河南平顶山市郏县2025-2026学年上学期期末学情检测七年级英语试卷含答案

这是一份河南平顶山市郏县2025-2026学年上学期期末学情检测七年级英语试卷含答案，共10页。试卷主要包含了 试题卷上不要答题,请用0等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1. 本试卷分试题卷和答题卡两部分,试题卷共6页,六个大题,满分125分(其中试题120分,卷面5分)。
2. 试题卷上不要答题,请用0.5毫米黑色签字水笔直接把答案写在答题卡上。答在试题卷上的答案无效。
3. 答题前,考生务必将本人姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡第一面的指定位置上。
一、听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. Where is the sprts hall?
A. It's in frnt f the dining hall.
B. It's n the left f the dining hall.
C. It's next t the dining hall.
2. What's the by's favrite activity?
A. Play basketball.B. Watch TV.C. Ride a bike.
3. Where d the animals cme frm?
A. America.B. China.C. Canada.
4. Hw is the weather tday?
A. Windy.B. Rainy.C. Sunny.
5. When des the girl have dinner?
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. When des Tina have breakfast?
A. At abut 6:00 a.m.
B. At abut 7:00 a.m.
C. At abut 8:00 a.m.
7. What des she usually d after schl?
A. She plays with her brther.
B. She watches films at hme.
C. She takes her dg fr a walk.
听下面一段独白,回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. What animals are mentined(提到) in the nrtheast f China?
A. Pandas.B. Tigers.C. Mnkeys.
9. What d the plants and animals make ur wrld, accrding t the speaker?
A. Big and wnderful.B. Clurful and healthy.C. Quiet and pretty.
10. What shuld we NOT d t prtect nature?
A. Cut dwn t many trees.
B. Prtect wild animals.
C. Wrk tgether.
听下面一段对话,回答第 11 至第 12 两个小题。
11. Where is Jack frm?
A. Shanghai.B. Henan.C. Shenyang.
12. What des he ften d in winter?
A. Swim.B. Make snwmen.C. Ski.
听下面一段对话,回答第 13 至第 15 三个小题。
13. Hw did Michael g t Beijing?
A. By plane.B. By train.C. By car.
14. What des Michael want t d fr his mther?
A. Buy a cake.B. Buy sme flwers.C. Buy a cat.
15. Where d Michael and Maria want t g tgether?
A. Michael's hme.B. The supermarket.C. The park
第三节 听短文,完成下面的表格,每空一词。短文读两遍。
二、阅读理解(20 小题,每小题 2 分,共 40 分)
阅读下面四篇阅读语言材料,然后按文后要求做题。
A
Let's learn sme news abut schls arund the wrld!
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21. The ppular club at Wenchang Middle Schl is abut ______.
A. weather.B. sprts.C. science.D. dance.
22. Why did schls in Hng Kng clse n September 23, 2025?
A. Because f a new gvernment rule.
B. Because their parents were n hliday.
C. Because f heavy rain and strng winds.
D. Because students didn't want t g t schl.
23. What is special abut the new hme f the Clegi del Cuerp dance schl?
A. It is lcated inside an airprt.
B. It is in a frest and partly built frm ld trees.
C. It has a satellite cntrl center.
D. It was built fr students wh are ut f schl.
24. What shuld the parents d accrding t the new rule in Suth Africa?
A. They shuld send their children t schl.
B. They shuld help their children with hmewrk
C. They shuld let their children d husewrk.
D. They shuld take their children hme frm schl.
25. Which f the fllwing is NOT true?
A. Many students in Wenchang Middle Schl like the aerspace club.
B. The bad weather in Hng Kng affected(影响) many travel services.
C. The Clegi del Cuerp dance schl is nly made frm new trees.
D. The new rule in Suth Africa encurages students t g t schl.
B
Hw d yu knw abut the weather in this week? Is it rainy, cludy, windy, D yu knw it by listening t the radi, by using the Internet r by watching TV? We can knw it by watching sme animals, t. Animals can knw the change f the weather easily and d smething t prepare fr the bad weather
Bees can "talk" t thers by dancing and a lt f bees can live very well with each ther, s it is easy fr them t knw the change f the weather in a shrt time. But d yu knw why bees dn't g ut n rainy days? Because they may get hurt in the rain. S nw yu may knw this saying well, "If bees fly away, fine will be the day."
