武汉市青山区2024-2025学年上学期期中七年级英语试题（word版含答案）

这是一份武汉市青山区2024-2025学年上学期期中七年级英语试题（word版含答案），共10页。试卷主要包含了听力测试部分，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，句型转换，词与短语填空，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试部分 (共三小节，满分20分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 听完每个问题后，你都有 5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题，每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Thank yu. B. Peter Brwn. C. I am fine.
2. A. C-A-P. B. In the rm. C. It’s yellw.
3. A. They are new. B. On yur head. C. They are Teng Fei’s.
4. A. Miss Ga. B. English. C. She is great.
5. A. Twelve. B. They’re white. C. Very cute.
第二节 (共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。
6. Where’s Peter?
A. In a library. B. In a classrm. C. On a farm.
7. What are they talking abut?
A. A pht. B. Paul’s family. C. Paul’s friends.
8. What’s the girl’s family name?
A. Amy. B. Brwn. C. Green.
9. What clr is Emma’s bike?
A. Blue. B. Pink. C. Black.
10. What plants are in the yard?
A. Carrt plants. B. Tmat plants. C. Ptat plants.
11. Hw many trees are there n the farm?
A. Tw. B. Nine. C. Eleven.
12. What are they ding?
A. B. C.
第三节 (共 8 小题，每小题 1分，满分 8分)
听下面 3 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答13至14两个小题。
13. What’s the by’s family name?
A. Hand. B. Black. C. Bruce.
14. What’s the girl’s telephne number?
A. 347-5912. B. 436-1908. C. 347-1908.
听下面一段对话，回答15至17三个小题。
15. What des Emma’s sister like?
A. Taking phts. B. Drawing pictures. C. Playing the guitar.
16. Where is Jhnny in the pht?
A. On Emma’s left. B. On Emma’s right. C. Behind Emma.
17. Wh has black hair?
A. Emma. B. Sally. C. Laura.
听下面一段独白，回答18至20三个小题。
18. Which class is Helen in?
A. Class Five. B. Class Six. C. Class Seven.
19. What’s Helen’s brther like?
A. Nice. B. Friendly. C. Lvely.
20. What d we knw abut Helen?
A. Her parents are teachers. B. She has shrt brwn hair. C. She likes playing the vilin.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
(1) 从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个划线部分读音不同的选项。
21. A. this B. rabbit C. unit D. white
22. A. make B. cake C. apple D. take
23. A. bth B. nt C. ntebk D. hme
24. A. nw B. hw C. yellw D. brwn
25. A. bks B. dgs C. bys D. balls
(2) 从题中所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. — ____________
—I’m gd, thank yu.
A. What’s yur name? B. Gd mrning.
C. Hw are yu? D. Hell!
27. —Can yu shw me yur new bicycle?
—____________. I’ll be happy t!
A. Srry B. Sure C. Nice t meet yu D. I can’t
28. —My sister has ____________ pian. She likes it very much.
—Well, my sister likes playing ____________ vilin.
A. a; the B. a; a C. the; the D. the; a
29. —What’s ____________ name?
—Bill Smith. Yu can call ____________ Bill.
A. his; him B. her; him C. her; her D. him; his
30. —What des ____________ brther d?
—He is a dctr.
A. Jim’s and Paul’s B. Jim and Paul C. Jim’s and Paul D. Jim and Paul’s
31. —Hey, the girl is nt Emma. She is Ella.
—Oh, srry. It’s my ____________.
A. classmate B. mistake C. sister D. friend
32. —Let’s ____________ at fur this afternn t play ftball.
—Gd idea.
A. meet B. spell C. cunt D. talk
33. —What can yu see ____________ the yard?
—An apple tree. There are many apples ____________ it.
A. in; in B. in; n C. n; in D. n; n
34. —____________ are yu?
— I’m twelve.
A. Hw many B. What class C. Hw ld D. What clr
35. —Can Mary d it all by herself?
—N, she can’t. She is still ____________ at this jb.
