安徽省六安市舒城县部分学校2025-2026学年八年级上学期1月月考英语试卷

这是一份安徽省六安市舒城县部分学校2025-2026学年八年级上学期1月月考英语试卷，共16页。
本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分 120 分,考试时间为 120 分钟。
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分 20 分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,请在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选
出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What did the by have fr breakfast this mrning?
A. Bread and milk. B. Ndles. C. Eggs and juice.
2.Hw ften des the girl exercise?
A. Once a week. B. Three times a week. C. Every day.
3.What's the by's favrite subject?
A. Math. B. Science. C. Histry.
4.Where is the nearest pst ffice?
A. Next t the bank. B. Oppsite the supermarket. C. Behind the bkstre.
5.What des the girl want t d this weekend?
A. G t the mvies. B. Visit her grandparents. C. Have a picnic.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
听下面一段对话，回答 6 - 7 两个小题。
6. What are they talking abut?
A. A schl trip. B. A sprts meeting. C. A cultural festival.
7. Hw will they g there?
A. By bus. B. By train. C. By bike.
听下面一段对话，回答 8 - 10 三个小题。
8. Hw lng has the by been cllecting stamps?
A. Fr tw years. B. Fr three years. C. Fr fur years.
9. Why des the by like cllecting stamps?
A. Because it's relaxing. B. Because he can learn a lt frm them. C. Because he wants t sell
them later.
10. What des the girl suggest the by d?
A. Jin a stamp - cllecting club. B. Buy mre expensive stamps. C. Exchange stamps with thers.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个
选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. Wh is the stry abut?
A. A famus athlete. B. A yung inventr. C. A talented musician.
12. When did the persn start t shw their talent?
A. At the age f 6. B. At the age f 8. C. At the age f 10.
13. What is the persn's latest inventin?
A. A new type f pen. B. A small rbt. C. An energy - saving light.
14. What award did the persn win last year?
A. A natinal science award. B. A lcal art award. C. A schl sprts award.
15. What des the persn plan t d next?
A. Study abrad. B. Start a business. C. Enter mre cmpetitins.
Ⅳ. 信息转换（共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
你将听到一篇短文。根据短文内容，写出表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Infrmatin Details
Name f the event The 16 Cmpetitin
Time f the event This 17
Place f the event In the schl 18
Prize fr the first - place winner A 19
Number f participants Abut 20 students
第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题,满分 35 分)
Ⅴ.单项填空(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.—D yu need help with the jb?—I can ________ it. Thanks all the same.
A. manage B. believe C. supprt D. prduce
22.—D yu ften climb muntains?—Yes,________ a little exercise. I’m ut f shape.
A. getting B. get C. t getting D. t get
23.The team prepared and practised hard fr the match. ________, they wn first place easily.
A. Hwever B. Therefre C. Instead D. Mrever
24.—We dn’t need these ld desks in the ffice any mre.—OK, I will have smene
________ them.
A. set up B. take in C. hide frm D. get rid f
25.—Can yu tell me smething abut ________ nature reserve yu visited last mnth, Bb?—
OK. Wlng Nature Reserve cvers ________ area f ver 7,000 square kilmeters.
A. /; the B. the; an C. the; a D. a; the
26.The dctr advised my father ________ t much spicy fd ________ his stmach prblem
________ wrse.
A. nt eat; stpping; getting
B. nt t eat; t stp; getting
C. desn’t eat; t stp; getting
D. desn’t eat; t stp; nt t get
27.The gvernment has made new laws fr the ________ f wild animals, hping their number
will ________ in the cming years.
A. increase; prtectin B. prtectin; increase
C. prtecting; increase D. prtectin; increasing
28.—________ did the famus giant panda Hua Hua weigh when it was brn?—It ________
abut 200 grams at birth.
A. Hw much; weight B. Hw much; weighed
C. Hw heavy; weight D. Hw heavy; weighed
29.Ann saw three men ________ sunglasses ________ the building and g upstairs.
