安徽省安庆市桐城市2025-2026学年七年级上学期期末 英语试题

这是一份安徽省安庆市桐城市2025-2026学年七年级上学期期末 英语试题，共10页。
1. 本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分 120 分,考试时间为 120 分钟。
2. 请务必在"答题卷"或"答题卡"上答题,在"试题卷"上答题无效。
3. 考试结束后,请将"试题卷"和"答题卷"或"答题卡"一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分 20 分)
Ⅰ. 短对话理解(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What des the by usually d at 7:30?
2. What will the girl buy fr her sister?
3. Where will the by g?
A. The sprts field.B. The music hall.C. The art building.
4. Wh likes bilgy best?
A. Jimmy.B. The girl.C. The by.
5. What time des the by usually g t bed?
A. At 8:30.B. At 9:00.C. At 9:30.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第 6、7 小题。
6. What des the girl like best?
A. It's bilgy.B. It's science.C. It's maths.
7. Why des the by like gegraphy?
A. Because it's interesting.
B. Because it's useful.
C. Because it's imprtant.
听下面一段对话,回答第 8 至 10 小题。
8. What class will they have?
A. The histry class.B. The music class.C. The PE class.
9. Wh des the by usually play tennis with?
A. His friend.B. His classmate.C. His cusin.
10. What time will they play tennis this afternn?
A. At 4:00.B. At 4:30.C. At 5:30.
Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What day is it tday?
A. It's Mnday.B. It's Wednesday.C. It's Friday.
12. What club is Peter in?
A. The music club.B. The sprts club.C. The histry club.
13. Where is Dave nw?
A. In the music hall.
B. On the sprts field.
C. In the art building.
14. Wh is Allen?
A. He's Dave's brther.
B. He's Dave's cusin.
C. He's Dave's classmate.
15. What d Jane and Kathy think f painting?
A. It's interesting.B. It's difficult.C. It's exciting.
Ⅳ. 信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 英语知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
Ⅴ. 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. Flra is interested in , because she wants t learn a lt frm the past.
A. mathsB. musicC. ITD. histry
22. Kate has a nice blue hat, and I have a white . I like mine.
A. itB. neC. thisD. that
23. — Why d yu want t jin the art club?
— Because I can't well.
A. paintB. danceC. singD. write
24. — Yu mean this bk is ?
— Yes. I can learn a lt frm it and it can help us in ur life as well.
A. difficultB. interestingC. meaningfulD. bring
25. — Where is my bicycle? I can't find it and I'll use it.
— Let's g t yur brther fr it. He finds it in the garden.
A. evenB. neverC. alreadyD. t
26. As students, we must make gd use ______ ur time.
A. frB. fC. abutD. with
27. The New Year party is very sn, s we need t ______ it nw.
A. prepare frB. lk atC. listen tD. wait fr
28. — ______ yu play the pian?
— Srry. I want t learn it frm yu. I knw yu're gd at it.
A. DB. WillC. MayD. Can
29. — ______ is yur new jacket? It lks s nice.
— It's 50 yuan. My mther buys it fr me.
A. Hw manyB. Hw muchC. Hw ldD. Hw lng
30. — Where will yu g this weekend?
— ______. My father is thinking abut it.
A. That's rightB. I'd lve tC. Yu're welcmeD. I have n idea
VI. 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
This is a pht f Jimmy's family. The tw in the middle are his 31 . They are his father's parents and 32 n the farm happily. Every year, Jimmy can eat the apples frm their farm. They're very 33 , and Jimmy likes them a lt.
On grandparents' left is Jimmy's father and his mther is n their 34 . His father is a 35 and wrks in a science ffice. Jimmy 36 likes science because f his father. His mther is a dctr (医生) in a hspital (医院). They are usually very 37 and feel tired (劳累), s Jimmy ften helps them d the husewrk at hme.
The by and the girl in frnt f them are Jimmy and 38 sister, Linda. They are in the same schl, 39 in different classes. On weekends, they usually g t the 40 and play with grandparents' animals there. They like there very much and have a gd time.
31.A. teachersB. cusinsC. classmatesD. grandparents
32.A. liveB. fallC. raiseD. brush
33.A. tidyB. niceC. rightD. early
34.A. frntB. backC. newD. left
35.A. teacherB. reprterC. scientistD. writer
36.A. nlyB. alsC. ftenD. even
37.A. funnyB. easyC. sameD. busy
38.A. hisB. herC. myD. their
39.A. andB. butC. rD. s
40.A. lakeB. farmC. parkD. garden
B
May is a middle schl student. She likes writing. She has a 41 at hme, s she ften writes smething nline (网上). Here is ne f her 42 with her classrm phts nline.