We can als knw the cming up f the rain by ther animals. It's really interesting, isn't it? Learn mre and knw mre frm nw n.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. What is the main idea f the passage?
A. Bees are the smartest animals in the wrld.
B. There are many ways fr peple t knw the weather.
C. Animals are better at predicting weather than machines.
D. Watching animals is the best way t knw the weather.
27. Hw can bees tell each ther the weather change?
A. By flying arund.B. By making a nise.
C. By dancing.D. By singing.
28. Why dn't bees g ut n rainy days accrding t the passage
A. Because they are t lazy.
B. Because they might get hurt.
C. Because they can't fly in the rain.
D. Because they cannt find fd.
29. Frm the text, what can we infer(推断) abut bees befre a sunny day?
A. Bees stay in their hive(蜂房) all day.
B. Bees becme very quiet and still.
C. Bees are seen flying arund actively.
D. Bees start building mre hives.
30. What can we learn frm the passage?
A. We shuld nly use the Internet t check the weather.
B. It is nt interesting t watch animals.
C. Rainy days are dangerus fr all animals
D. Animals can give us clues(线索) abut weather changes.
C
There are many different kinds f jbs fr peple t d in the wrld. Nw there is a special jb. Wh des the special jb? These are nt men but dgs. These dgs are like the eyes f peple. Wh are the special peple? They can't see with their eyes, s we call these dgs "seeing eye dgs"...
Hw lng shuld these dgs usually learn? They need t learn fr tw r three years. And then they live with the special peple. Their jb is t help them walk everywhere. These dgs knw hw t help the special peple walk at the crssing f the streets. Cars and bikes in the streets are dangerus, but these dgs can help the special peple a lt.
Smetimes yu can see these dgs playing with the special peple. Just like ther dgs, these dgs are lvely and smart. Are they dangerus? N, they are kind and friendly. They wrk hard and they can d a lt f things. With the help f these dgs, the special peple's lives becme mre cnvenient. They are the special peple's gd friends and helpers.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31. What are "seeing eye dgs" trained t d?
A. Play with children in parks.
B. Help peple wh cannt see with their eyes.
C. Guard hmes at night.
D. Help ld peple n the street.
32. Hw des the writer start the secnd paragraph?
A. By telling a jke.B. By giving an example.
C. By using an ld saying.D. By asking a questin.
33. What des the underlined wrd "cnvenient" mean in Chinese?
A. 艰难的B. 痛苦的C. 方便的D. 复杂的
34. In the streets, what is ne imprtant thing these dgs help with?
A. Crssing the street safely.B. Buying fd fr their wners.
C. Driving cars fr the wners.D. Carrying heavy bags.
35. Accrding t the passage, what are "seeing eye dgs" like?
A. Dangerus but hard - wrking.B. Kind, friendly and smart.
C. Lazy but very strng.D. Shy and quiet.
D
Playing a sprt well may be difficult at first, but dn't wrry - yu can d it! The fllwing are sme tips fr yu.
36 If yu dn't knw which sprt yu like t play, try a few! The PE class is usually a great chance t try new sprts.
Get the right equipment. 37. Fr example, yu can ask yur parents t buy yu a pair f sccer shes by ding husewrk fr tw mnths fr them.
Practise, practise and practise. Practise playing yur favrite sprt with yur friends as much as yu can. 38. Smetimes yu may get the chance t make new friends when yu play.
Eat healthily. A healthy bdy is very imprtant in playing sprts. Stp eating hamburgers and ice cream. 39. Stp eating high - calrie fds like chclate and cakes. Try t eat sme healthy fds like carrts and apples.
Watch games. Watch games t see hw the players play. 40. The mre games yu watch, the mre yu will knw abut the sprt.
