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      2025-2026学年安徽省淮南市高新技术开发区八年级上学期期末英语试卷 (学生版)

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      2025-2026学年安徽省淮南市高新技术开发区八年级上学期期末英语试卷 (学生版)

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      这是一份2025-2026学年安徽省淮南市高新技术开发区八年级上学期期末英语试卷 (学生版),共10页。
      满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
      第一部分 听力 (共四大题,满分20分)
      Ⅰ. 短对话理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
      1. Hw did Tm g t wrk?
      A. B. C.
      2. What des David d t help with husewrk?
      A. B. C.
      3. Whse hair is the lngest?
      A. Jane’s.B. Linda’s.C. Helen’s.
      4. Which animal des the man like best?
      A. Elephants.B. Pandas.C. Mnkeys.
      5. What kind f fd did Danny try during the trip?
      A. Chinese fd.B. Indian fd.C. Russian fd.
      Ⅱ. 长对话理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
      听下面一段对话,回答小题。
      6. What is Sam’s New Year’s reslutin?
      A. Learn t play the guitar.
      B. Learn t play the vilin.
      C. Learn t play the pian.
      7. What des Sam want t be when he grws up?
      A. A dentist.B. A pianist.C. A scientist.
      听下面一段对话,回答小题。
      8. What is Jack ding nw?
      A. He is writing an article.
      B. He is reading a bk abut life in the future.
      C. He is writing an e-mail.
      9. Hw ld des Jack think peple will live t be in the future?
      A. Abut 100 years ld.
      B. Abut 150 years ld.
      C. Abut 200 years ld.
      10. Wh thinks everything will be free in 100 years?
      A. Jack.B. Mary.C. Bth f them.
      Ⅲ. 短文理解 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
      11. Where will the dance grup g sn?
      A. T Lndn.B. T Bstn.C. T Mscw.
      12. When will the dance grup prbably leave?
      A. In February.B. In March.C. In April.
      13. Hw much mney will g t a children’s hspital if yu buy a ticket?
      A. $100.B. $150.C. $200.
      14. What des the Dream Hall have?
      A. The biggest screen.
      B. The best service.
      C. The mst cmfrtable seats.
      15. What’s the best way t get t the Dream Hall?
      A. By bus.B. By taxi.C. By subway.
      Ⅳ. 信息转换 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
      第二部分 英语知识运用 (共三大题,满分35分)
      V. 单项填空 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
      从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
      21. —Dn’t ask Miss Brwn abut her age. It’s t ________.
      —Srry, I wn’t next time.
      A. imprtantB. interestingC. creativeD. persnal
      22. Our teacher ften tells us t think ________ befre psting smething nline. That’s gd fr us.
      A. carelesslyB. carefullyC. cnfidentlyD. badly
      23. —My favrite singer had a ________ last weekend. But I was t busy t listen t the sngs f it.
      —What a pity (遗憾)!
      A. examB. cncertC. experienceD. sitcm
      24. —I wnder hw lng it will take me t get ut f failure.
      —Never mind. Time can ________ all.
      A. cureB. achieveC. stickD. cnnect
      25. —Let’s g t the sprts centre this Saturday, Dale.
      —I’m afraid we can’t. It is pen every day ________ Saturdays.
      A. nB. frmC. duringD. except
      26. —The temperature in Singapre is almst the same all year rund.
      —Exactly. S we can g there ________ we are free.
      A. whereverB. whenever
      C. wheverD. whatever
      27. —Hme is ________ place wherever yu g.
      —I can’t agree mre. East r west, hme is the best.
      A. warmerB. the warmer
      C. warmestD. the warmest
      28. —D yu knw when Amy will arrive in Nanchang?
      —Srry, I dn’t knw. If she _________, I will give yu a call.
      A. will arriveB. is arrivingC. arrivedD. arrives
      29. The teachers warn us ________ attentin t ur ________ while crssing the rads.
      A. paying; safeB. pay; safely
      C. t pay; safeD. t pay; safety
      30. —I’m afraid the air pllutin will be wrse in 100 years.
      —________. I think the envirnment will becme mre and mre beautiful.
      A. I hpe sB. I’m afraid s
      C. I dn’t think sD. I agree with yu
      Ⅵ. 完形填空 (共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
      阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
      A
      One day, a grup f bys were kicking (踢) a ball tgether. One f them gave the ____31____ a gd hard kick. It flew up high in the air and just int a tree hle. All the bys ran ver t the hle t get the ball ut. They tried different ways, ____32____ they culdn’t even tuch the ball. They were very ____33____ .
      Then a by said, “Let’s cut dwn the tree.”
      Sme bys ____34____ and decided t cut dwn the tree at nce.
      “Wait,” Wen Yanb said. “I have a better ____35____. Let’s g hme and fill all the buckets (桶) at ur huses with water. Cme back with the full buckets as ____36____ as we can!”
