2025年浙江省台州市玉环市实验初级中学中考三模英语试题（中考模拟）

这是一份2025年浙江省台州市玉环市实验初级中学中考三模英语试题（中考模拟），共16页。
2. 答题前，在答题纸上写姓名和准考证号，并在试卷首页的指定位置写上姓名和座位号。
3. 必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。
4. 做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
5. 考试结束后，试卷和答题纸一并上交。
第一部分 听力理解（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is the man ging?
A. T a htel. B. T a park. C. T a bank.
2. Hw lng will the basketball practice last?
A. Fr ne hur. B. Fr tw hurs. C. Fr three hurs.
3. Why is Max unhappy?
A. Because he lst his watch.
B. Because he just had a gym class.
C. Because he fell n the playgrund.
4. What are the speakers ging t d n Sunday?
A. G t the z. B. Watch a film. C. Practice kung fu.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
A. A hbby. B. A party. C. A subject.
第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Wh is asking fr help?
A. Mark. B. Judy. C. Eric.
7. What club is the by mst likely t jin?
A. Sprts club. B. Science club. C. Music club.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. What is Thmsn’s favrite subject?
A. English. B. Chinese. C. Physics.
9. Why des Lisa like math?
A. Because it helps her think deeply.
B. Because it’s easy fr her t learn.
C. Because it’s interesting t slve prblems.
10. What des Thmsn prbably mean in the end?
A. He wants t help Lisa.
B. He wants t shake hands with Lisa.
C. He needs Lisa’s help t start a study grup.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。
11. Wh’s the speaker?
A. A teacher. B. A guide. C. A student.
12. What did the farmers grw first n the farm?
A. Apples. B. Strawberries. C. Tmates.
13. What will the visitr d frm 9:00 t 10:00 in the mrning?
A. Buy gifts. B. Take a walk. C. Pick strawberries.
14. What is the prize fr winning the strawberry-picking cmpetitin?
A. A free lunch.
B. A big bx f strawberry ckies.
C. A trip t the city.
15. What is the main purpse f Happy Farm nw?
A. T teach farming skills.
B. T let peple enjy cuntry life.
C. T sell vegetables t the city.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
1. Hw des Anna feel abut her situatin?
A Happy.B. Relaxed.C. Wrried.D. Bred.
2. Which trick fr falling asleep is frm the text?
A. Daydreaming abut stries.B. Watching bring TV prgrams.
C. Memrizing English wrds.D. Ding different kinds f sprts
3. In which part f the magazine can we read the text?
A. Stry Garden.B. Healthy Living.C. Study Skills.D. Sprts News.
B
Many peple lve t listen t music while driving. Thanks t the wrld’s musical rads, they can nw enjy music while taking rad trips withut turning n the radi.
A musical rad can create music when a car’s tires g ver grves (沟槽) n the rad. T prduce beautiful music, drivers must pass ver the grves at a certain speed. Signs ften tell drivers the right speed. The first musical rad was created in Gylling, Denmark, in 1995.
Since the mid-1990s, musical rads have sprung up in many different cuntries. Fr example, in Japan, there are many musical rads thrughut the cuntry. T remind drivers t listen t the cming music, all the rads are marked with clrful musical ntes that are painted n these rads. Drivers can decide whether t g ver the grves r nt because they are set n the side f the rad.
In Hungary, there is a musical rad in hnr f ne f the cuntry’s mst ppular musical perfrmers, Laszl Bdi. Bdi was the lead singer fr the band Republic. Frmed in 1990, the grup is ne f Hungary’s biggest acts and is still active tday. Sadly, Bdi passed away in 2013. But peple still remember him as there’s a rad where drivers can hear 30 secnds f the Republic sng “Rad 67”.
Musical rads are als keeping drivers safe. In Indnesia, a rad plays the first six ntes f “Happy Birthday”. The fifth nte is a little ut f tune, thugh. This “mistake” keeps drivers awake and aware, and it has reduced the number f traffic accidents. Such is the pwer f music and musical rads.