A. with; entered B. wearing; entering
C. wear; enter D. with; enter
30.I knw all f yu are interested in science. Culd yu tell me ______?
A. hw hrses knw the way r nt
B. when will UFOs appear next time
C. where was the kind f plant fund
D. hw elephants cmmunicate with each ther
Ⅵ.完形填空(共 20 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 20 分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选
项。
A
Desert Beauty
If yu ask mst peple abut the desert，they might describe（描述） sand and rcks.Arches
Natinal Park in Utah shws a different(31).Visitrs t Arches are amazed by the life and(32) in
the desert.Wildflwers and cactuses add bright clrs t the red rck.Blue jays and red-tailed
hawks fly up high in the sky.
Of curse，the park is mst famus fr its amazing(33).Mre than 2，000 natural arches have
been fund in the park.Sme f them stand alne against the cludless sky；(34) stand ut frm
the rcky hills.They were frmed ver the curse（过程）f 100 millin years，as wind and water
(35) brke dwn the rck.Althugh the arches tk millins f years t frm， it takes nly
secnds t(36) an arch frever.In 1991，Landscape Arch，the park's largest arch，lst a piece f
rck 60 feet lng.The arch still stands，(37)it is nw much easier t break.
In the beauty f this desert park，rads and cars are the nly interruptin（干扰） t the(38)
scene.But they make it easy fr peple t(39) nature's great wrk while it is still there.
In 2025，the park started a new entry system（系统）.It(40) visitrs t buy tickets up t six mnths
early.In this way，visitrs can better enjy the natural beauty in the park in an rganized way.
31.A. experience B. character C. scene D. craft
32.A. nise B. smell C. spirit D. clr
33.A. hills B. rcks C. sand D. landfrms
34.A. anther B. thers C. ther D. else
35.A. slwly B. quickly C. suddenly D. easily
36.A. prtect B. frget C. build D. lse
37.A. but B. and C. s D. then
38.A. rdinary B. narrw C. natural D. strange
39.A. supprt B. enjy C. check D. express
40.A. shws B. invites C. needs D. allws
B
Emma's mm tld her t clean her rm every day, but she never listened. She thught it was p
retty clean and tidy. Actually, Emma culd (41) pen the dr. Why? That was because there
were s many tys, clthes and bks lying n the (42) .
"Emma, ur family is ging t the z. G and get yur shes n, " Mm said ne day.
The (43) was that she culd nly find ne f them. "Mm, I can't find my she. Will yu wait
(44) I'm lking fr it? " she asked.
Her mm whispered smething t Grandma and then said t Emma, "Yu will have t stay at h
me and (45) yur rm. Grandma will stay with yu. "
Emma felt sad and (46) fr a lng time after her parents left with her brther. "I think I'd bett
er clean my rm, " she thught. It tk Emma tw hurs t clean her rm. She put all the (4
7) clthes int the clthes basket and hung up all f her clean clthes. She put all her tys back
in the (48) bxes and the bks in the bkcase. She als (49) her bed. She even fund her
missing she! "I did it!" she said happily.
Frm then n, Emma tried her best t keep her rm clean. She always helped her mm ck d
inner and set tables. "Ding husewrk nt nly teaches me hw t lk after (50) , but als
develps my independence, " Emma said.
A week later, her mm tk her t the z and they had s much fun there.
41.A. clearly B. hardly C. quietly D. finally
42.A. sfa B. bed C. flr D. table
43.A. prblem B. reasn C. risk D. decisin
44.A. r B. until C. after D. while
45.A. run away B. give away C. clean up D. fix up
46.A. laughed B. asked C. washed D. cried
47.A. dirty B. cld C. cheap D. warm
48.A. wrng B. right C. frnt D. quiet
49.A. brke B. made C. threw D. built
50.A. herself B. themselves C. myself D. yurself
Ⅶ.补全对话(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A：Hi Lily，What d yu usually d at hme in the mrning？
B：I make my bed first. (51) What abut yu？
A：I always water the plants.I like taking care f plants.