This is my classrm and I 43 in the secnd rw (排). There is a bk crner in my classrm. Between the classes, we like 44 there. Fr me, I like 45 stries best. They can
make me laugh happily and then I feel relaxed (放松).
There is a large cmputer 46 in the frnt f the classrm. Our teachers use it t have classes. That 47 they dn't need t use chalk (粉笔) like the past. On the frnt wall, there is als a map f China and a red natinal flag. On Mnday mrning, we usually lk at the 48 and sing ur natinal sng. At that time, we all 49 very prud (自豪).
At the back f the classrm, there is a large blackbard n the wall. Students can draw r 50 sme f their pictures n it. It's their happy "hme".
41.A. guitarB. chairC. cmputerD. blackbard
42.A. pagesB. bksC. visitsD. clcks
43.A. lkB. sitC. hearD. wrk
44.A. singingB. readingC. dancingD. playing
45.A. easyB. bringC. fineD. funny
46.A. screenB. pictureC. rmD. place
47.A. sundsB. lksC. startsD. means
48.A. mapB. filmC. flagD. way
49.A. keepB. makeC. meanD. feel
50.A. put upB. jin inC. wrk utD. talk abut
Ⅶ. 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hell, Peter! 51
B: I want t visit my uncle n the farm.
A: Why?
B: I like the animals n his farm. 52
A: Why d yu like them best?
B: 53 I really like playing with them.
A: 54
B: Furteen.
A: What abut keeping ne in yur hme?
B: 55 I'll d it this weekend. Thanks fr yur idea.
A: Yu're welcme.
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
Ⅷ. 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
Here is smething abut three children's favurite subjects at schl.
56. When des Ella have an IT class?
A. On Tuesday.B. On Wednesday.C. On Thursday.D. On Friday.
57. Where des Helen usually g n weekends?
A. T the farm.B. T the library.C. At hme.D. T the park.
58. What can we learn frm the material?
A. Ella wants t be a scientist in the future.
B. Mr. Lee is Mike's IT teacher.
C. Helen has five PE classes in a week.
D. Mike likes Tuesday and Thursday a lt.
B
Tm makes a pen friend frm China. His name is Teng Fei and his English name is Ken. They ften write t each ther. In their emails, they ften tell smething funny t each ther.
Tm has a brther, a sister and tw cusins. They are in the same schl. When they aren't busy, they like t play sprts. He writes t tell Teng Fei all abut these. He really welcmes Teng Fei t England and has fun with him. Smetimes, he als tells Teng Fei abut his hbby. He likes hiking when he has time, s he ften ges t the nature with his family.
Teng Fei ften tells his schl life t Tm. At schl, he likes music best and ften plays the Erhu in the schl music hall. Nw he can play it very well. Every year, he usually plays it n his brther's birthday party. Everyne likes his Erhu music.
Teng Fei asks Tm t cme t China next year. In the email, he says China is a great cuntry and Tm can have a great time in China. Tm can't wait t g.
59. Where is Tm frm?
A. He's frm America.B. He's frm England.
C. He's frm Singapre.D. He's frm China.
60. What's Tm's hbby?
A. Hiking.B. Swimming.C. Writing.D. Reading.
61. What des Teng Fei usually d n his brther's birthday party?
A. Sing sngs.B. Play the Erhu.C. Tell stries.D. Dance.
C
It's nine n Saturday mrning and Peter is in the shp. His mther wants t buy smething fr his sister, Alice's birthday. It's n Sunday and they will celebrate her birthday in the evening.
Mther buys sme fd fr the dinner. In her shpping bag (购物袋), there is sme chicken, beef, fish, juice and milk. They are $78 in ttal. She's gd at cking and she'll ck them fr the party.
Father buys sme fruit in a big bx. There are sme apples and ranges in it. They are Alice's favurite. They are and the candles are $16. Als, he buys a special gift fr Alice. It's a brwn vilin.
Peter buys a yellw scarf (围巾) ($28) fr Alice, because he knws she really wants a scarf all the time. At the same time, she likes yellw best. He will give it t her at the party.