A. white B. blue C. red D. green
三、完形填空 (共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15分)
阅读下面短文。从短文后各网所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
A
A: Gd mrning!
B: Gd 36 !
A: What’s yur name?
B: 37 name is Fu Xing. And yur name?
A: Emma Miller.
B: Can yu 38 yur name?
A: E-M-M-A, Emma. M-I-LL-E-R, Miller.
B: What’s this 39 yur hand?
A: 40 is a ping-png bat. D yu like playing ping-png?
B: N, I dn’t. But I like playing basketball.
A: Nice t meet yu!
B: Nice t meet yu t!
36. A. mrning B. afternn C. evening D. night
37. Α. I B. Me C. My D. Mine
38. A. speak B. spell C. talk D. say
39. A. in B. n C. under D. behind
40. A. This B. That C. Its D. It
B
Hell, everyne! My name is David Green. David is my 41 name. I’m 13 years ld. I am 42 American by, but I am in Wuhan with my parents nw.
I 43 a friend. His name is Peter. He is frm England. His telephne number is 468-5149. Bb 44 I are in Wuhan. We are students in the same schl. It is very beautiful and we like it very much. But we aren’t in the same 45 . He is in Class 3, Grade 7. I am in Class 1, Grade 7. Miss Wu is ur English 46 . She is 26. Her classes are 47 . We all like her. Mr Zha teaches us maths. He is nice and friendly. He likes t 48 me with my maths.
Lk! Sme things are in my pencil bx. 49 is that? It’s a ruler. It’s nice. I can spell it, R-U-L-E-R, ruler. Thse are my pencils. I like t use them t draw 50 .
41. A. first B. middle C. last D. full
42. A. a B. an C. the D. \
43. A. am B. is C. has D. have
44. A. s B. but C. and D. r
45. A. rm B. schl C. grade D. class
46. A. student B. girl C. teacher D. friend
47. A. bring B. interesting C. difficult D. funny
48. A. thank B. see C. meet D. help
49. A. Wh B. What C. When D. Where
50. A. pictures B. cards C. wrds D. phts
四、阅读理解 (共 15 小题，每小题 2分，满分 30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每篇材料后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出最佳答案。
A
Sme small things can make ur life easy and interesting. Here are sme interesting inventins (发明). Let’s see them tgether.
51. In which sectin f a newspaper can we read the passage?
A. SPORTS. B. SCIENCE. C. MUSIC. D. TRAVEL.
52. What can yu take t a party if yu want t be cl?
A. RGB LED Shades. B. Scrubba mini.
C. Eight Sleep Pd. D. Aut Sap Dispenser.
53. What can we knw abut Aut Sap Dispenser?
A. It’s frm Australia. B. It lks like a bag.
C. It has an LED light. D. It’s a nice ty.
54. What’s Serubba mini used fr?
A. Giving ut light. B. Washing hands.
C. Making clthes. D. Washing clthes.
55. What can the Eight Sleep Pd help yu d?
A. Sleep well. B. Lk cl. C. Eat well. D. Keep clean.
B
Han Zilin is frm Ningb, China. His English name is Finn. Fur peple are in his family. They are his father, his mther, his sister and him. The English name f his sister is Fila. She is three years lder than him. He likes his family very much.
His birthday is n 16th September. He is nly ten years ld. But he is a star nw. He can act very well. He plays in many films. Many peple like his perfrmance (表演) very much. He lves music t. He is gd at singing and dancing in his free time, he sings and dances. He als plays the guitar when he is free. Nw he can play it very well. He’s nt nly talented (有才艺的), but als very kind. He always helps peple.
