2025年广东省汕尾市陆丰市东海新龙中学中考模拟英语试题（中考模拟）

这是一份2025年广东省汕尾市陆丰市东海新龙中学中考模拟英语试题（中考模拟），共18页。试卷主要包含了考生必须保持答题卡的整洁等内容，欢迎下载使用。
本试卷共12页，81小题，满分120分。考试用时90分钟。
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔将自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔在“考场号”和“座位号”栏相应位置填涂自己的考场号和座位号。将条形码粘贴在答题卡“条形码粘贴处”。
2．作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能写在试卷上。
3．非选择题必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4．考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听说应用（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话）
A．听句子（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1．What des Tm like t d in his free time?
A． B． C．
2．Where did Tm g last weekend?
A． B． C．
3．Wh did Tm meet there?
A． B． C．
4．When did Tm cme back hme?
A． B． C．
5．Hw did Tm feel after cming back?
A． B． C．
B．听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
6．What club des Jhn want t jin?
A．The art club. B．The music club. C．The sprts club.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
7．Hw des Lily usually g t schl?
A．By bike. B．By bus. C．On ft.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
8．Wh is the man talking abut?
A．A famus scientist. B．A great teacher. C．A ppular singer.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
9．What des Peter plan t d this weekend?
A．He plans t read a bk.
B．He plans t d vlunteer wrk.
C．He plans t watch a mvie.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
10．Where did the by leave his English bk?
A．In the classrm. B．In the library. C．On the schl bus.
听第六段对话，回答第11～12小题。
11．Why des the by like vlunteering at the animal shelter?
A．Because he lves animals.
B．Because he wants t make mney.
C．Because he has nthing else t d.
12．When can the girl start vlunteering there?
A．This Saturday mrning. B．This Sunday afternn. C．Next Mnday afternn.
听第七段对话，回答第13～15小题。
13．Which bk has the girl read recently?
A．The Adventures f Tm Sawyer.
B．Alice in Wnderland.
C．The Old Man and the Sea.
14．Hw des the girl like the main character?
A．Brave. B．Shy. C．Funny.
15．What des the by want t d?
A．T brrw the bk. B．T buy the bk. C．T return the bk.
C．听短文（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
16．When did Tim’s family see the dg?
A．Last Saturday. B．Last Friday. C．Last Sunday.
17．Where did Tim’s family find the dg?
A．By the river. B．By the rad near a small frest. C．In the park.
18．Wh put medicine n the dg’s leg?
A．Tim. B．Tim’s mther. C．Tim’s father.
19．Hw did the dg change after being taken care f by Tim’s family?
A．It became strnger and mre playful.
B．It became thinner and sadder.
C．It became fatter and quieter.
20．What did Tim’s family name the dg?
A．Lucky. B．Happy. C．Charlie.
D．听填信息（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一段关于泰山机器狗的介绍。请根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
E．情景对话（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Linda: What are yu ding n yur phne, Tm?
Tm: ___1___
Linda: A study buddy(同伴)? What’s that?
Tm: It’s smene wh studies with me. We als call it “dazi”. We can help each ther.
Linda: ___2___
Tm: Well, we can share study ntes, discuss difficult prblems and encurage each ther.
Linda: That’s useful.___3___
Tm: I jined a study-buddy-finding grup n a scial app Many students are lking fr study buddies there.
Linda: Gd.___4___
Tm: Yes, we meet nline every weekend t talk abut ur study prgress.
Linda: ___5___ It’s a gd way t imprve yur learning.
A. That sunds great!
B. Hw did yu find a study buddy?
C. What kind f help can yu get frm a study buddy?
D. I’m studying with a study buddy nline.
E. D yu ften study tgether?
F. I like reading bks alne.
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
As the cld seasn arrives, peple in Beijing put n thick sweaters and warm jackets t stay warm. Interestingly, sme large radside trees are als “dressed” in clrful sweaters specially made fr ____6____!
In areas like Hngxing Hutng and Beijing Freign Studies University, these trees lk like they are having ____7____ special “winter fashin shw”. The sweaters are ____8____ bright, cheerful clrs, just like the dpamine-clred(多巴胺色的) clthes we see. They dn’t just make the trees lk fun, but als help them stay ____9____ in the cld.
In winter, the trees in the city usually lk bare (光秃秃的), and everything ____10____ a bit bring. But these sweaters help with that. They make the trees lk s ____11____ and brighten up the streets.