      Hearing this, all the bys ____37____ hme. Sn they came back with buckets f water. Wen Yanb asked them t ____38____ the water int the hle. Sn the hle was full f water, and the ball came right up t the tp! The bys were very ____39____ t get the ball back.
      Wen Yanb was s smart when he was just a child. S it’s nt surprising that he ____40____ t becme a great persn.
      31. A. waterB. ballC. treeD. huse
      32. A. butB. sC. thughD. until
      33. A. clB. funnyC. luckyD. sad
      34. A. mindedB. agreedC. frgtD. wn
      35. A. tripB. giftC. ideaD. future
      36. A. quietlyB. quicklyC. easilyD. happily
      37. A. calledB. mvedC. ranD. left
      38. A. purB. useC. sendD. drink
      39. A. richB. gladC. bredD. tired
      40. A. gt upB. put upC. went upD. grew up
      B
      It’s imprtant t have a gd relatinship (关系) with neighbrs (邻居). Neighbrs can help each ther ___41___ kids, pets and thers. If yu mve t a new place and dn’t knw the peple arund yu, what shuld yu d? Here are sme ways t start a gd relatinship with yur new ___42___.
      Bring snacks n yur first ___43___. T shw them that yu’re friendly, take sme fruit r snacks ___44___ yu visit yur neighbrs fr the first time.
      Be a party animal. If yur neighbrs have parties, ___45___ them. The mre parties yu g t, the mre peple yu meet. The mre peple yu knw, the mre ___46___ yu make with thers.
      Keep yur prmise (承诺). If yu make a prmise, keep it. Fr example, if yu brrw smething frm yur neighbrs, be ___47___ with it. Dn’t break it. Als, dn’t keep it fr t lng. After yu use it, ___48___ it in time. Trust (信任) can make a strng relatinship.
      Give a helping hand. If yur neighbrs have prblems, tell them ___49___ yu can d t help. Fr example, yu can help t walk the dg, water flwers, r bring packages (快递) t ____50____. If yu lend a hand like this, yur neighbrs will be happy and thankful.
      41. A. hang up B. lk after C. clean up D. take ut
      42. A. classmates B. friends C. parents D. neighbrs
      43. A. pleasure B. jurney C. hunt D. visit
      44. A. when B. until C. befre D. after
      45. A. attend B. guide C. welcme D. srt
      46. A. accidents B. mistakes C. cnnectins D. differences
      47. A. familiar B. ppular C. careful D. serius
      48. A. return B. cmpare C. frget D. tuch
      49. A. hw B. what C. when D. why
      50. A. us B. them C. him D. yu
      Ⅶ. 补全对话 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
      根据对话内容,从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
      A: What day is it tday?
      B: ____51____
      A: Oh, tmrrw is ur father’s birthday.
      B: Yes. ____52____
      A: Let’s make a birthday dinner fr him. He must be happy.
      B: Gd idea. ____53____
      A: Fish, vegetables and rice.
      B: That’s easy. ____54____
      A: Great. Let’s g t the supermarket first.
      B: ____55____ I’m gd at making fruit salad. It’s delicius and healthy.
      A: I like it, t.
      A. It’s May 20th.
      B. Where d we celebrate his birthday?
      C. I can ck.
      D. Can I help yu g shpping?
      E. What can we d fr him?
      F. I think we can als buy sme fruit.
      G. What fd des father like?
      第三部分 阅读 (共两节,满分40分)
      Ⅷ. 阅读理解 (共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
      第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
      A
      56. When will Jhn g t Paul’s cttage?
      A. Next spring.B. Next summer.
      C. Next autumn.D. Next winter.
      57. Hw lng will Mary and Mike stay at Paul’s cttage?
      A. Fr ne week.B. Fr tw weeks.
      C. Fr three weeks.D. Fr ne mnth.
      58. What can we learn frm the tw letters?
      A. Paul’s cttage is in Crete.
      B. Paul will spend his hliday in Crfu.
      C. Mike takes an interest in ding water sprts.
      D. Mike and Mary are gd at taking phts.
      B
      Welcme t life in 2045! Yu get up in the mrning and lk int the mirrr. Yu lk nly 20 years ld. Because scientists find gd ways t keep peple yung and healthy— many peple f yur age culd live t be 120. Lk, at 60, yu are nt ld at all.
      When yu get dressed, yu say t yur shirt, “Turn red.” It becmes red. In 2045, “smart” clthes carry small cmputer-like things. Yu can use them t pick ut the clrs f yur clthes.
      On the way t the kitchen, yu want t call a friend. Yur phne is by the windw because it gets its energy frm the sun. But yu dn’t need t pick up the phne. Yu can just tuch yur jacket t make the call.
