广西贺州市平桂区2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试卷（解析版）

这是一份广西贺州市平桂区2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试卷（解析版），共10页。试卷主要包含了听力，单项选择，补全对话，完形填空，阅读理解， 按要求完成句子，选词填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、听力。（共30小题，每小题1分，共30分）
（一）听句子，选择与句子内容相符的图片。句子读两遍。（每小题1分，共5分）

A. B. C. D. E.
_______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. ________
（二）听句子，选择该句的最佳答语。句子读两遍。（每小题1分，共5分）
6. A. Yes, I can.B. Yes, I d.C. Yes, I am.
7. A. I like it.B. Srry, Ms. Ga.C. I’m hungry.
8. A. It’s easy.B. That’s OK.C. Thanks! Yu t!
9. A. I’m fine.B. Thirteen.C. Hw d yu d?
10. A. By bike.B. Tw kilmeters.C. 15 minutes.
（三）听对话，选择正确答案。对话读两遍。（每小题1分，共10分）
11. What’s Bb’s favrite subject?
A. Chinese.B. Science.C. English.
12. When is the music class?
A. On Wednesday.B. On Thursday.C. On Tuesday and Friday.
13. What club des Mike want t jin?
A. The art club. B. The ftball club.C. The swimming club.
14. What des the man need?
A. A pair f scks. B. A pair f shes.C. A pair f shrts.
15. Hw much is the bag?
A. It’s 28 dllars. B. It’s 38 dllars.C. It’s 48 dllars.
16. Wh des Cindy teach t dance this weekend?
A. Her friends. B. Her students.C. Her cusins.
17. What’s Kate ding?
A. She’s dancing. B. She’s listening t music.C. She’s ding her hmewrk.
18. Why des Alice like pandas?
A. Because they are friendly.
B. Because they are cute.
C. Because they are interesting.
19. Hw des Susan get t schl?
A. On ft.B. By subway. C. By bike.
20. What time des the train leave?
A. At 3:15. B. At 3:20.C. At 3:30.
（四）听短文，根据短文内容选择正确答案。短文读三遍。（每小题1分，共5分)
21. Wh is Mr. Brwn?
A. He’s a teacher.B. He’s Jenny’s uncle.C. He’s a driver.
22. What can Mr. Brwn d?
A. He can play basketball.B. He can play the vilin.C. He can play the guitar.
23. What des Jenny lve?
A. Dancing. B. Singing.C. Drawing.
24. Where d Mr. Brwn’s parents live?
A. In a schl.B. In a village.C. We dn’t knw.
25. Hw d Jenny and Dave get t their grandparents’ hme?
A. By car.B. By bus.C. By bike.
（五）听短文，填写信息。短文读三遍。（每小题1分，共5分）
Julie Andersn lives in the USA with her parents and her 26 sisters. She desn’t g t schl this 27 . She has lessns at 28 with her sisters. Her mm teaches them. Her favrite subject is science. She desn’t like histry r gegraphy very much. In her 29 time, she likes listening t music. She has lts f music CDs. She likes t 30 her friends n weekends. She desn’t watch sprts n TV. She thinks it’s bring. But she likes playing basketball.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
二、单项选择。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
从下列各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
31. Mlly is my gd friend. I can play ping-png and she can play vilin.
A. aB. theC. \
32. — Can Jane and Jill dance?
— , but they can sing.
A. Yes, she canB. Yes, they canC. N they can’t
33. — I think teachers are great. It is my t be a teacher.
— Study hard. I am sure it can cme true.
A. jb B. stryC. dream
34. — Why dn’t yu like lins, Kate?
— Because they are .
A. cuteB. scaryC. smart
35. Peter is lazy, he cleans his bedrm, he always asks his sister t d it.
A. neverB. usuallyC. always
36. — Cme n, Linda. We’re late!
— I knw, but it’s nt healthy t eat .
A. wellB. earlyC. quickly
37. Schls and parents make rules t help us, we fllw them.
A. canB. have tC. need t
38. — Excuse me. is it frm here t the subway statin?
— It’s nly 50 meters.
A. Hw farB. Hw muchC. Hw lng
39. — Tny, is it nw? I think it’s time t play sprts.
— Srry, I dn’t knw. My watch desn’t wrk.
A. What clrB. What timeC. What day
40. — Mm, where is my brther? I need his help.
— He t a CD in his rm nw.
A. listenB. listensC. is listening
三、补全对话。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话。
A: Hell? This is Jenny.
B: Hi. Jenny. 41
A: Oh, hi, Laura. 42
B: Nt much. I’m just cleaning my rm.
A: yu swim?