With their bright clrs, the tree sweaters ____12____ ppular amng bth citizens and turists s far. Many peple visit these places just ____13____ phts. Fr children, the sweaters prvide a chance t have fun ____14____ play. Fr example, in Pinggu, kids happily tuch the pictures n the sweaters and play arund the decrated (装饰的) trees.
Even thugh we can’t put ____15____ n every tree, this creative idea is really cl. It makes the city mre interesting and brings peple clser t their city.
6. A. theyB. themC. their
7. A. aB. anC. the
8. A. inB. nC. at
9. A. warmB. warmthC. warmly
10. A. seemedB. seemsC. t seem
11. A. livelyB. livelierC. liveliest
12. A. is becmingB. becmeC. have becme
13. A. t takeB. tkC. taking
14. A. butB. sC. and
15. A. sweaterB. sweatersC. sweaters’
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
每小题1分，共10分）
The Spring Festival has a histry f ver 4,000 years. It started as a farming festival t celebrate the end f winter and the beginning f ____16____. On December 4, 2024, UNESCO (联合国教科文组织) added it t the list f Intangible Cultural Heritage f Humanity (人类非物质文化遗产). This shws its great ____17____ arund the wrld.
In the past, peple celebrated it by ____18____ ancestrs, lighting lanterns, and preparing big meals. They als shared stries abut the beast Nian which culd be scared away by lud nises and the clr ____19____. Tday, sme traditins have been mdernized. Fr example, firewrks are nw paired with light shws, and lucky mney is ften sent thrugh apps ____20____.
The Spring Festival is nt nly celebrated in China but als arund the wrld. In Sydney, there are big parades and firewrks. In Indnesia, peple mix their wn custms with Chinese nes. S the festival becmes a ____21____ event that brings peple frm different cultures tgether.
Why is it s ppular? It’s because the festival ____22____ family lve, wishes fr a better future, and new starts. The verseas Chinese help ____23____ these traditins. Als, China’s cultural activities let mre peple knw abut this wnderful ____24____.
The Spring Festival shws us that traditins can change but their imprtant meanings stay the ____25____. It reminds us f the imprtance f family, culture, and unity (团结一致), making it a meaningful celebratin fr peple everywhere.
16. A. summerB. autumnC. springD. winter
17. A. imprtanceB. differenceC. cnfidenceD. kindness
18. A. visitingB. hnringC. seeingD. calling
19. A. yellwB. greenC. whiteD. red
20. A. easilyB. carefullyC. slwlyD. secretly
21. A. strangeB. specialC. cmmnD. usual
22. A. is full fB. is ready frC. is careful withD. is gd at
23. A. frgetB. keepC. changeD. spread
24. A. eventB. stryC. festivalD. culture
25. A. difficultB. sameC. pssibleD. mdern
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
请阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
A
26. What can visitrs d at the Art Crner n Cmmunity Fun Day?
A. Learn abut space.B. Make vegetable salads.
C. Take chemistry tests.D. Draw pictures with materials.
27. What can yu bring if yu want t jin in the art-making activity accrding t the passage?
A. Cleaning tls.B. Old magazines.
C. Yur wn drawing tls.D. Gardening tls.
28. Hw lng des the art-making activity last?
A. Fr 3 hurs.B. Fr 4 hurs.
C. Fr 5 hurs.D. Fr 6 hurs.
29. What is the fcus f Useful Tips Area?
A. Tips n parent-child cperatin.
B. Tips n teacher-student cmmunicatin.
C. Tips n daily tasks.
D. Tips n children’s health and safety.
30. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut Cmmunity Fun Day?
A. It is nly fr children.B. It requires entry fees.
C. It fcuses n scientific learning.D. It is free fr all cmmunity members.
B
In the white, icy wrld f Antarctica, Chinese scientists wrked hard in the freezing cld t d research. On April 10, 2024, China’s 40th Antarctic scientific expeditin (考察) team returned China after finishing their tasks.
“Our main tasks in Antarctica were t watch the weather and t build weather statins,” said Zhu Kngju. He was a member f the expeditin team and is an engineer at the Chinese Academy f Meterlgical Sciences (CAMS).
Zhu and his teammates did tests n greenhuse gases and the zne (臭氧) in Antarctica. They wanted t see hw climate change is affecting the area. They als set up tw weather statins that can wrk in extremely cld cnditins and fixed the nes already there, s that they can increase the area f weather mnitring.