      It’s breakfast time. Yu reach fr the milk, but yur fridge says, “Dn’t drink that!” It knws the milk is ld, and tells the supermarket t send yu a new bttle. Ten minutes later, a drne (无人机) sends it t yu.
      When yu leave fr wrk, lights turn ff by themselves. Yur hme ges int “sleep” t save energy. In 2045, there will be driverless cars arund the wrld. S yu just tell yur driverless car where t g.
      Will all this cme true? Maybe the future is much clser than we think.
      59. Hw will yu make a call in 2045 in this passage?
      A. Yu need t pick up the phne.
      B. Yu can tuch yur jacket t make the call.
      C. Yu need t buy a cmputer.
      D. Yu need t stay in the kitchen.
      60. What des the underlined wrd “It” refer t (指代) in Paragraph 4?
      A. The milk.B. The fridge.
      C. The drne.D. The supermarket.
      61. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut the life in 2045?
      A. Things at hme are much smarter.
      B. Peple need t drive cars by themselves.
      C. Peple dn’t need t drink anything.
      D. Phnes dn’t use any energy.
      C
      Tday, we have sme facts abut animals that yu may nt knw.
      If yu think that the nisiest land animal wuld be smething like an elephant r even a lin, yu are wrng. It is a mnkey. The hwler mnkey (吼猴) is the nisiest land animal. Yu can hear its cries ver tw miles away.
      We knw that a man usually needs abut eight hurs’ sleep at night. Well, guess hw much sleep an elephant needs? An elephant nly sleeps abut tw hurs a day.
      D yu knw a famus mvie called The Lin King? The Little Lin, Simba, rars (吼叫) in the mvie. Well, in fact, a lin cannt rar befre it is tw years ld.
      Yu may think all zebras (斑马) lk the same because f their lks, but n tw zebras have the same stripes. The shapes are similar but different.
      S hw d yu tell the difference between a tad and a frg? Well, ne way is that a frg can jump, but a tad can’t.
      And anther interesting thing is that elephants are ne f the few mammals (哺乳动物) in the wrld that can’t jump.
      62. What des Paragraph 2 mainly tell us?
      A. What the nisiest land animal is.B. When an elephant r a lin cries.
      C. Where the heaviest land animal is.D. Hw hwler mnkeys jump away.
      63. The underlined wrd "stripes" in Paragraph 5 prbably means “________”.
      A. sizesB. linesC. habitsD. clrs
      64. What can we learn frm the passage?
      A. Simba sleeps tw hurs a day.B. A ne-year-ld lin can rar.
      C. Tads can't jump but frgs can.D. Elephants are the nly mammals.
      65. What is the best title fr the passage?
      A. Animals yu may nt knw.B. Interesting facts abut animals.
      C. Strange living habits f animals.D. The funniest animals in the wrld.
      D
      The Mga Caves (莫高窟) lie in Gansu Prvince, alng the ancient Silk Rad. They are a great treasure (珍品) f Chinese art and ne f the mst imprtant cultural sites in the wrld. It tk peple many centuries t build these caves, frm the 4th century (世纪) t the 14th century.
      Inside the caves, there are thusands f beautiful Buddhist wall paintings and statues (雕塑). Sme statues are huge, reaching up t 35 meters in height—as tall as a building, while thers are quite small, nly abut the size f a finger. Every painting and statue tells its wn stry.
      Besides the art, the caves als cntain many imprtant ancient bks and papers. These writings help us understand the histry, culture and daily life f peple frm lng ag. They shw hw different cultures met and mixed (融合) alng the Silk Rad.
      Every year, thusands f visitrs frm arund the wrld cme t the Mga Caves. They cme t visit the amazing art, discver ancient stries, and feel the lasting spirit f Chinese civilizatin (文明). It is a wnderful place t explre and learn.
      66. Accrding t the text, hw lng did it take t build the Mga Caves?
      A. Abut 100 years.B. Abut fur centuries.
      C. Abut ten centuries.D. Over 2,000 years.
      67. What can we infer (推断) abut the statues in the Mga Caves?
      A. They are all the same size.
      B. They are well kept fr centuries.
      C. They were all made at the same time.
      D. They shw ancient peple’s great art skills.
      68. What is the main idea f the last paragraph?
      A. The Mga Caves are alng the Silk Rad.
      B. The Mga Caves draw visitrs frm all ver the wrld.
      C. There are many ancient stries behind the Mga Caves.
      D. The Mga Caves are a place with beautiful natural landscapes.
      E
      Over the past fifty years, my hmetwn has changed a lt. In the past, there were nly muddy rads and very few cars. Peple mstly walked r rde bicycles t get arund. Nw the rads are much wider and far busier than befre, filled with cars, buses, and mtrcycles day and night.
