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      河南省天立教育2025-2026学年高一上学期10月联考英语试卷(Word版附答案)

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      河南省天立教育2025-2026学年高一上学期10月联考英语试卷(Word版附答案)

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      这是一份河南省天立教育2025-2026学年高一上学期10月联考英语试卷(Word版附答案),文件包含河南省天立教育2025-2026学年高一上学期第一学月联考10月英语试卷不含音频docx、河南省天立教育2025-2026学年高一上学期第一学月联考10月英语答案PDF版pdf等2份试卷配套教学资源,其中试卷共8页, 欢迎下载使用。
      试卷总分:150 分 考试时间:120 分钟 命题人:高一英语备课组
      第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
      第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
      听下面 5 段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标 在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
      1. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
      A. The man’s watch. B. The man’s brther. C. The man’s family.
      2. What is the dg’s name?
      A. Rbert. B. Sctt. C. Michael.
      3. What des the man mean?
      A. He enjyed the mvie. B. He didn’t see the mvie. C. He didn’t like the mvie.
      4. Wh is ging t America?
      A. The wman. B. The man. C. The wman’s sister.
      5.What is the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
      A. A cuple. B. Teacher and student. C. Bss and wrker.
      第二节(共 15 小题,每小题 15 分,满分 22.5 分)
      听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
      听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
      6. What d we knw abut the writer?
      A.He never travels arund the wrld.
      B. He is a teacher.
      C. He was brn disabled.
      7. Hw des the man find the writer?
      A.Encuraging. B. Plite.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
      8. Where des Kate wrk?
      A. In Lndn. B. In Sydney.
      9. What are the speakers ging t d tmrrw evening?
      A. Have dinner. B. Visit Jane.
      10. Wh prbably is Jane?
      A. The man’s bss. B. The man’s custmer.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
      11. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
      A. In the htel. B. In the shp.
      12. What time des the dining rm clse?
      A. At 11:30 p.m. B. At 11:00 p.m.
      13. What will the man d next?
      A. Buy smething t eat. B. Call Rm Service.听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
      14. Hw did the man feel at first?
      A. Angry. B. Cld.
      15. Hw des the man usually exercise?
      A. By bicycling. B. By playing sccer.
      16. Where des the man usually d exercise?
      A. In the schl. B. In the park.
      17. What will the speakers prbably d next?
      A. Study tgether. B. G t the gym.听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。
      18. Hw lng will the activity last?
      A. Nine mnths. B. Six mnths.
      19. Hw much d the tickets cst fr an adult and a kid?
      A. $12. B. $18.
      20. When des the Wild West shw end?
      A. At 4:30 p.m. n weekends. B. At 4:00 p.m. every day.
      C. Strange.
      C. In Trnt.
      C. See sme custmers.
      C. The man’s wife.
      C. At hme.
      C. At 10:30 p.m.
      C. G t a restaurant.
      C. Surprised.
      C. By jgging.
      C. In the gym.
      C. Shw their mves.
      C. Fur mnths.
      C. $20.
      C. At 2:00 a.m. n weekdays.
      第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 50 分)
      第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
      阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
      A
      Intelligent Educatin Technlgy (IE Tech) fcuses n STEM (science, technlgy, engineering and mathematics) educatin. This year it ffers summer IT prgrams t set students n their lng-term skill develpment pathways.
      IE Tech Camp
      Ages 7-17 / Week-lng Sessins
      Want t design an interesting mbile app r discver the secrets f cde (代码)? Our prgram features ver 30 creative curses, cmbining wrld-class instructins with fun camp activities. In each week-lng sessin, yu’ll explre an inspiring university campus, make new friends, and build skills that last lng after summer.
      IE Tech Café
      Girls Ages 10-15 / Week-lng Sessins
      The all-girls prgram cmbines technlgy, entrepreneurship ( 企 业 家 精 神 ), and scial activism in a fresh, café-like setting. Big ideas cme t life in mn chairs and stylish decratins. Whether yu want t cde an app fr charity r engineer wearable electrnics, yu’ll team up with new friends and create a prject yu’re passinate abut.
      Rbtics Clny
      Ages 13-18 / Tw-week Sessins / Beginner t Advanced
      Kick start yur dream career and build the in-demand skills in rbtics. Yu’ll step int the rles f mechanical design engineer and mtin cntrl algrithm develper—all n a leading university campus. In this studi experience, yu’ll master the end-t-end rbtics develpment cycle and learn hw t transfrm yur passin fr rbtics int a rewarding, high-impact career.