4. A musical rad can create music when a car’s tires g ver grves ________.
A. slwlyB. quicklyC. at a certain speedD. in an “S” shape
5. What can we knw abut the band Republic frm the text?
①When it was frmed. ②Hw it was started. ③Wh its lead singer was. ④Hw many sngs it created.
A. ①②B. ②④C. ①③D. ③④
6. What can the musical rad in Indnesia d?
A. It can keep drivers safe.B. It can light up the rad at night.
C. It can prvide driving directins.D. It can make drivers less stressed.
7. Why des the writer write the text?
A. T advise us t enjy music.B. T intrduce a kind f creative rad.
C. T shw hw drivers stay safe n the rad.D. T explain why drivers like t listen t music.
C
He was an ld man wh fished alne in a bat in the Gulf Stream and he had gne eighty-fur days nw withut catching a fish. In the first frty days, a by had been with him. But after frty days withut a fish, the by’s parents had tld him that the ld man was nw sala, which is the wrst frm f unluckiness, and the by had gne at their rders in anther bat which caught three gd fish the first week. It made the by sad t see the ld man cme in each day with his bat empty and he always went dwn t help him carry his fishing gear (渔具).
The ld man was thin with deep wrinkles (皱纹) in the back f his neck. His hands had the deep-creased scars (伤疤) frm handling heavy fish with the crds (绳索). But nne f these scars were fresh. Everything abut him was ld except his eyes and they were the same clr as the sea and were cheerful and undefeated.
“Santiag,” the by said t him as they climbed the bank frm where the bat was. “I culd g fishing with yu again. We’ve made sme mney.”
The ld man had taught the by t fish and the by lved him.
“N,” the ld man said, “Yu’re with a lucky bat. Stay with yur lucky bat.”
“But remember hw yu went eighty-seven days withut fish and then we caught big nes daily fr three weeks?”
“I remember,” the ld man said.
“It was Papa wh made me leave. I am a by and I must bey.”
“I knw,” the ld man said. “It is quite nrmal.”
“He hasn’t much faith (信心).”
“N,” the ld man said. “But we have. Haven’t we?”
“Yes,” the by said. “Can I buy yu a beer n the terrace (露台), and then we’ll take the things hme?”
“Why nt?” the ld man said. “Between fishermen.”
(Adapted frm The Old Man and the Sea by American writer Ernest Hemingway)
8. Why did the by leave the ld man?
A. Because the ld man was t ld t fish.B. Because the by was tired f the ld man.
C. Because the by’s parents made him d it.D. Because the ld man preferred t fish alne.
9. What des the underlined wrd “handling” in Paragraph 2 prbably mean?
A. Paying fr.B. Lking at.C. Caring abut.D. Dealing with.
10. What d we knw abut the by?
A. He was gd at fishing.B. He was brn in Santiag.
C. He lved the ld man very much.D. He was taught hw t fish by his parents.
11. What wuld prbably happen later that day?
A. The by had t leave the ld man sadly.B. The by helped the ld man catch a big fish.
C. The ld man spent the time with the by happily.D. The ld man lst his faith and became very upset.
D
Imagine life withut mbile phnes—almst impssible, isn’t it?
This year marks the 52nd anniversary (周年) f the first-ever mbile phne call. Nw let’s lk back at sme f the mst imprtant mbile phne achievements ver the past half century.
On April 3, 1973, Martin Cper, an engineer at Mtrla, made histry by making the first mbile phne call frm a street in New Yrk, the USA. Thugh that call was the start f smething huge, everything didn’t change until Cper and his team created the Mtrla DynaTAC 8000X that peple culd buy and use in 1983. As the wrld’s first prtable (便携式的) mbile phne, it was sld at a very high price—arund $4,000.
The Mtrla DynaTAC 8000X was big and heavy, weighing abut 1 kg. S mst peple called it “The Brick (砖)”. It tk abut 10 hurs t charge (给……充电) the phne, and yu culd nly talk n it fr abut 20 minutes.
In December 1992, British engineer Neil Papwrth sent the wrld’s first text message (短信) that read, “Merry Christmas”. Then in 1997, peple welcmed the first mbile phne with a clr screen. In September 2000, Samsung put ut the first camera phne. Then the iPhne changed the wrld f mbile phnes frever! The iPhne was put ut in 2007 by Apple, and its special tuch screen technlgy helped it becme a huge success.
