, music is als my 83. ______ (grandpa) hbby. But it's a different kind f music. He likes 84. ______ (play) the erhu in the park with his friends. They sing Beijing pera tgether. There 85. ______ (be) many fans f them.
An idea 86. ______ (sudden) hits me: "Why dn't we put ur music tgether? I can write a sng 87. ______ (介词) us."
"Grandpa!" I rush int his rm...
There is an art festival every autumn in my schl. I decide t take part in it with Grandpa this year. After a week's 88. ______ (practice), we are n the stage. I nd t Grandpa and we fire up ur 89. ______ (instrument). Everybdy mves with ur music.
Grandpa gives me a big smile, 90. (连词) I smile back. It feels great t enjy ur hbbies tgether.
六、阅读表达(共 10 分；每题 2 分)
It's quarter past seven. Here's Wrker N. 55 in his green unifrm. He's ging t start wrk in the plant.
He wrks in Wrkshp 1001 in the Leaf. There are 20 t 100 wrkers in each wrkshp.
①They cllect sunlight and CO₂ during the day. Nw wrkers frm the Rt send up water. The water will rise up t the Leaf thrugh the Stem. Then wrkers in the Leaf will mix water, CO₂ and sunlight.
What are they ging t prduce? Mst imprtantly(fr them), there will be sugar! It is useful fr the grwth f the plant. Anther prduct will be xygen, but the plant desn't need much f it. It means a lt t animals and humans, thugh—they need it t breathe!
The wrkers wrk hard. Sn it's ging t get dark. ②他们将休息一下.
There are millins f plants n earth. They give mre than fd and xygen. Withut plants, the natural wrld wuld be very different!
91. What time is Wrker N. 55 in his green unifrm ging t start wrk in the plant?
92. 请将①处划线句子译为汉语。
93. What des the underlined wrd "It" refer t(指代)?
94. 请将②处划线句子译为英语。
95. 在文中找出与下面所给句子意思相近的句子。
The natural wrld wuld be very different, if there weren't plants.
七、书面表达（满分 20 分）
请结合以下提示，用英语介绍一下你初中结交的最好的朋友亨利。
要点：
1. 亨利是我最好的朋友。他 13 岁了。
2. 他在学校乐队弹吉他。他也喜欢写魔法故事。他想要交朋友并分享写作的乐趣。他最喜欢的节日是春节。春节代表着家庭团聚。
3. 他喜欢喝茶。茶不仅对我们的健康有益，也是许多文化的一个关键部分。他和他的家人们经常在院子里喝着红茶聊天放松。
要求：
1. 可根据提示适当发挥，文中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称；
2. 词数不少于 70 词，开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Henry is my best friend._____________________________________________________
2025~2026学年第一学期期末调研
七年级英语参考答案
一、听力理解
1~5 CABBA 6~10 CBABC 11~15 CBAAC
16~20 BABCA 21~25 ACBBC 26~30 CABBA
二、完形填空
31~35 CBACB 36~40 ABBAC
三、阅读理解
41~45 BBAAA 46~50 ABDCD 51~55 CBABD
56~60 ACDBA 61~65 EBCAD
说明：
1.选择题共65小题，共90分。1~40小题，每小题1分；41~65小题，每小题2分。
2.与所给答案不符者不得分。
四、根据汉语提示完成句子
66. Hw/What abut 67. between; and 68. feels lnely
69. hangs lanterns 70. Hw surprising/amazing
说明：
1.本题共5小题，每空1分。
2.与所给答案不符，只要意义正确，且符合题意要求，也得分。
五、语法填空
A
71. break 72. misses 73. thirsty 74. challenge 75. patients
76. duty 77. regrets 78. supprt 79. medical 80. firewrks
B
81. a 82. them 83. grandpa's 84. playing 85. are
86. suddenly 87. fr 88. practice 89. instruments 90. and
说明：
1.本题共20小题，每小题1分。
2.与所给答案不符，只要意义正确，且符合题意要求，也得分。
六、阅读表达
91. At quarter past seven./At 15/fifteen past seven./At 7:15./At seven fifteen.
92. 他们在白天收集阳光和二氧化碳。/白天，他们收集阳光和二氧化碳。/他们收集阳光和二氧化碳在白天。
93. Sugar.
94. They will have/take a rest./They are ging t have/take a rest.
95. Withut plants, the natural wrld wuld be very different!
说明：
1.本题共5小题，每小题2分。
2.与所给答案不符，只要意义正确，且符合题意要求，也得分。
3.语法、单词拼写错误，评分时视其对阅读表达的影响程度酌情扣分（应以理解和表
达意义正确性作为评分的主要依据）。
七、参考范文
Henry is my best friend. He is 13 years ld.
He plays the guitar in the schl band. He als likes writing magic stries. He wants t
make friends and share the jy f writing. His favurite festival is the Spring Festival. The
Spring Festival/It stands fr family reunin(s).
He likes drinking tea. Tea is nt nly gd fr ur health, but als a key part f many
cultures. He and his family ften chat and relax in the yard with (drinking/having) black tea.
（一）说明：
1.本题满分20分，按五个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整分数档次，最后给分。
3.书写清晰、工整、规范，在原得分基础上加2分（最高得分为20分）；书写较差，以致影响交际，则在原得分中减去2分（最低得分仍为0分）。标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
4.短文单词少于要求者，酌情扣分；多于要求者，只要不是太多，且符合题意，不扣分。
（二）各档次给分范围和要求：
第五档（17—20分）：能写出试题所要求的全部或绝大部分内容；语言错误少，行文连贯，表达清楚。
第四档（13—16分）：能写出试题所要求的大部分内容；语言有一些错误，行文较连贯，表达较清楚。
第三档（9—12分）：能写出试题所要求的大部分内容；语言错误较多，行文不够连贯，表达不够清楚。
第二档（5—8分）：只能写出试题所要求的少部分内容；语言错误多，行文不连贯，表达不清楚。
第一档（0—4分）：只能写出与试题所要求内容有关的个别句子或单词；语言错误很多，达不到交际目的。