      Future Makers Academy
      Ages 16-19 / Fur-week Sessins / Advanced
      Cme t build specialized skills t slve the wrld’s biggest challenges using breakthrughs in data science, machine learning, and AI. Interested in explring the mst guarded tech labs f tech giants? We’ve gt the chance fr yu. When yur prject is cmplete, shw ff yur creativity t the recruiters (招聘人员) frm tech giants t draw attentin.
      21. What d IE Tech Camp and Rbtics Clny have in cmmn?
      A. They last just as lng.
      B. They have the same age limitatin.
      C. They pay attentin t entrepreneurship.
      D. They ffer the chance t visit a famus university.
      22. Which f the prgrams is intended fr the females?
      A. IE Tech Camp. B. IE Tech Café .
      C. Rbtics Clny. D. Future Makers Academy.
      23. What can students d in Future Makers Academy?
      A. Attend the beginner-level curses. B. Take n the rles fthe recruiters.
      C. Visit super secret labs in the industry. D. Jin the tp cmpanies in the industry.
      B
      Life is full f struggles. Smetimes, we simply want t avid them. But even when ur minds are cnstantly telling us that we shuld call it a day, we can still keep n ging. The slutin is the Ckie Jar.
      The Ckie Jar ( 曲 奇 罐 ) methd was created by ne f the tughest men alive, David Gggins. Gggins was nce a Navy SEAL, wh has cmpeted in mre than sixty ultra-marathns triathln.
      T raise mney fr a nn-prfit rganizatin fr rphans ( 孤 儿), Gggins decided t run Badwater 135. Badwater is the wrld’s hardest ft race. T qualify fr Badwater, ne has t run 100 miles in 3 days, that is, 4 marathns in ne g. With zer preparatin and training, Gggins decided t have a try.
      Fr the first few miles f the race, he felt fine and had n truble running. But at mile 50, his legs felt like they were laded with lead. Still he ran. Then at mile 70, he culdn’t take anther step frward. Exhausted and feeling beaten dwn, he sat dwn t rest. He kept n asking himself, “Why? Why are yu still ding this t yurself?” He then remembered this wasn’t the first time he’d taken n an impssible task. And he suddenly felt sme energy build up. He started walking slwly, step by step. He kept n digging in his past while remembering all his previus victries (胜利), making him get the energy he needed t keep n ging. His feet were still a bldy mess, full f blisters. But it gave him just enugh drive t sustain him, until the 100-mile mark. And
      that’s what the Ckie Jar is.
      We all have a ckie jar inside us. Whenever yu face a challenge, whenever yu want t give up, yu pen the ckie jar and pick a ckie. The ckie reminds yu f smething yu’ve vercme and hw far yu’ve cme. Eventually, yu’ll slwly build up yur mind t be mre mentally tugh. Impssible, will turn int, I can d this.
      24. What des the underlined phrase “call it a day” in Paragraph 1 prbably mean?
      A. Stp and give up. B. Celebrate a day.
      C. Name a day. D. Have a new start.
      25. What can we learn abut David Gggins?
      A. He is a member f Navy SEAL nw.
      B. He gt injured halfway thrugh the race.
      C. He is a brave man wh never easily gives up.
      D. He was reminded f the Ckie Jar methd.
      26. Accrding t the text, what des “the Ckie jar” stand fr?
      A. The happy memry. B. The past achievement.
      C. The cntainer (容器) fr ckies. D. The challenge t face.
      27. What is the best title fr the text?
      A. Find the Ckie Jar inside Us. B. The Advantages f Ckie Jar.
      C. The Wrld’s Hardest Ft Race. D. Hw t Create Yur Ckie Jar.
      C
      Sun Rui, a mther in Beijing, changed sme f her plans fr her 8-year-ld sn’s summer vacatin. She had lked fr an ut-f-schl English curse, but in the end, she changed it t a swimming training class. “It is because f the strict rules n subject-tutring (辅导) classes ut f schls, many parents like me chse sprts r ther classes fr develping interests instead,” Sun said.
      Sun’s chice is part f the result f the gvernment’s grwing effrts t reduce the academic (学业的) pressure n yung students.