Mbile phnes have changed a lt since Mr. Cper made that first call. Nw, they’re much smaller and yu can d many mre things n them like taking pictures, playing games, and searching the Internet. Mr. Cper, wh’s nw 97, is amazed by the things mbile phnes can d tday, but he thinks they can still get better. He believes that ne day, ur phnes might be small enugh t fit inside ur ears.
12. Why did mst peple call the Mtrla DynaTAC 8000X “The Brick”?
A. Because f its clr and size.B. Because f its shape and clr.
C. Because f its size and weight.D. Because f its weight and clr.
13 Hw is Paragraph 5 mainly develped?
A. By listing numbers.B. By cmparing facts.
C. By fllwing the rder f time.D. By fllwing the rder f imprtance.
14. What des Mr. Cper think f the future f the mbile phne?
A. Uncertain.B. Hpeful.C. Wrrying.D. Hpeless.
15. What’s the text mainly abut?
A. The histry f the mbile phne.B. Different uses f the mbile phne.
C. The imprtance f the mbile phne.D. Great inventrs behind the mbile phne.
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A—E五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项)，并回答问题。
Feeling bad? Dn’t wrry! Here are sme simple ways t help yu feel better.
☆Take a deep breath.
Clse yur eyes. __________ Cunt t fur. Then, breathe ut thrugh yur muth. This can help yur bdy and mind calm dwn.
☆G fr a walk.
Put n yur shes and step utside.__________ Lk at the trees, flwers and sky. Feel the wind n yur face. Walking can make yur heart feel lighter.
☆Talk t smene.
G t a friend r family member. Tell them what’s n yur mind. They might give yu a hug r sme gd advice.__________
☆Help thers.
__________ It culd be as simple as hlding a dr pen r helping with hmewrk. Helping thers can make yu feel gd and cnnected t thers.
Remember, it’s OK t feel bad smetimes. But ding these simple things make yu happier.
16. ___________
17. ___________
18. ___________
19. ___________
20. What else can yu d t make yurself feel better? (不超过15词)
____________________________________
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
Our art teacher, Gerge was leaving sn fr his cuntry. I was preparing a special ____21____ fr him. It was a hand-drawn picture bk abut ur schl. I wrked a lng time, trying t make each picture as ____22____ as pssible.
One day, I was drawing while my little sister Becky was watching with great ____23____. Just then, my classmate Jeff drpped by.
“Hi! Peter, d yu want t play basketball in the yard?” he asked. “I’d like t, ____24____ it’s t cld utside!”I replied. “Exactly!” he said, “It’s the perfect weather fr nt getting t ht.”
That’s a cl thing abut Jeff. He always lks n the ____25____ side f almst everything.
We went ut, leaving the drawings n the table. We laughed as we returned. When I pened the dr, my heart nearly stpped. Right there, Becky was clring ____26____ pictures. “____27____ Becky!” I rushed t her, but it was t late. Almst every page was clred. “What did yu d?” I shuted ____28____. “I just wanted t help.” She began t cry. “My drawings are gne frever!” I felt frustrated (懊恼的) and ____29____ Jeff fr help.
“Remember the jigsaw puzzle (拼图)? We can create smething new frm these messy pictures,” Jeff ____30____. “Can we make it?” I dubted.
“I’m nt sure, but we can have a try. ____31____, this is the result f yur hard wrk,” He encuraged.
First, we cut the drawings int shapes. Then, we ____32____ all these pieces tgether and made a jigsaw. Finally, we even added mre paints. Days later, a beautiful “____33____” appeared in frnt f us.
There was a ____34____ ending. “Thanks, guys,” Gerge smiled, “I lve it s much. It will give me many great ____35____ here.” S, yu see, there lies a beam (束) f light behind every dark clud. Jeff’s way f dealing with things did help.