The hardest part f wrking in Antarctica was dealing with “surprises” frm the weather. Zhu and his team used snwmbiles and sleds (雪橇) t travel and mve the things they needed every day. One day, a snwstrm made it hard t see even three meters ahead. They had t use GPS t stay tgether, taking fur hurs just t park their snwmbiles.
Althugh the wrk was very tugh, the scientists managed t cllect imprtant data fr their research. “The frzen parts f Earth are really imprtant fr the wrld’s energy and water. Antarctica plays a big rle in the wrld’s climate,” Zhu said. Even thugh few peple live there, its weather changes a lt because f the wrld’s climate, which makes it a key place t study climate change.
31. What was the main task f the expeditin team?
A. Studying the animals and plants in Antarctica.
B. Watching the weather and building weather statins.
C. Explring new areas in Antarctica.
D. Cllecting sea water in Antarctica.
32. What des the underlined wrd “mnitring” in Paragraph 3 prbably mean?
A. Watching.B. Prtecting.C. Changing.D. Building.
33. Why des the authr mentin the snwstrm in Paragraph 4?
A. T shw the imprtance f GPS in Antarctica.
B. T explain hw the scientists mved their equipment.
C. T describe the difficulties the scientists faced in Antarctica.
D. T intrduce the daily wrk f the scientific expeditin team.
34. Where is this passage prbably frm?
A. A strybk.B. A diary.
C. A guidebk.D. A newspaper.
35. What is the passage mainly abut?
A. The daily life f Chinese scientists in Antarctica.
B. The difficulties Chinese scientists faced in Antarctica.
C. Chinese scientists’ research wrk and its imprtance in Antarctica.
D. The reasns why Antarctica is imprtant fr the wrld’s climate.
C
配对阅读。左栏是五个人的需求，右栏是对七种食物的介绍。请为每个人匹配相应的食物，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余项。
五、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
请从方框内选择适当的词，并根据需要用其正确形式填空，使文章语法正确、完整连贯，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。注意：每空一词，每词仅用一次，有两词为多余项。
In 2025, a new generatin (一代人) are arriving. They’re called Generatin Beta. They are the children brn frm early 2025 t the end f 2039. Right ___41___ them, there were Generatin Alpha wh were brn frm 2010 t 2024. An Australian research cmpany ___42___ them these names. Generatin Beta ___43___ after Generatin Alpha, just like the rder f letters in the Greek alphabet (字母表).
Their research predicts ___44___ by 2035, abut 16% f the wrld’s peple will be frm Generatin Beta. Many f them will live a ___45___ time, maybe int the 22nd century.
This ___46___ generatin will grw up with lts f AI and digital tls. They’ll see self-driving cars, wear health-tracking devices, and use virtual reality (虚拟现实) in ___47___ daily lives. Schl, wrk, healthcare, and fun time will all be different because f these ___48___.
But they’ll als face big challenges, such as climate change, peple mving ___49___ a lt, and cities grwing t fast. The gd news is that they’ll be mre aware f the wrld, care mre abut their cmmunities, and wrk tgether ___50___. They’ll learn that new ideas are imprtant nt just fr making life easier, but fr slving the big prblems f their time.
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A．回答问题
请阅读下面短文，根据所提供的信息，回答五个问题，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。要求所写答案语法正确、信息完整切题。
On December 26th,2024, a small Chinese start-up cmpany called DeepSeek intrduced a new AI system that culd match tp chatbts (聊天机器人) frm sme large cmpanies. Accrding t the same tests used by American AI cmpanies, the DeepSeek chatbt culd answer questins, slve lgic (逻辑) prblems, and even write cmputer prgrams.
What’s surprising is that DeepSeek created this AI system at a much lwer cst. While big technlgy cmpanies spent tens f millins f dllars building their latest AI systems, DeepSeek nly needed abut $6 millin. This challenges the idea that nly large cmpanies can affrd t build the mst mdern AI systems.
Since a well-knwn cmpany started its chatbt in 2022, many experts believed n cmpany culd cmpete withut spending hundreds f millins n special chips (芯片). Leading AI cmpanies ften use supercmputers with up t 16,000 chips t train their chatbts. Hwever, DeepSeek’s engineers said they nly needed abut 2,000 special chips.
Because getting chips was hard, DeepSeek engineers had t train their AI system mre smartly t keep up. A prfessr studying technlgy and internatinal relatins said they did a great jb even with difficulties.