      On July 24, Chinese gvernment intrduced the rules in rder t reduce the burden f hmewrk and after-class tutring fr primary and junir high schl students. It lists requirements in areas such as reducing the amunt and the difficulty f hmewrk and
      after-class services prvided by schls. Fr example, hmewrk fr primary children belw the third grade is nt allwed, while hmewrk fr junir high schl students shuld take n lnger than 90 minutes t finish. Out-f-schl classes cannt teach students knwledge that is ahead f the schl curriculum(课程). N subject lessns can be given n weekends, natinal hlidays r during winter and summer vacatins.
      Accrding t Glbal Times, mre than 75 percent f Chinese children in cities, frm grade 1 t grade 12, take part in ut-f-schl subject classes. This has led t many scial prblems such as students ’ falling levels f physical fitness, mre mental health prblems and huge family csts, said Chu Zhahui, a senir researcher with the Natinal Institute f Educatin Sciences.
      Many parents shwed their supprt fr the new mves. “Subject learning is enugh at schl and we hpe the children’s life can be mre relaxing during hlidays”, a parent in Guangzhu tld Xinhua. Hwever, there are als sme parents wh have new fears. A parent in Shanxi said that althugh she agreed with the new rules, she was wrried that bth she and her husband had n time t be with her sn.
      28. The reasn why Sun Rui let her sn sign up fr a swimming class instead f an English curse is that _________.
      A. her sn wuld like t be a swimming athlete.
      B. the gvernment made rules n subject-tutring classes.
      C. she cnsidered her sn has mastered English well enugh.
      D. she wanted t set an example t ther parents.
      29. Accrding t the rules intrduced n July 24, _________.
      A. primary students in grade ne and grade tw have n hmewrk after schl.
      B. junir high schl students shuld d their hmewrk fr mre than 90 minutes.
      C. ut-f-schl classes can’t teach any knwledge in schl textbks.
      D. during summer vacatins, junir students can have subject classes utside schls.
      30. In Chu Zhahui’s pinin, taking part in ut-f-schl subject classes can _________.
      A. help children stay fit.
      B. have a psitive effect n children’s mental health.
      C. increase sme families ’ extra spending.
      D. help children learn better at schl.
      31. What are parents ’ reactin (反应) t the new rules?
      A. Sme parents feel anxius abut their children’s study at schl.
      B. They want their children t take part in mre ut-f-schl classes.
      C. They all think it is hard fr them t accept the rules right nw.
      D. Sme parents wrry fr they are nt free t stay with their children after schl.
      D
      Rlling hills and endless green grasslands – thse pictures ften appear in ur mind when we think f the cuntry lifestyle. When utdr activities were limited in many cuntries acrss the wrld during the pandemic (疫病), scial media (媒体) seemed t be filled by pictures f village life. S, why is living in the cuntryside becming increasingly ppular – and is it really gd t cnsider a slwer life?
      It is understandable that sme peple wuld want t give up the crwded and nisy city streets fr the traditinal cuntry life – especially during a perid like a pandemic. Having mre time t stay indrs and the perids f wrking frm hme get peple t think abut what they want frm life. But it’s nt just abut having a greener place t lk at ut f yur windw.
      It has been prved that living in the cuntryside des gd t yu. There’s less air pllutin in the cuntryside, which reduces the pssibility f develping sme diseases fr breathing the plluted air. Yu als get mre chances t take lng walks and see the beautiful cuntryside, meaning yu can get mre exercise. Less nise, mre walks and better air can als lead t less stress and a lnger life, accrding t studies dne by the British gvernment in 2012.
      Hwever, there are sme things that need t be cnsidered. Living far frm the city means that sme peple may feel lnely. And as peple get lder, life far frm dctrs r public transprt culd becme a bit f a challenge. S, if yu’re cnsidering a change f life and mving t a picturesque village, there are bth advantages and disadvantages t cnsider befre taking actin.