62. When will they celebrate Alice's birthday?
A. On Saturday mrning.B. On Saturday evening.C. On Sunday afternn.D. On Sunday evening.
63. Hw much is mther's fd?
A. It's $25.B. It's $16.C. It's $28.D. It's $78.
64. What des the underlined wrd "fruit" mean in Chinese?
A. 水果B. 肉类C. 蔬菜D. 文具
65. What gift will Peter give t Alice?
A. A dress.B. A scarf.C. A vilin.D. A bk.
D
Tday, a new classmate cmes t David's class, and his name is Baker. In the first class, it's their class meet and Mr. Miller asks him t tell everyne smething abut him.
Baker says, "I'm Baker Brwn and I'm 13 years ld. I have a dg, a rabbit and a guitar at hme. I like basketball very much. If yu're als interested in it, we can have fun playing it after schl. I als like cllecting ld bks and reading them."
Then Mr. Miller says t everyne, "I hpe (希望) yu can be gd friends sn. If needed, I hpe yu can help each ther. Als, yu can be kind t each ther all the time. In class, yu are classmates, but yu can be brthers and sisters after class. That's because we're a family. D yu knw me?"
"Yes," all the students answer ludly (大声地) and happily. "And yu are like ur father. We all lve yu, ther teachers and yur classes."
66. What's the first class tday?
A. It's an English class.B. It's a music class.
C. It's a class meet.D. It's a maths class.
67. What des the underlined wrd "it" in Paragraph 2 refer t?
A. The basketball.B. The dg.C. The rabbit.D. The guitar.
68. What's the main idea f the third paragraph?
A. Classmates are friends.B. Teachers are like parents.
C. Class is like a family.D. Classes are very imprtant.
E
Mr. Black is Jeff's dad and he is als Jeff's histry teacher at schl. Jeff likes histry very much, but his favurite is the art class. He thinks it's imprtant t him, because he wants t draw beautiful things fr everyne, especially (尤其) the ld peple. Fr this, he likes his art teacher Ms. Green very much. Jeff is very gd at drawing fish, s he ften ges t the lake and draws them.
It's Jeff's histry class nw. Mr. Black is telling smething abut sme famus artists (画家) in the histry. After a while, Jeff puts his head dwn and reads the histry bk. Mr. Black finds this and asks him t lk up. "If yu want t learn mre, yu can't let yur heart (心) ut f class nw."
"My mistake, Dad," Jeff says. "Yur class is s interesting. I think I will learn a lt frm it. After class, I want t learn mre frm yu."
Then Mr. Black cntinues (连续) his class and shws sme funny histrical pictures. Jeff feels it's a different class, because it's nt nly a histry class, but als like an art class.
69. What des Jeff think f art?
A. It's imprtant.B. It's interesting.C. It's difficult.D. It's special.
70. Why des Mr. Black ask Jeff t lk up?
A. Because Jeff wants t paint pictures.
B. Because Jeff desn't like his class.
C. Because Jeff desn't listen t class.
D. Because Jeff wants t prepare fr anther class.
71. What's Jeff's family name accrding t the passage?
A. It's Green.B. It's Black.C. It's Miller.D. It's Smith.
72. What's the best title fr the passage?
A. A Father's ClassB. A Different Class
C. A Special HbbyD. A By's Imprtant Class
第二节 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
F
It's a quarter t six nw. Cindy and her gd friend are in the schl music club. Cindy can play the pian very well, but Jenny can't play it. Cindy will help her with it in the club. Hwever (然而), Jenny can sing very well. She always sings sme sngs at her brther's birthday party every year.
In the club, they meet Jenny's classmate Mark. He can play the drums very well. He is als gd at playing chess very well, s he is als a member f the chess club. Tday, he will practise (练习) drums fr the cming schl Music Festival (节日). It'll be n the afternn f February 15. Fr it, Cindy will play the pian. She is very gd at it and she is playing the pian in the fifth rm f the schl music hall.
Jenny is practising singing in the third rm f the schl music hall. She will chse tw special and great sngs fr the festival. Her parents believe (相信) she can d well and they will als see her at the festival.
73. What des Jenny d n her brther's birthday every year? (不超过5个词)
___________________________________________________________________
74、When is the schl Music Festival?(不超过10个词)
75、Where is Jenny nw?（不超过15个词）
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
IX、单词拼写（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. There are sme different kinds f fd n this shpping l______(清单).
77. Our last class always f______(结束) at half past five every day.
78. Peter is late, and he is talking abut the r______(原因) t the teacher.
79. Lucy's parents ften s______(邮寄) sme fd t her grandparents.
80. When it's getting d______(黑暗), the ducks start ging back t their hme.
X、书面表达（共1小题，每小题20分，共20分）
假如你是李辉，你的英国好友 Paul 想了解你的周末生活，请根据要点提示，给他写封电子邮件。要点如下：
要求：1. 短文中要包含表格中所有提示信息；
2. 内容可适当发挥，以保证内容的完整、丰富与流畅；
3. 词数：70左右。开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Paul,
I'm very happy t tell yu smething abut my weekend life. Here is sme f it.