21. A. giftB. phtC. letterD. lessn
22. A. easyB. largeC. perfectD. famus
23. A. hpeB. prideC. interestD. curage
24. A. rB. sC. andD. but
25. A. sadB. brightC. seriusD. strange
26. A. myB. urC. herD. his
27. A. RunB. CmeC. JumpD. Stp
28. A. bravelyB. angrilyC. carefullyD. nervusly
29. A. gave upB. turned tC. turned dwnD. agreed with
30. A. warnedB. rderedC. reprtedD. suggested
31. A. After allB. First f allC. As a resultD. In a wrd
32. A. putB. hidC. readD. threw
33. A. treeB. gateC. schlD. library
34. A. bringB. happyC. terribleD. cmmn
35 A. chicesB. changesC. decisinsD. memries
第二节 词汇运用（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
The Harry Ptter stre in New Yrk City in the USA is even mre magical nw! ____36____ it pened in 2021 it’s been a hit with fans. Nw, the stre ____37____ a new magical experience: Fans can fly a brmstick (飞天扫帚)!
While yu can’t actually fly, yu can sit n a brmstick ____38____ a green screen and get a magical pht shwing yu flying abve Harry Ptter sites. Guests may fly ver the Hgwarts Schl and they can ____39____ fly in a Quidditch match!
Jel Gnzalez is a leader at the New Yrk stre. “There is smething ____40____ fr every Harry Ptter fan at this stre, he said.
阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式 (每空一词)。
When peple think abut mvies, they ften talk abut what they see. Hwever, what they ____41____ (听到) als plays an imprtant rle. Lyu Yanting, 37, the vice actr f little Ne Zha in Ne Zha 2, uses her vice t bring t life a great character wh ____42____ (斗争) against fate.
“Dubbing (配音) is very similar t acting,” said Lyu. Vice actrs will get the script (剧本) ____43____ (在……前) they start. After reading it, they will have their ____44____ (自己的) understanding f the stry and character. During the dubbing prcess, she needs t shw the character’s ____45____ (情绪). Als, she has t match her vice ____46____ (完美) with the animatin’s scenes. “The directr plays an imprtant rle. He will ____47____ (解释) the stry and scenes during filming. With his help, we wrk ____48____ (一起) t give ur best perfrmance.”
Lyu ____49____(相信) it is very imprtant t keep imprving as a vice actr. “We need t imprve ur understanding, experience mre in life and develp different views. With these things and ur prfessinal skills, we can ____50____ (成功) act ut different rles.”
第三节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Hw many languages can yu speak? Mst peple knw at least ne, but sme are able t speak tw, three, r even mre languages! A new technlgy ____51____ (beat) peple s far, thugh. It uses AI and it can wrk in 101 languages!
Chere is ____52____ technlgy business frm Canada. ____53____ February 13, 2024, it annunced a new AI mdel called Aya. Aya can wrk in ____54____ (many) languages than mst AI mdels. This means mre peple will be able t use the technlgy.
Many AI tls train n English and Mandarin Chinese. ____55____ there are mre than 7,000 knwn languages in the wrld. This means many peple may nt be able t use AI, and it can limit ____56____ AI can d.
Chere’s team spent a year wrking with 3,000 experts frm 119 ____57____ (cuntry). They used data which ____58____ (translate) by machines and fluent speakers frm 67 languages t make the mdel as gd as it culd be.
The team fcused n languages ____59____ dn’t get much attentin. Chere hpes Aya will help research and prtect mre languages. Experts are always wrking ____60____ (imprve) AI, s we might see even mre languages added t AI in the future.
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
61. 为鼓励同学们增强健康意识，校英语报发起“我最喜爱的体育运动”征文活动，请你根据以下三位同学的发言，并结合自己的经历写一篇短文，分享自己最喜欢的一项运动，并谈谈运动对自己的影响。
注意：
1. 必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥；
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息；
3. 词数80左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Amng different kinds f sprts, my favurite sprt is __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Let’s enjy the real fun that sprts bring!
英 语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2. 答题前，在答题纸上写姓名和准考证号，并在试卷首页的指定位置写上姓名和座位号。
3. 必须在答题纸的对应答题位置上答题，写在其他地方无效。
4. 做听力题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
5. 考试结束后，试卷和答题纸一并上交。
第一部分 听力理解（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where is the man ging?