DeepSeek’s success shws that small cmpanies can als create pwerful AI systems with smart plans and few materials It pens new chances fr develpment in the AI field.
51 When did DeepSeek intrduce the new AI system?
____________________________________________________________
52. What culd the DeepSeek chatbt d accrding t American AI cmpanies’ tests?
____________________________________________________________
53. Hw much did DeepSeek need t build its new AI system?
___________________________________________________________
54. Why did DeepSeek engineers have t train their AI system mre smartly t keep up?
___________________________________________________________
55. What des DeepSeek’s success shw?
___________________________________________________________
B．书面表达
请根据要求完成短文写作，并将短文写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
56. 假设你是李华，你的好友Lucy对AI(人工智能)很感兴趣，发邮件询问你相关信息。请你根据以下思维导图的提示，用英文写一封邮件，介绍AI的应用，分享你对AI的看法，并谈谈你的展望。
注意：
(1)可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息。
(2)不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现真实校名和考生的真实姓名。
(3)语句连贯，词数80左右。作文的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数，也不必抄写在答题卡上。
Dear Lucy,
I knw yu’re interested in AI, s I’m excited t share my thughts with yu._____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Lking frward t yur reply.
Best wishes,
Li Hua
2025年广东省中考模拟卷（四）
英语
本试卷共12页，81小题，满分120分。考试用时90分钟。
注意事项：
1．答题前，考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔将自己的准考证号、姓名、考场号和座位号填写在答题卡上。用2B铅笔在“考场号”和“座位号”栏相应位置填涂自己的考场号和座位号。将条形码粘贴在答题卡“条形码粘贴处”。
2．作答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能写在试卷上。
3．非选择题必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4．考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听说应用（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分；A、B、C、D部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话）
A．听句子（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1．What des Tm like t d in his free time?
A． B． C．
2．Where did Tm g last weekend?
A． B． C．
3．Wh did Tm meet there?
A． B． C．
4．When did Tm cme back hme?
A． B． C．
5．Hw did Tm feel after cming back?
A． B． C．
B．听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
6．What club des Jhn want t jin?
A．The art club. B．The music club. C．The sprts club.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
7．Hw des Lily usually g t schl?
A．By bike. B．By bus. C．On ft.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
8．Wh is the man talking abut?
A．A famus scientist. B．A great teacher. C．A ppular singer.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
9．What des Peter plan t d this weekend?
A．He plans t read a bk.
B．He plans t d vlunteer wrk.
C．He plans t watch a mvie.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
10．Where did the by leave his English bk?
A．In the classrm. B．In the library. C．On the schl bus.
听第六段对话，回答第11～12小题。
11．Why des the by like vlunteering at the animal shelter?
A．Because he lves animals.
B．Because he wants t make mney.
C．Because he has nthing else t d.
12．When can the girl start vlunteering there?
A．This Saturday mrning B．This Sunday afternn. C．Next Mnday afternn.
听第七段对话，回答第13～15小题。
13．Which bk has the girl read recently?
A．The Adventures f Tm Sawyer.
B．Alice in Wnderland.
C．The Old Man and the Sea.
14．Hw des the girl like the main character?
A．Brave. B．Shy. C．Funny.
15．What des the by want t d?
A．T brrw the bk. B．T buy the bk. C．T return the bk.
C．听短文（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
16．When did Tim’s family see the dg?
A．Last Saturday. B．Last Friday. C．Last Sunday.
17．Where did Tim’s family find the dg?
A．By the river. B．By the rad near a small frest. C．In the park.
18．Wh put medicine n the dg’s leg?
A．Tim. B．Tim’s mther. C．Tim’s father.
19．Hw did the dg change after being taken care f by Tim’s family?
A．It became strnger and mre playful.
B．It became thinner and sadder.
C．It became fatter and quieter
20．What did Tim’s family name the dg?
A．Lucky. B．Happy. C．Charlie.
D．听填信息（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一段关于泰山机器狗的介绍。请根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
E．情景对话（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
【1~5题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. C
3. B 4. E
5. A
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，根据语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
【6~15题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. A 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. B
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，请通读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
每小题1分，共10分）
【16~25题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. B
四、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
请阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并在答题卡上将对应选项涂黑。
A
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26. D 27. C 28. C 29. C 30. D
B
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. B 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. C
C
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. B 37. A 38. G 39. F 40. E
五、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
【41~50题答案】
【答案】41. befre
42. gave 43. cmes
44. that 45. lng
46. new 47. their
48. technlgy
49. arund 50. better
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
【51~56题答案】
【答案】51. On December 26th, 2024.