56. Hw ld is Han Zilin’s sister?
A. Three. B. Seven. C. Ten. D. Thirteen.
57. What dcs Han Zilin ften d in his free time?
①sing sngs ②act in films ③dance ④play the guitar
A. ②③④ B. ①③④ C. ①②③ D. ①②④
58. What can yu knw frm the passage?
A. Han Zilin is a gd actr. B. Han Zilin lives in Hangzhu.
C. Han Zilin’s English name is Fila. D. Han Zilin’s birthday is n 16th Octber.
59. What may the writer talk abut next?
A. What he likes. B. Hw he helps peple.
C. Where he studies. D. Why he acts in films.
60. The best title fr the passage can be ____________.
A. The Kind Help B. A Ppular Film
C. The Talented Han Zilin D. A Happy Family
C
Friends are very imprtant, especially (尤其) fr students. They make yu laugh. They d many things tgether with yu, and they are there fr yu when yu are sad. Here is hw t make friends.
First, yu can talk with yur classmates. If yu just sit alne (独自) , yur classmates might nt cme t yu, because they may think yu want t stay alne. If yu talk t yur classmates, yu can get t knw them, and then becme friends with them.
Next, yu can find friends with cmmn interests (共同爱好). Jining a club is a gd way t d that. Fr example, ★ . There, many students als like science. Yu can talk with them.
When yu make new friends, yu need t be reliable (可靠的) t them. When yu say yu will d smething, d it. Fr example, if yu and yur friend agree t meet at 8 ’clck, dn’t be late. Yu shuld als keep yur friends’ secrets. Yu shuld be with yur friends when they need yu. If yu treat yur friends well, they will be nice t yu t.
Nw, d yu knw hw t make friends?
61. Why shuld students talk t their classmates?
A. Talking t thers is interesting. B. The teacher asks them t d that.
C. They can ask each ther fr help. D. They can knw their classmates well.
62. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ ?
A. jining a club is interestingB. science club has much fun
C. yu can jin the science clubD. there are many clubs in the schl
63. Hw can students find friends with cmmn interests?
A. By jining a club. B. By sending an email.
C. By asking them. D. By writing a blg (微博).
64. What can we knw frm the furth paragraph?
A. Students can be late when they meet their friends.
B. Students shuld d everything tgether with their friends.
C. Students can share the secrets f their friends with thers.
D. Students shuld be with their friends when they are in need.
65. Why des the writer write this passage?
A. T ask students t jin the schl clubs.
B. T teach students hw t make friends.
C. T tell students friends are imprtant.
D. T shw different kinds f friends.
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共 40分)
五、句型转换 (共10个空，每空1分，满分10分)
66. My grandpa has eight geese n the farm. (就划线部分提问)
____________ ____________ geese des my grandpa have?
67. That is a tmat. (变复数句子)
____________ are sme____________.
68. It’s a red flwer. (就划线部分提问)
____________ ____________ is the flwer?
69. Peter and Meimei are in Class 1. (变为同义句)
____________ are in the____________ class.
70. She has a new schlbag. (变一般疑问句)
____________ she____________ a new schlbag?
六、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
仔细阅读下面5个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构，句意和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
tidy / lives / schlbag /spell / bell / reads / behind
71. Oh, that’s the____________. Let’s g t class.
72. Yu need t keep yur rm____________.
73. Oh n. Lk there! Anther duck is____________ the big tree.
74. Pauline Lee____________ in Singapre with his big family.
75. My mum always ____________ me a stry at night.
七、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
Hell, my name is Wei Hua. I am a ____________ (76) (China) by, but nw I am at the Internatinal Schl f English in Lndn. I am in Class 2 with ther 23 students. The students in my class are frm many different ____________ (77) (cuntry). They are frm England, America, France and even Thailand. Our ____________ (78) (teacher) name is James Smith. He ____________ (79) (teach) us English. And he can speak Chinese very ____________ (80) (gd).
I live with an English family. They are very nice. There are 2 kids in the family. Their names are Jane and Rick. We are gd friends. Jane ____________ (81) I can lk after ur things well, but Rick can’t. Lk, this is his rm. It is nt tidy. Many things ____________ (83) (be) n the desk. They are ntebks, CDs, tapes, pens and pencils. One f his scks is under the bed ____________ (83) is the ther ne? We can’t see it! It’s 8 ’clck ____________ (84) the mrning nw. But Rick is still in bed. “Cme n! Yu are ging t be late!” his mther shuts at ____________ (85) (he). “N, Mm, tday is Saturday.” Rick says.