      32. What did peple like t share in their scial media during the pandemic?
      A. Pictures f life in the cuntryside. B. Pictures f their utdr activities.
      C. Pictures f life in big cities. D. Pictures f wrking at hme.
      33. The writer lists the advantages f living in the cuntryside EXCEPT_________.
      A. fresher air B. mre chances f exercise
      C. wrking at hme. D. beautiful cuntryside views
      34. Accrding t the study in 2012, wh will live a healthier and lnger life?
      A. A man wh lives near a nisy factry.
      B. A man wh lives a busy life with n time t exercise.
      C. A man wh lives in a heavily plluted city.
      D. A man wh lives in a peaceful village, jgging every mrning.
      35. Frm the last paragraph, we can infer that _________.
      A. living in the cuntryside is gd fr many ld peple.
      B. peple shuld think twice befre mving t the cuntryside.
      C. peple feel lnely in cities s they want t mve t the cuntryside.
      D. there are mre advantages than disadvantages in mving t the cuntryside.
      第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
      阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
      As a speaker f ten languages, I knw the benefits f speaking mre than ne language. Actually, it is nt a big challenge t learn languages. We nly have t change the way we learn them. 36 .
      Language learning is difficult.
      It is difficult t learn a language nly if yu dn’t want t. 37 What yu mstly need t d is spend sme time listening and reading. Believe me, it is that simple. I have dne it many times. Sn yu feel the satisfactin f understanding anther language. Befre yu knw it yu start speaking.
      38
      N, yu dn’t. Anyne wh wants t learn a language can learn. In Sweden and Hlland, mst peple speak mre than ne language. They can’t just all be gifted (有天赋的) at languages. Freign athletes in Nrth America usually learn t speak English faster than peple in mre frmal learning envirnments. In language learning it is attitude that determines success.
      Yu have t live where the language is spken.
      Sme immigrants( 移民) in Nrth America never learn t speak English well. Yet we meet peple in ther cuntries wh speak perfect English. In 1968, I learned t speak Chinese fluently while living in Japan, where few peple spke it. 39 Yu can dwnlad(下载) it t yur iPd and listen. Where yu live is nt a prblem.
      I wuld lve t learn but I dn’t have the time.
      Hw abut the time yu spend waiting in line (排队等候), ding things arund the huse, ging fr a walk? 40 Once yu get started, even 10 r 15minutes a day will sn grw t 30 minutes a day, r ne hur. If yu believe yu will achieve great results, and if yu enjy ding it, as I d, yu will find the time.
      I believe if yu can avid these traps (陷阱), yu will surely becme masters f language learning.
      A. The fllwing are sme hints fr yu t fllw.
      B. Yu have t have a gift fr learning languages.
      C. Learning a language takes time, but it is nt difficult.
      D. We need t avid sme cmmn misunderstandings.
      E. Languages can nly be learned instead f being taught.
      F. Why nt use that time t listen t a language n yur iPd?
      G. With the Internet, language cntent is available (可获得的) t anyne with a cmputer.
      第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分 30 分)
      第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
      阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A 、B 、C 、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
      Alexa Bjrnsn was wrried abut hw her sn, Landn Bjrnsn, wh has high-functining autism (高功能自闭症), wuld manage t fly alne t see his dad. She was s 41 that she gave him a nte and $10 t 42 t the passenger next t him.
      The nte said that he had high-functining autism and wuld ften ask the passenger “Are we there yet?”, and the 43 was fr the persn t keep her sn safe and 44 .“I thught, hw d I make it s whever is sitting next t him wn’t 45 him? I need t help my sn 46 the day,” Alexa said.
      The persn wh ended up sitting beside Landn frm Las Vegas t Oregn was Ben Pedraza. The tw had a great 47 tgether. Pedraza said, “We were making 48 , and after a while, he asked me t stp making dad-jkes.”
      As they reached their destinatin, Pedraza tk a(n) 49 with Landn and sent it t Alexa saying, “Landn did ask 50 we were there yet several times, but he was a great 51 partner. We played a few runds f rck-paper-scissrs. He’s a great kid and yu’re a(n)
      52 mm.” Pedraza said that he didn’t want the mney. He dnated the $10 t The Autism Sciety t 53 kids like Landn.
      Alexa was 54 that Pedraza helped her sn Landn. She was s glad that her sn met Pedraza wh was 55 and treated him with lve and care.