根据材料内容,从下列五个选项中选出能填入空缺处的最佳选项,使文章意思通顺、内容完整。
A. If yu dn't have anyne t play with, then practise by yurself.
B. Find the sprt yu like.
C. Yu can learn a lt frm them.
D. Try t eat a lt f fresh fruit and vegetables.
E. Yu can ask yur parents fr help.
三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
先通读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
China's Natinal Day is a big festival 41 Chinese. It 42 Octber 1st. It's the 43 f the Peple's Republic f China.
On that day, peple all ver the cuntry 44 it. There is a big celebratin at Tian'anmen Square. Chinese peple watch the celebratin n TV. Everyne is happy 45 China is better and better. Peple decrate(装饰) streets with red 46 r put beautiful flwers n the 47 f streets,
Natinal Day is 48 imprtant hliday in China. Peple have a seven - day 49 n Natinal Day. Sme peple g 50 . They can enjy the beauty f 51 . Sme peple g back hmetwn. 52 want t enjy the time with family.
Natinal Day is a time f celebratin. Peple thank their cuntry's great achievements(成就). It is als a day t shw lve t their 53 . Peple talk abut China's 54 . After learning mre frm the histry, they 55 the cuntry mre. Natinal Day means a lt t Chinese.
41.A. withB. nC. frD. f
42.A. lives inB. falls nC. puts nD. takes part in
43.A. birthdayB. dateC. numberD. clr
44.A. celebrateB. helpC. thinkD. like
45.A. sB. butC. rD. because
46.A. flagsB. psterC. dragnsD. maps
47.A. tpB. sidesC. flrD. each
48.A. aB. anC. theD. t
49.A. sprtB. mvieC. classD. hliday
50.A. shppingB. playingC. swimmingD. traveling
51.A. summerB. familyC. natureD. schl
52.A. WeB. TheyC. YuD. I
53.A. familyB. friendsC. teachersD. cuntry
54.A. histryB. gegraphyC. mapD. rivers
55.A. callB. designC. feedD. lve
四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
第一节 阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺,意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
they, need, fr, because, imprtant, grw, when, kind, wild, wet
Tea plants 56 in the suth f China. The 57 tea plants can be 9 meters tall. But wrkers in the tea garden keep the tea plants nly 0.9 t 1.2 meters tall. 58 it is easy fr wrkers t get the leaves frm them at this height(高度)
Tea plants like warm and 59 climate. They grw buds(芽) 60 it is abve 10 ℃. The best temperature(温度) fr 61 t grw is 20℃ - 25 ℃. And enugh(充足的) rain is 62 fr the tea
plants. T much r t little is nt s gd. They 63 enugh light t. A tea plant can live fr a very lng time. Sme can even live ver 100 years. There are six 64 f tea in China. Many Chinese peple like drinking tea. They think it's a gd 65 their health.
第二节 阅读短文,根据语篇要求填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
I live in a place full f natural beauty. There is a big park near my huse. There are many animals and plants in it. In the park, there is a lake. The water in the lake 66 very clear. Lk, many ducks are swimming in the lake, and smetimes peple feed them kindly. There are als many trees and flwers arund the lake. The trees prvide shade(阴凉处) 67 peple t rest under, and children ften play arund them. The flwers blm(绽放) 68 different seasns, attracting butterflies and bees. I ften g t the park t enjy the nature. I lve t sit 69 the lake and watch the ducks. Sme ld peple like take 70 walk with their pets. Smetimes I see vlunteers(志愿者) cleaning the path r planting new flwers. I think nature is a great gift fr us, and we shuld take care f it tgether.
五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
根据下面的对话情景,在每个空白处填上一个恰当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hi, Julia! What are yu ding nw?
B: Hi, Tm. 71 . she is Lulu and she lives in Malaysia(马来西亚).
A:What d yu want t tell her in yur e - mail?
B: I want t talk abut my schl life in China.
A: Oh, where is Malaysia?
B: It's t the suth f China.
A: 72 ?
B: It is usually wet, because it rains a lt there.
A: Is it ht there?
B: Yes, it's ht all year rund.
A: Oh, I like the weather there, because I like summer best. 73 ?
B: I like winter best.
A: Why?
B: 74 .
A: I like winter because the Spring Festival is in winter.
B: What d yu usually d at the Spring Festival?
A: 75 .