That's all. I usually have a nice day!
Yurs,
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
Ⅰ. 1~5 ACBBC
Ⅱ. 6~10 CBAAC
Ⅲ. 11~15 CABAA
Ⅳ. 16. 8:15 17. Chinese 18. key 19. drama 20. greets
评分标准:1—20题每小题1分。(16—20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情扣分。)
第二部分 英语知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
Ⅴ. 21~25 DBACC 26~30 BADBD
评分标准:21—30题每小题1分。
Ⅵ. 31~35 DABCC 36~40 BDABB 41~45 CABBD 46~50 ADCDA
评分标准:31—50题每小题1分。
Ⅶ. 51~55 EBCGA
评分标准:51—55题每小题1分。
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
Ⅷ. 56~58 BDD 59~61 BAB 62~65 DDAB 66~68 CAC 69~72 ACBB
73. She always sings sme sngs.
74. On the afternn f February 15.
75. She's in the third rm f the schl music hall.
评分标准:56—75题每小题2分。(73—75题答对要点即可酌情给分。)
第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
Ⅸ. 76. list 77. finishes 78. reasn 79. send 80. dark
评分标准:76—80题每小题1分。
Ⅹ. 【范文】One pssible versin:
Dear Paul,
I'm very happy t tell yu smething abut my weekend life. Here is sme f it.
I usually get up at eight n weekends, and then brush my teeth. After that, I have sme eggs and milk fr breakfast. In the mrning, I usually play sprts with my classmates in the park. Smetimes I play musical instruments in the schl club. At abut 11:30, I have sme chicken, fish r beef fr lunch. In the afternn, I usually have fun with my cusins n the farm. There we play with animals and enjy beautiful flwers. Smetimes, I stay at hme and read my favurite bks. I usually have dinner at six and g t see a film with my family r my friend at 7:30.
That's all. I usually have a nice day!
一、评分原则:
1. 本题总分20分,分五个档次给分。
2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次,然后以档次的要求来衡量,结合
内容和语言表达,综合给定分数。
3. 考生可根据要点适当发挥,加入自己的观点。
4. 词数少于40个单词,在总分当中扣除一分。
5. 拼写错误多以及书写差影响表达,在所确定档次内扣除一分。
二、各档次的划分以及给分要求：
Sally's Schl Day
Classes
The first class starts at 16 am.
3 classes in the mrning and 2 classes in the afternn.
Favurite
She likes 17 best. It's 18 t her. She needs t use it in the future.
Club
She jins the 19 club. She has new friends and 20 them every afternn.
I'm Ella and I like IT best at schl. Fr this, I like Wednesday afternn best, because there is an IT class. I think it's really useful and can help everyne a lt. I want t find a jb abut IT in the future. In IT class, Mr. Lee ften makes it very funny and we all like him and his classes.
My name is Helen and my favurite subject is PE. In PE class, I can play ping - png, because it's my favurite sprt. Als, I have ne PE class frm Tuesday t Friday. I usually play ping - png with my best friend Jane in the park n weekends. We bth think it's exciting.
I'm Mike frm England. I'm very interested in bilgy at schl. That's because I can knw abut many different animals frm it. I have tw bilgy classes and they are n Tuesday and Thursday. On weekends, I like t g t the z t see animals with my cusin Sam.
8:00
Get up, have breakfast
2:00
Have fun n the farm r read
9:00
Play sprts r play musical instruments
6:00
Have dinner
11:30
Have lunch
7:30
G t a film
第五档(很好)：
(20~17分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务,涵盖了所有的内容要点,或在发挥时内容有新意有亮点,语言基本无错误,行文连贯,表达清楚。
第四档(好)：
(16~13分)
完成了试题规定的任务,涵盖了基本的内容要点,语言有少量错误,行文基本连贯,表达基本清楚。
第三档(一般)：
(12~9分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务,写出了一些内容,语言有一些错误,行文不够连贯。
第二档(较差)：
(8~5分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务,只能写出个别观点,语言错误较多,未能清楚表达信息。
第一档(差)：
(4~0分)
未能完成试题规定的任务,只能写出有关内容的一些单词,语法错误很多,未能清楚表达信息。