B：Green plants can always make peple happy. (52)
A：Yes! I wash the dishes after dinner. (53)
B：I d it t. But my dad will help me if there are t many plates and bwls.
A：What else d yu d？ (54)
B：I g t the balcny t cllect my wn clthes and put them back int the wardrbe （衣柜）
.
A： (55)
B：Exactly. But it's ur duty t make ur hme clean and tidy.
A.It's actually a bit tiring.
B.My huse is always tidy.
C.I tidy my desk befre bed.
D.I have t wrk frm hme all day.
E.It seems everyne needs t d chres.
F.D yu d any chres in the evening t？
G.Then I help my mm set the table fr breakfast.
第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分 40 分)
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共 20 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 40 分)
第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Andean
bearsExperts fund
Andean bears in a new
area in Blivia. They
used cameras and
fund 60 f these
bears in the Tarija
regin, bringing hpe
that the endangered
species has begun t
thrive (繁荣).
Scttish beavers
(河狸)
Fr the first time
in 400 years, wild
beavers have been
brn in Sctland’s
Cairngrms Natinal
Park. In the past few
weeks, tw beaver
babies have been brn
t tw f six beaver
families in the area.
Beavers build dams in
flwing water, which
can help t restre (修
复 ) rivers and
wetlands.
Cmmn
earthwrms (蚯蚓)
The cmmn
earthwrm has been
named the UK
invertebrate (无脊椎动
物 ) f the year by
readers f The
Guardian newspaper.
Every year in the UK,
earthwrms bring 40
tns f sil t the
surface per 10,000
square meters f land.
This helps plants t
grw and sil t stre
water, preventing
flds.
56.What’s the writer’s attitude (态度) t the future f Andean bears?
A. Nt sure. B. Sad. C. Hpeful. D. Wrried.
57.What can Scttish beavers help restre?
A. Farmlands. B. Rivers. C. Lakes. D. Muntains.
58.The third piece f news mainly tells us ________.
A. ways f saving water
B. ways f preventing flds
C. plant grwth in the UK
D. the imprtance f earthwrms
B
The televisin has been an imprtant part f many families’ life. Many children like t sit in
frnt f the televisin instead f ding smething else. When many experts (专 家 ) say that
televisin is bad fr children, sme believe that televisin can really have a gd effect n a child’
s life, if it is used prperly.
There are many televisin prgrammes that bth prvide fun and educatin. Spending
sme time n these types f prgrammes is gd fr yur child’s develpment. The televisin
can be mre efficient at teaching a child certain (某种) tasks.
Parents can als use the televisin t help children read. After watching an educatinal
prgramme, yur child may becme mre interested in a tpic. Use that interest t drive yur
child tward reading.
The televisin can als help t make a family clser. After a prgramme ends, yu can
start a discussin abut it. This can help encurage a healthy family.
The televisin can intrduce yur child t new cultures. This can help yur child learn a lt
frm them.
The televisin can als help build a bridge fr difficult cmmunicatin between parents and
children. If a child refuses t talk abut a tpic with his r her parents, he r she is willing t talk
abut it with his r her parents after watching the prgramme abut the tpic. This is an
example f televisin’s rle as a bridge t tugh cmmunicate-n.
59.The televisin can be mre efficient at… Here “efficient” means ______.
A. 有效的 B. 缓慢的 C. 困难的 D. 强硬的
60.The televisin can help children ______.
A. t build bridges in the future
B. t practise English speaking skill
C. t becme mre interested in reading
D. t becme strnger
61.Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t this passage?
① The televisin can help imprve the family relatinship.
② The televisin cn bring children bth fun and educatin.
③ Children can learn much abut different cultures by watching TV.
④ Children can make mre friends by watching TV.
A. ①②④ B. ①③④ C. ②③④ D. ①②③
62.This passage mainly talks abut ______.
A. children’s favurite TV prgrammes
B. gd effects f the televisin n children
C. the great imprtance f televisin
D. children’s different habits f watching TV
C
Tw little bys
Lng years passed, war came s
Then came a vice he knew:
Tw little bys had tw little tys
Each had a wden hrse.