B: 43
A: There is a swimming pl in New Stadium(体育馆). 44
B: Sunds gd. 45
A: We can take the bus. It’s nly 6 kilmeters frm yur hme.
B: OK！See yu then!
A. Yes, I can.
B. It’s Laura here.
C. Hw d we get there?
D. What are yu ding?
E. Let’s g swimming there this afternn.
四、完形填空。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读下面语篇，从各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Hi, I’m Mr. White! I am gd 46 music. I can play the pian, the drums and the guitar. I’m a great 47 in the Sunshine Music Club. I 48 a daughter. Her name is Maria. She is nly fur years ld. She 49 play the guitar, and she plays it very well. She is in the Sunshine Music Club, 50 .
D yu like music ? D yu want 51 music? Please cme and jin 52 . We can 53 yu with music. It’s 54 and fun! My 55 number is 618-6588. My e-mail address is white2014@163.cm. Yu can call me r e-mail me at any time!
46. A. atB. frC. with
47. A. fatherB. studentC. musician
48. A. amB. haveC. want
49. A. canB. likesC. teaches
50. A. tB. alsC. either
51. A. learnB. learnsC. t learn
52. A. weB. usC. ur
53. A. tellB. helpC. talk
54. A. easyB. bringC. difficult
55. A. clubB. phneC. ID card
五、阅读理解。（共15小题，第56—60小题，每小题1分；第61—70小题，每小题2分，共25分）
A
根据语篇内容，判断下列句子正误，正确的填“T”，错误的填“F”。
56. This is a pstcard frm Betty’s mum.
57. Betty is in China nw.
58. Betty’s mum is visiting her friends in Hllywd.
59. Betty is enjying the mvie.
60. Betty’s mum is taking a lt f phts.
B
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
61. Hw many kinds(多少种) f animals can we find in the passage?
A. Fur.B. Five. C. Six.
62. What is the panda eating nw?
A. Fruit. B. Bamb.C. Other plants.
63. Which animal is zebra?
A. B. C.
64. When des the tiger get up t find fd?
A. In the mrning. B. In the day time.C. At night.
65. What’s “alne” in Chinese?
A. 独自B. 安定地C. 开心地
C
Hi! I’m Alex Greenall. I’m thirteen and I g t Park Schl in Oxfrd England. I g t schl n weekdays, but nt n Saturday and Sunday. This is my schl day.
My schl is next t my huse. I get up at half past seven in the mrning, and then have breakfast. At half past eight, I walk t schl with Becky.
We have English, IT, histry, P.E., music... I like IT best because I really want t be a cmputer prgrammer(编程人员). We start wrk at nine ’clck. We have three lessns in the mrning. At eleven ’clck, we have a break(课间休息) in the playgrund(操场), I talk t my friends r watch my friends play ftball. Our P.E. teacher, Mr. Smith always plays with them, but I dn’t like ftball.
We have lunch in the dining hall at half past twelve. I like schl lunch! We have meat and rice with vegetables r hamburgers. I drink juice r water.
We start lessns in the afternn at half past ne. We have tw lessns in the afternn. After that, I can have IT fr ne hur. My IT teacher is Mr. Cl. I think he is s cl. Then we g hme at half past fur.
In the evening, I watch TV and have dinner with my family. I d my hmewrk and g t bed at ten ’clck.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
66. What desn’t Alex d at the break time?
A. Talk t friends.B. Watch friends play ftball.C. Drink juice r water.
67. Where des Alex have lunch?
A. At hme.B. In the schl dining hall.C. In the playgrund.
68. Wh is Alex’s IT teacher?
A. Becky.B. Mr. Smith.C. Mr. Cl.
69. Which is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. Alex starts lessns at 8:30 am.
B. Alex’ s favrite subject is IT.
C. Alex has seven lessns a day.
70. What’s the best title(标题) f the passage?
A. My family.B. My lessns.C. My schl day.
六、 按要求完成句子。（每小题2分，共10分）
71. Giraffes are frm Africa. (改成一般疑问句)
giraffes Africa？
Kate takes a shwer at seven frty-five every mrning. (改为同义句)
Kate takes a shwer at a eight every mrning.
Yu can’t play basketball in the classrm. (改成祈使句)
basketball in the classrm.
It takes Bb 10 minutes t walk t schl every day.(对划线部分提问)
des it take Bb t walk t schl every day?
My grandfather exercises in the mrnings.(用nw 替换in the mrnings 改写句子)
My grandfather nw.
七、根据句意，首字母及汉语提示用单词的适当形式完成句子。(每空1分，共5分)
76. Chinese is useful. It’s (重要的) fr us t learn it well.
77.There are tw (百) students in the kung fu club. Mst f them are bys.