      41. A. curius B. afraid C. excited D. srry
      42. A. give B. debate C. explre D. prmise
      43. A. ntice B. reprt C. mney D. prize
      44. A. specific B. cmfrtable C. intelligent D. separate
      45. A. remember B. challenge C. select D. hate
      46. A. get thrugh B. lk back C. refer t D. take dwn
      47. A. example B. chance C. time D. rest
      48. A. plans B. suggestins C. decisins D. jkes
      49. A. picture B. lessn C. test D. rder
      50. A. why B. if C. hw D. when
      51. A. dinner B. team C. travel D. trade
      52. A. utging B. cnfident C. helpful D. lucky
      53. A. reflect B. supprt C. attract D. rganize
      54. A. thankful B. nervus C. ashamed D. prud
      55. A. brave B. experienced C. understanding D. hnest
      第二节(共 10 小题; 每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
      阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
      The mre water peple splash ( 泼 洒) n yu, the luckier and happier yur life will be. That’s the psitive message frm the Water Sprinkling Festival (泼水节) in Xishuangbanna, in Suthwest China’s Yunnan prvince, 56 has becme a strng drive fr turism grwth.
      Melissa Baidak, frm Russia, was 57 (shck) at first when peple surrunded her and splashed water, but then she jined in it 58 (happy) and had a gd time. “The happiness reminds me 59 my childhd,” she said. “The mst 60 (impress) activities were flying the Kngming lanterns at night and splashing water n ther peple. It was amazing and rmantic 61 (see) s many lanterns flating in the air,
      like twinkling stars,” she said.
      The Water Sprinkling Festival 62 (be) ne f the mst imprtant festivals fr the Dai peple wh recgnize the festival as the new year and rganize varius 63 (type) f activities like splashing water, releasing Kngming lanterns and dragn bat races.
      Htike Lwin K, 64 37-year-ld turist frm Myanmar, says his hme cuntry als celebrates the Water Sprinkling Festival, which usually lasts fur days, and peple 65 (allw) a 10-day break. “We have sme custms similar t Xishuangbanna, like releasing Kngming lanterns,” he said.
      Zhu Jiawei, the prefecture’s Party secretary, said the gvernment will take advantage f flk cultures and the prefecture’s gd envirnment t develp crss- brder, educatinal and ec- friendly turism.
      第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 40 分)
      第一节 应用文写作(满分 15 分)
      假如你是高中学生李华,你的美国朋友 Jim 即将升入高中,对高中学习感到忧虑,想让你给他一些学习建议。请你给他写一封电子邮件,内容包括:
      1. 与老师交流,征求老师的意见;
      2. 上课积极参与讨论,专心听讲,做好笔记;
      3. 课后按时完成作业,巩固知识; 4. … …
      注意:1.词数 80 左右; 2.可适当添加细节。
      第二节(满分 25 分)
      阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
      Michelle was eight years ld when she heard her mm and dad talking abut her little brther, Jack, nw nly an infant (婴儿). He was very sick and they were cmpletely ut f mney. Only a very cstly peratin (手术) culd save Jack the baby nw but there was n ne t whm they culd turn fr the mney needed. She heard Daddy say t her tearful mm. “Only a miracle (奇迹)
      can save him nw.”
      Hearing the wrds, Michelle went t her bedrm and tk ut all the cins frm her little mneybx. After cunting the cins three times, she slipped ut the back dr and made her way t the drug stre six blcks away.
      She waited fr a lng time befre the pharmacist (药剂师) turned arund and asked her. “And what d yu want?”
      “Well, it’s abut my brther,” Michelle answered. “He’s really, really sick... and I want t buy a miracle.”
      “I beg yur pardn?” said the pharmacist. “His name is Jack and he has smething very bad grwing inside his bdy and my Daddy says nly a miracle can save him nw. S hw much des a miracle cst?”
      “We dn’t sell miracles here, little girl. I’m srry but I can’t help yu,” the pharmacist said. “Listen, I have the mney t pay fr it.” And with these wrds, Michelle pured ut all the cins frm her pckets. At this time, a well-dressed man behind Michelle stped dwn and asked the little girl. “I’m selling the miracle yu want. Tell me hw much mney yu have.”
      “One dllar and eleven cents.” Michelle answered in a lw vice. “And it’s all the mney I have, but I can get sme mre if I need t.”
      “Well,” smiled the man. “A dllar and eleven cents—the exact price f a miracle fr little brthers. Shw me the place where yur brther lives.”
      注意:1. 续写词数应为 150 左右;
      2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
      Paragraph1:
      Hlding the man ’ s hand firmly, Michelle tk him hme. _____________________________
      _______________________________________________________________________________
      Paragraph2:
      When asked why he chse t help the family, the man said, ____________________________
      _______________________________________________________________________________

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