八、书面表达 (共1大题，满分15分)
假如你是李明，你校英语俱乐部正在开展”寻找最美全家福”的征集活动，你想参加，请根据以下内容提示介绍你的全家福。
内容提示：
Hw many peple are there in yur family?
What are they like?
What are their hbbies?
Smething mre abut yur family.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实姓名和所在学校名称等信息；词数 60-80；开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Hell, I’m Li Ming. Here is a pht f my family. ______________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案
一、听力部分： (每小题1分，共20分)
1-5 BCBAA 6-10 ВACВC 11-15 CВВАC16-20 ВCАCА
二、选择填空： (每小题1分，共15分)
21-25 DCBCA 26-30 CBAAD 31-35 BABCD
三、完形填空： (每小题1分，共15分)
36-40 ACBAD 41-45 ABDCD 46-50 CBDBA
四、阅读理解： (每小题2分，共30分)
51-55 BACDA 56-60 DBABC 61-65 DCADB
五、句型转换 (每空1分，满分10分)
66. Hw; many 67. Thse; tmates 68. What; cl (u) r69. They; same 70. Des; have
六、选词填空： (每小题1分，共5分)
71. bell 72. tidy 73. behind 74. lives 75. reads
七、阅读理解填词 (每小题1分，共10分)
76. Chinese 77. cuntries 78. teacher’s 79. teaches80. well
81. and 82. are 83. Where84. in 85. him
八、书面表达： (15分)
Hell, I’m Li Ming. Here is a pht f my family. There are three peple in my family---my father, my mther and me. My father is tall and handsme. He likes playing basketball in his free time and he plays very well. My mther is a teacher. She has lng black hair. She likes grwing flwers and ur hme is always full f flwers. I’m a student. I like playing ftball and I ften play with my classmates after schl.
I have a happy family and I lve it very much.
书面表达评分原则及各档次的给分范围和要求
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为20分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、语言和结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
(1) 对内容提示的覆盖情况以及表达的清楚程度和合理性。
(2) 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性和恰当性。
(3) 上下文语意的逻辑性和连贯性。
3. 评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意：
(1) 词数少于 60 的，酌情给分。
(2) 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3) 书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档次： (17~20 分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达清晰、合理；使用了恰当的词汇和语法结构，且基本无错误；上下文语意连贯、逻辑合理。
第四档次： (13-16分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达比较清晰、合理；使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能 有少量错误，但不影响理解；上下文语意比较连贯、逻辑比较合理。
第三档次： (9-12分)
覆盖了大部分内容提示，表达基本清楚、合理；使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解；上下文语意基本连贯、逻辑基本合理。
第二档次： (5-8 分)
覆盖了部分内容提示，所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解；上下文语意不够连贯、逻辑不够合理。
第一档次： (1-4 分)
覆盖了少量内容提示，所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构非常单调，错误很多，严重影响理解；上下文语意不连贯、逻辑不合理。
注意：如表达出现以下情况：未能传递任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。建议判零分。What is this? It is a pair f glasses. The glasses are clrful, bright and amazing. A pair f glasses is abut $129. There are clrful LED lights in the glasses. Wear the glasses and yu’ll lk cl at the party.
Is it a ty fr kid? N, it’s a hand washer. Put yur hands under it. It gives yu liquid sap (洗手液) Its LED light will be n fr 10 secnds. In this way, yu will knw hw lng yu shuld wash yur hands.
Scrubba mini is a very small washing bag. It’s frm Australia. It’s abut 36 cm high. Just put water int it, and then rub (搓) the bag with yur hands. It takes nly 30 secnds t clean a T-shirt.
Is this a bed? Yes, it is. But it’s very special. It can change its temperature (温度). In this way, peple wn’t feel t ht r t cld. They can sleep well.