78. Jim, brush yur t befre yu g t bed!
79. Peter is nly 4 years ld, but he can s English and Chinese.
80. Elephants in Thailand are lsing their hmes because peple cut d many trees.
八、选词填空。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
根据语篇内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词，并用其正确形式填空。将单词填写在答题卡对应的横线上。每个单词只能用一次。
Rick: I live in Chengdu and I g t N. 3 Middle Schl. I g t schl by bike 81 by bus. The rads (路) in Chengdu are 82 and it is easy fr me t ride a bike. 83 when it rains (下雨), I take a bus t schl.
Je: My name is Je Smith. I’m frm Miami, the USA. I take the schl bus t schl and it’s easy fr students. After schl, I still take the schl bus hme. 84 abut yu?
Carl: My name is Carl. I live in a 85 in Yunnan. I dn’t really like ging t schl, because my schl is 86 frm my hme. And there are tw rivers 87 my hme and schl. I need t take a 88 t schl.
Julie: Hi, I am Julie. I live in Beijing. My 89 are teachers in a middle schl and I’m a student in their schl. Every mrning, my father 90 my mther and me t schl. And after schl, we g hme tgether(一起).
81. 82. 83. 84. 85.
86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
九、书面表达。（15分）
假如你是大明，红星中学七年级(1)班的班长。Mary是一名美国的中学生，下学期她将作为交换生到你们班学习，为了能快速适应这边的学习生活，她想提前了解你们班的规章制度，请给她写一封信介绍一下你们班的班规。
内容要点：
1. 上课不能迟到；
2. 老师进入教室必须起立；
3. 课堂上问问题必须举手；
4. 下课后请老师先行离开教室；
4. 每天必须穿干净的衣服；
5. 只能在餐厅吃喝，每天打扫教室；
6.
提示词: 进入 enter，起立stand up，举手put up ur hands
注意：
1. 班规必须包含内容要点中的所有信息；
2. 可适当增加词句，以使行文连贯；
3. 文中不得透露个人信息；
4. 词数70左右（信件开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。
Dear Mary,
I’m Da Ming, the mnitr f Class 1, Grade 7 at Hngxing High schl. Welcme t ur class next term! Our class is a great ne, but there are sme rules.





Have a gd time!
Yurs,
Da Ming
【参考答案】
1—5 CDAEB 6—10 ABCBB 11—15 BCBAC 16—20 BBCCB 21—25 ACABA
26. 2/ tw 27. year 28. hme 29. free 30. see
31—35 BCCBA 36—40 CBABC 41—45 BDAEC 46—50 ACBAA
51—55 CBBAB 56—60 TTTFT 61—65 BBCCA 66—70 CBCBC
71. Are, frm 72. quarter t 73. Dn’t play 74. Hw lng 75. is exercising
76. imprtant 77. hundred 78. teeth 79. speak 80. dwn
81. r82. nice 83. Smetimes 84. What 85. village
86. far 87. between 88. bat 89. parents 90. drives
参考范文：
Dear Mary,
I’m Da Ming, the mnitr f Class 1, Grade 7 at Hngxing High schl. Welcme t ur class next term! Our class is a great ne, but there are sme rules.
We can’t be late fr schl, we have t be n time. When the teachers enter the classrm, we must stand up and say “La Shi Ha”. In class, we have t put up ur hands befre we can ask questins. After class, we can’t leave the classrm befre ur teachers. We must wear clean clthes every day. We have t keep ur classrm clean. We must clean it every day and we can’t eat r drink in the classrm, we can nly eat r drink in the dinning hall. We als have t d ur hmewrk every day.
Have a gd time!
Yurs,
Da MingThe elephant lives in Africa and in Asia. This elephant lives in Africa. It eats plants(植物) and a little fruit, but it desn’t eat meat(肉). It likes water.
There are nly abut 1,800 pandas in China and abut 200 f them live in zs. The panda eats abut 30 kils f bamb(竹子) a day as well as(还有) ther plants. Lk! It is eating bamb nw. This black and white animal is the favrite f peple all ver the wrld.
The zebra is an African animal. Like the panda, it’s black and white. It eats leaves(树叶) as well as grass(草), but the zebra desn’t eat bamb.
The tiger lives in Asia. It’s a very big animal. It lives alne because tigers dn’t like living with their family r friends. It sleeps in the day time(在白天) and gets up at night t find fd.
Mnkeys live in Africa, Asia and America. There are abut 200 kinds f mnkeys. Mnkeys eat meat, leaves, fruit and even eggs!
bat nice r village smetimes parent between drive far what