A. T a htel. B. T a park. C. T a bank.
2. Hw lng will the basketball practice last?
A. Fr ne hur. B. Fr tw hurs. C. Fr three hurs.
3. Why is Max unhappy?
A. Because he lst his watch.
B. Because he just had a gym class.
C. Because he fell n the playgrund.
4. What are the speakers ging t d n Sunday?
A. G t the z. B. Watch a film. C. Practice kung fu.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
A. A hbby. B. A party. C. A subject.
第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Wh is asking fr help?
A. Mark. B. Judy. C. Eric.
7. What club is the by mst likely t jin?
A. Sprts club. B. Science club. C. Music club.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. What is Thmsn’s favrite subject?
A. English. B. Chinese. C. Physics.
9. Why des Lisa like math?
A. Because it helps her think deeply.
B. Because it’s easy fr her t learn.
C. Because it’s interesting t slve prblems.
10. What des Thmsn prbably mean in the end?
A. He wants t help Lisa.
B. He wants t shake hands with Lisa.
C. He needs Lisa’s help t start a study grup.
第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。
11. Wh’s the speaker?
A. A teacher. B. A guide. C. A student.
12. What did the farmers grw first n the farm?
A. Apples. B. Strawberries. C. Tmates.
13. What will the visitr d frm 9:00 t 10:00 in the mrning?
A. Buy gifts. B. Take a walk. C. Pick strawberries.
14. What is the prize fr winning the strawberry-picking cmpetitin?
A. A free lunch.
B. A big bx f strawberry ckies.
C. A trip t the city.
15. What is the main purpse f Happy Farm nw?
A. T teach farming skills.
B. T let peple enjy cuntry life.
C. T sell vegetables t the city.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. A 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. C 5. C 6. A 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. D 10. C 11. C
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. C 14. B 15. A
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. B
18. E 19. A
20. Listen t music r write a diary. (其他合理答案亦可)
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. C 23. C 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. D 31. A 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. D
第二节 词汇运用（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. Since
37. ffers 38. in frnt f
39. als 40. special
【41~50题答案】
【答案】41. hear
42. fights 43. befre
44. wn 45. emtins
46. perfectly
47. explain
48. tgether
49. believes
50. successfully
第三节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
【51~60题答案】
【答案】51. has beaten

52. a 53. On
54. mre 55. But
56. what 57. cuntries
58. was translated
59. that##which
60. t imprve
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
【61题答案】
【答案】例文
Amng different kinds f sprts, my favurite sprt is badmintn. Like Tny wh values persistence, I train three times a week despite challenges. This sprt sharpens my reflexes and builds endurance, just as Lucy described hw sprts bst energy. When I lst a match last mnth, I learned t stay calm like Max facing difficulties. Nw badmintn has taught me that real victry lies in never giving up. It’s nt just a game—it’s a life teacher!
Let’s enjy the real fun that sprts bring!
Anna
I feel upset because smetimes I can’t fall asleep. But I dn’t really knw why. What are yur tricks (诀窍) fr falling asleep?
Frank
I daydream. I have a cuple f stries t jump int and I knw that either I will sleep r have a gd time imagining things. Either way, it’s a win, which is ne f the reasns why falling asleep is s easy fr me.
Emily
I watch Family Guy befre I fall asleep and I always get a gd night’s rest. It’s strange because the TV play is nt bring r anything like that, but it helps stp me frm verthinking. Maybe it’s the actrs’ vices help me t sleep.
Tny
I bre myself t sleep. When I lie in bed, I think abut bring things in my head t keep myself away frm stressful thughts. Fr example, I memrize things like numbers, US states, capitals r the alphabet (字母表). And it helps me keep my mind frm racing.
Linda
I use a yga trick. Fcus n every part f yur bdy t make sure it’s fully relaxed. Yu may find yur neck, shulders, back and legs are stressed. D the trick several times. The mre relaxed yu becme, the easier it will be fr yu t fall asleep. Keep ding the trick until yu fall asleep.
A. D smething nice fr smene else.
B. Walk arund yur neighbrhd r a park.
C. Breathe in thrugh yur nse.
D Listen t yur favrite music.
E. Talking can help yu feel less alne and mre understd.
ffer since special als in frnt f