B: The Spring Festival is imprtant fr Chinese. Lulu says her family als celebrate it in Malaysia.
六、书面表达(20分)
河南历史悠久、文化底蕴深厚,请你以 My Hmetwn 为题写一篇文章,化身旅游推荐官,向大家推荐河南。
要点:1.介绍你家乡的位置、气候；
2.描述你家乡的特色、旅游景点或者饮食习惯等；
3.表明你对家乡的感情。
要求:1.文中应该包括以上信息,可适当发挥,以使行文连贯,书写规范；
2.文中不得出现涉及考生真实信息的人名、校名等；
3.词数:80词左右。
2025 ~ 2026学年上学期期末学情检测参考答案及评分标准
七年级英语
一、听力(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
1 - 5CABBC 6 - 10BCBBA 11 - 15CCABB
16. Sunday 17. 10 / ten 18. kind 19. never 20. exercise
二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
21 - 25 CCBAC 26 - 30 BCBCD 31 - 35 BDCAB 36 - 40 BEADC
三、完型填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
41 - 45CBAAD 46 - 50ABBDD 51 - 55CBDAD
四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
56. grw 57. wild 58. Because 59. wet 60. when
61. them 62. imprtant 63. need 64. kinds 65. fr
66. is 67. fr 68. in 69. by 70. a
五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
71. I am writing an e - mail t my friend.
...
72. What's the weather like there? / What's the climate like there?
...
73. What's yur favrite seasn? / Which seasn d yu like best?
...
74. Because I can play with snw utdrs with my friends.
...
75. I usually make dumplings with my family.
...
六、书面表达(20分)
My Hmetwn—Henan
Hell! My name is Li Hua. I am frm Henan.
Henan is in Central China. The climate here is clear. We have fur seasns. Summer is ht and winter is cld.
The fd is great in Henan.. We have very delicius ndles. An interesting thing abut Henan is the difference between nrth and suth. In the nrth, peple eat mre ndles. In the suth, peple eat mre rice.
Henan als has a lng histry. The Shalin Temple is here. Many peple cme t see it and learn Kung Fu.
I am happy t live in Henan. It is a wnderful place. Welcme t my hmetwn!
评分标准：
1. 第1 - 20题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
2. 第21 - 40题,每小题2分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
3. 第41 - 55题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
4. 第56 - 70题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
5. 第71 - 75题,每小题2分。句中大小写错误,每两个扣0.5分,单词拼写错误,每两个扣1
分。答案不唯一。如果考生写出的句子符合英语表达习惯,且上下文意思连贯,无错误,应当给分。
6. 书面表达,20分。
1)评分原则
（1）本题总分为20分,按4个档次给分。
（2）评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
（3）评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
（4）拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（5）如书写较差以至影响交际,将其分数降低一个档次。
2)各档次的给分范围和要求
My Ftball Club
Time
Every 16 mrning
Abut the club
It's 17 kilmeters frm my hme.
Abut the teacher
He's 18 , but he's strict.
The club rules
* I must be n time. I can 19 be late.
* I must play hard after the lessn. I have t practice fr an hur in club. I always feel gd after 20 .
There is a ppular club at Wenchang Middle Schl in Hainan. Every week, students learn aerspace(航空航天工业)lessns tgether. There are different lessns in club. Students learn hw t make satellites(卫星),hw t prgram(编写程序) and hw t cntrl satellites.
Schls in Hng Kng clsed after heavy rain and strng winds n September 23, 2024. Hundreds f peple had t stay at the airprt withut bus, subway r taxi services(服务).
The Clegi del Cuerp dance schl in Clmbia has a new hme fr its 140 students. The schl began in 1997. The new hme is in a frest and it is partly built frm ld trees.
Suth Africa has a new rule f schling. Accrding t the rule, parents culd face 12 mnths in-jail(监狱)if their children are ut f schl r they dn't let their children g t schl when they reach the schl age.
第四档
16~20分
完成了试题规定的任务。
——覆盖所有内容要点。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
——有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
11~15分
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
——应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
6~10分
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
1~5分
未完成试题规定的任务。
——明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
——语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息;内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。