      The buildings have als changed. Fifty years ag, mst buildings were shrt, simple, and made f brick r wd. Tday, they are much taller and mre mdern, with glass and steel structures everywhere.
      The envirnment (环境) has changed t. The air was fresher and cleaner befre, but nw it is mre plluted because f the grwing number f factries and cars. Hwever, peple are trying t plant mre trees and build parks t make the city greener and healthier.
      There are als mre fun and cnvenient places nw. We have a huge new shpping mall which is larger, brighter, and mre exciting than the ld market. Yung peple think life is mre interesting and cnvenient nw because there are mre activities and things t d. But sme ld peple still remember the past and say life was simpler, quieter, and mre peaceful back then.
      69. Hw did peple mainly travel in the past?
      A. By car and bus.B. By mtrcycle.
      C. On ft r by bicycle.D. By train.
      70. Why d sme ld peple prefer life in the past?
      A. Because there were mre shpping malls.
      B. Because the air was cleaner and life was quieter.
      C. Because there were mre factries and cars.
      D. Because buildings were taller and mre mdern.
      71. What are peple ding t imprve the envirnment nw?
      A. Building mre factries.B. Making rads wider.
      C. Planting mre trees and building parks.D. Driving mre cars.
      72. What is the main idea f this passage?
      A. The hmetwn has nt changed at all.
      B. The changes have nly brught prblems.
      C. The hmetwn has changed with bth gd and bad sides.
      D. Only yung peple like the changes.
      F
      阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题 (请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
      The pitcher plant (捕蝇草) is ne f the mst amazing plants in the wrld. It is a different kind f plant because it eats meat— mstly insects!
      This plant is nt nly amazing but als very clever. Its leaves are in the shape f a pitcher, a deep cup with a cver. It has a sweet smell that attracts (吸引) insects. When an insect cmes clse, it slips (滑) int the pitcher and falls int a special liquid (液体) inside. The plant then uses this liquid t get the fd frm the insect.
      Pitcher plants are imprtant in their ecsystem (生态系统). They help t cntrl the number f insects. Hwever, in sme places, they are in danger because peple are taking ver their living places. This is the prblem they are facing nw.
      Scientists are wrking t prtect these interesting plants nw. We must understand that every plant, even the nes that seem a little strange, plays a rle in nature. Learning abut them helps us see hw cnnected life really is.
      73. Hw des the pitcher plant attract insects? (不超过 10个词)
      ________________________________________
      74. What is the prblem that pitcher plants face? (不超过 10个词)
      ________________________________________
      75. What d yu think f the pitcher plants? (不超过15个词)
      ________________________________________
      第四部分 写 (共两大题,满分25分)
      IX. 单词拼写 (共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
      根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
      76. I think friends need t t__________ (相信) each ther when they have a hard time.
      77. The first Chinese w_________ (获胜者) at the Olympics is Xu Haifeng frm Anhui.
      78. A s______ (简单的) “thank yu” and a smile are all he wants.
      79. They are p________ (计划) t start a new club at their junir high schl.
      80. Yu shuld s________ (认真地) cnsider this jb ffer.
      X. 书面表达 (共1小题,每小题20分,共20分)
      81. 每个人都会畅想自己未来的生活。假设你是李华,你将来的理想生活是怎样的?最近你校将开展“My future life”的主题演讲。请以“My life in the future”为题,根据以下提示,用英语写一篇演讲稿。
      提示:
      1. Yur future jb and the reasns;
      2. The place yu will live;
      3. The activities yu will d in the future;
      4. ...
      要求:
      1. 语意通顺,逻辑清晰,可适当发挥;
      2. 词数80左右。
      My life in the future
      Hi, everyne! I’m Li Hua. I’d like t share my future life with yu.
      ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Cmmunicatin
      Imprtance
      We can share ur ____16____ and understand thers better.
      We can get useful ____17____ .
      ____18____
      Listen carefully r yu may nt knw what t say next.
      Think befre speaking. ____19____ the wrng things can hurt a persn.
      Ntice the ____20____ language during a talk.
      Dear Paul,
      Thanks fr yur invitatin t yur cttage (小别墅). I wish I culd cme but I have my hliday plans. I’m spending a week in Crfu in my cusin’s huse nw. Then I’m ging t travel t Crete. I will spend my hliday n the island (岛) . I prmise that I will visit yu next summer.
      Lve,
      Jhn
      Dear Paul,
      Thank yu fr yur invitatin. We wuld like t tell yu that we accept it. We haven’t made any plans fr ur hliday yet. S spending tw weeks in yur cttage in Kefalnia wuld be wnderful. There are s many interesting things we can d tgether. Mike is very interested in water sprts. Als we may find time t explre the cave (山洞) we fund tw years ag and take sme pictures f the island. I’m lking frward t seeing yu in July.
      Lve,
      Mary and Mike

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