Jyfully they played each
summer’s day
Sldiers (士兵) bth, f curse.
Then Jack brke ff his hrse’s
head,
Sad fr his ty, then cried with jy
As his yung friend Je said:
________
Bravely they walked tgether
away.
Guns were lud and in the mad
crwd
Wunded (受伤的) and dying lie
Up ges a shut, a hrse rushes
ut
Out frm the crwd, t where Je
lay
63.What happened t Jack’s ty hrse?
A. Its head was brken ff. B. It was taken by sldiers.
C. It was brken by Je. D. It was lst in the war.
64.The best wrd fr the blank is ________.
A. fast B. hard C. slw D. quick
65.What is the sng mainly abut?
A. Dangerus war. B. Interesting games.
C. Pleasant summer. D. Valuable friendship.
D
We all enjy being part f a grup—there’s n better wrk than teamwrk, right? Actually, I
disagree. Teamwrk can be hard. In fact, it was s difficult that I left my ffice jb and started
wrking frm hme n my wn. It’s a much better fit fr me, and it has made me think abut
why teamwrk can make ur jbs harder rather than easier.
Persnalities (个性) can make teamwrk difficult. There’s ften smene n the team
that puts their needs first. The team ften ges alng with this persn, whse ideas might nt be
the best, just the ludest. Just ne difficult persnality can make teamwrk hard. Cmbine (结合)
Did yu think I wuld leave yu
crying
When there’s rm n my hrse
fr tw?
Climb up here, Jack, and dn’t be
crying
I can g just as fast with tw.
When we grw up we’ll bth be
sldiers
And ur hrses will nt be tys
And I wnder if we’ll remember
When we were tw little bys.
Did yu think I wuld leave yu
dying
When there’s rm n my hrse
fr tw?
Climb up here, Je, we’ll sn be
flying
I can g just as fast with tw.
Nw we are bth real sldiers
And ur hrses are nt tys
And I remember
When we were tw little bys.
several challenging persnality types, and it’s even harder.
Nt having enugh time tgether can als make teamwrk challenging. Fr example, I was
nce n a team where we never had enugh time t meet as a grup. T successfully wrk as a
team, yu need time tgether—and lts f it.
A final reasn teamwrk is difficult is because there’s ften n training n hw t wrk
n a team. Yu can’t just put peple in a rm and expect them t wrk well with each ther.
Yu need t build trust with yur team members. Think f ftball players: They aren’t just
given a ball and tld t play. They practice, and they train.
Team can be hard, but wrking alne has its challenges, t. When my cmputer desn’t wrk,
I dn’t have an IT persn t turn t. When I have a great idea, I dn’t have anyne t share it
with t see if it really is a great idea. Dn’t get me wrng—I still like my team f ne and enjy
making all f the imprtant decisins myself. But nw I realize what was wrng with the
teamwrk I did in the past and hw gd teamwrk culd be if dne crrectly. And that’s
useful infrmatin—because ne day I might want t turn my ME TEAM int a WE TEAM.
66.Why did the writer chse t wrk frm hme n his wn?
A. T keep himself busier. B. T keep himself healthier.
C. T make his jb easier. D. T make his team harder.
67.Which f the fllwing makes teamwrk difficult?
A. Strng persnality. B. Lts f teamwrk time.
C. Challenging ideas. D. Clear team rles.
68.What can we learn frm the last paragraph?
A. WE TEAM has hardly any advantages.
B. ME TEAM needs a lt f IT engineers.
C. ME TEAM has n challenges fr the writer.
D. WE TEAM may be the writer’s chice ne day.
69.What is the purpse f the text?
A. T shw the advantages f teamwrk.
B. T tell the imprtance f teamwrk.
C. T intrduce the influence f teamwrk.
D. T explain the difficulties f teamwrk.
E
①What will yu d if yur friends are having a bad day? Yu might reach ut t them and try
yur best t make them feel better, right? Believe it r nt, elephants can d the same thing.