52. It culd answer questins, slve lgic prblems, and even write cmputer prgrams.
53. Abut $6 millin.
54. Because getting chips was hard.
55. It shws that small cmpanies can als create pwerful AI systems with smart plans and few materials.
56. 例文
Dear Lucy,
I knw yu’re interested in AI, s I’m excited t share my thughts with yu.
AI is really useful. In study, there are AI - based apps. They can help us with hmewrk. Fr example, they can crrect ur writing mistakes and explain difficult grammar pints. In life, smart cameras with AI can keep ur hmes safe. Smart fridges can tell us what fd we need t buy.
AI has gd sides. It makes things easier and faster. But it als has bad sides. If we depend n it t much, we might becme lazy.
I hpe in the future, AI will d even mre gd things fr us. We shuld use it well and nt let it cntrl us.
Lking frward t yur reply.
Best wishes,
Li HuaA Special Rbt Dg
Name: Unitree B2
Lk: like a real dg
Tasks:·tell 21．______ t prtect the envirnment
·help cllect 22．______ n the muntain
Abilities:·mve well n 23．______ kinds f grund
·stay balanced while mving
·carry up t 24．______ kilgrams
·wrk fr fur t six hurs after a 25．______ charge（充电量）
Sunny Cmmunity is planning a Cmmunity Fun Day n July 5th. It’s a great chance fr everyne in the cmmunity t have fun and learn smething new.
There will be tw main activities n that day. The first ne is Art Crner. Here, yu’ll have materials such as clred paper, crayns, and ld magazines t draw beautiful pictures. It’s the perfect place t let yur creativity run wild. Whether yu’re an experienced artist r just starting ut, there is always smething fr everyne.
If yu want t jin in the art-making activity at Art Crner, yu can bring yur wn drawing tls. The activity starts at 10:00 a.m. and finishes at 3:00 p.m.
Right next t Art Crner, yu’ll find Useful Tips Area. Cmmunity experts will share practical tips n cleaning, gardening, and fixing small things at hme. These tips are the fcus f Useful Tips Area and can really be helpful in yur daily life.
The best f this amazing Cmmunity Fun Day is that it’s cmpletely free fr all cmmunity members! S, there’s n need t wrry abut any entry fees. Just gather yur family, bring yur neighbrs, and cme t enjy a day full f laughter, learning, and cmmunity spirit.
___36___ Elisa is sick. She wants t have sweet fd that can make her want t eat mre.
___37___ Sam is busy and ften feels tired. He hpes t find a drink that can give him energy and is als gd fr his health.
___38___ Teresa is a big fan f traditinal Chinese festivals. She wants t try sme special mncakes that are different frm the cmmn nes.
___39___ Nathan has a cld and a sre thrat. He wants t eat smething that nt nly tastes gd but als makes him feel better.
___40___ Selena likes t try new and special fd. She is interested in fd that mixes traditinal Chinese medicine with mdern fd ideas.
A．“Qi-increasing Milk Tea” has traditinal Chinese medicine (TCM) like ginseng (人参). It is gd fr thse wh are ften tired.
B．“TCM Mncakes” are made frm TCM such as hawthrn (山楂). They are sweet and can make yu feel hungrier.
C．“Health-increasing Ckies” are made frm sme cmmn TCM. They are cnvenient t eat and have certain health-care effects.
D．“TCM-Mixed Juice” mixes useful parts f TCM with fruit juice. It is bth healthy and delicius.
E．“Special Taste TCM Ice-cream” is a new prduct that mixes the clness f ice-cream with the effects f TCM.
F．“Thrat-calming Sup” is made frm TCM like lquat (枇杷) leaves. It can help with sre thrat and cld.
G．“Festival-special Mncakes” are a new type f mncakes that mix TCM with the mncake culture. They are very ppular during festivals.
arund that well befre they with after new cme lng give technlgy
A Special Rbt Dg
Name: Unitree B2
Lk: like a real dg
Tasks:·tell 21．______ t prtect the envirnment
·help cllect 22．______ n the muntain
Abilities:·mve well n 23．______ kinds f grund
·stay balanced while mving
·carry up t 24．______ kilgrams
·wrk fr fur t six hurs after a 25．______ charge（充电量）