②Sme scientists studied 26 elephants between the ages f 3 and 60 years ld at the
Elephant Nature Park in Thailand. They spent twelve mnths watching these elephants carefully.
They fund that elephants culd tell when their friends were unhappy. They even tried t make
their friends happy. Fr example, when sme elephants feel unhappy, the thers in the family
grup always try t give them friendly tuches. They d it by putting their lng, big trunks in each
ther’s muths. It seems t be a way f saying, “I’m here t help yu.” Nearby elephants
als make sme special nise t calm them dwn. Smetimes they just stand clse t their
friends.
③Scientists als nticed smething else. Elephants have feelings like us. They never leave
their weak family members behind. When ne elephant is hurt, the strnger elephants in the
family grup always g t take care f him.
④The scientists were surprised by the study. They had never expected that elephants cared
abut each ther s much. Whether elephants are sick r unhappy, they are never left alne.
There is always a friend there fr them. Only a few animals can d that.
70.Hw des the writer start the text?
A. By giving examples. B. By telling stries.
C. By asking questins. D. By shwing pictures.
71.What’s the purpse f the text?
A. T ask us t prtect elephants.
B. T shw us a study f elephants.
C. T find ut why elephants are unhappy.
D. T tell us hw t help elephants live in the park.
72.What is the structure f the text? (①=Paragraph 1)
A. B.
C. D.
第二节 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
F
Tm is a gd student.He lves his mm very much.Every day，his mm wrks hard and des a
lt f husewrk，like cleaning the rms，washing clthes and cking dinner.Tm wants t
help her，but he is always busy.
He has many classes at schl.After schl，he has t d his hmewrk.Smetimes，he has t
study fr tests.He feels bad because he can't help his mm.
One evening，Tm decided t help her n matter what.He washed dishes after dinner and helped
sweep the flr.After that，he flded the clthes.But when he finished，it was already 9
'clck.He hurried t d his maths hmewrk，but he's t tired.He made many mistakes.The
next day，his teacher said his hmewrk was bad.Tm felt sad.He sat n the chair and thught，
"Wh can tell me what t d？I want t help mm，but I dn't want t be a bad student." He
really desn't knw hw t slve （解决） this prblem.
73.Why can't Tm help his mm？（不超过 10 个词）
______
74. Why did Tm make mistakes in his hmewrk？（不超过 5 个词）
______
75. Hw culd Tm slve the prblem by himself？Please give him a piece f advice. （不超过
15 个词）
______
第四部分 写(共两大题,满分 25 分)
Ⅸ.单词拼写(共 5 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
76.Everyne wants p （和平） in the wrld.
77.Lk!There are many children playing in the s （广场）。
78.Excuse me.I'm new in t （镇；商业区） .Hw can I find a fd shp near here？
79.We tk many phts d （在……期间） ur trip t remember the happy mments.
80.His cmputer is d （不运行的） .Maybe there's smething wrng with it.
Ⅹ.书面表达(共 1 小题;满分 20 分)
寒假即将开启，学校综合实践社团为丰富中学生假期生活，精心策划了寒假探索营，诚邀同
学们参与。假设你是李明，打算从以下两项活动里选一项参加，请根据海报信息，写一封申
请信。
Winter Vacatin Explratin Camp* Please let us knw：★ Wh are yu？（ hbby
，persnality... ）
★ Which activity will yu chse？Why？
* Yu can chse ne frm the fllwing activities：
Wildlife Adventure： Visit the wildlife park， watch and learn t care fr lvely
animals...
The Natural Wrld：Learn abut weather changes，understand the seasn cycle，
d interesting experiments （实验）...
注意事项：
（1）申请信的观点要明确，语句通顺，意思连贯，符合题意；
（2）词数 100 左右，申请信的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Sir r Madam，
I am Li Ming.I wuld like t jin the cming winter
camp._________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_________________________
Yurs sincerely，
Li Ming