武汉市洪山区2024-2025学年上学期期末七年级英语试卷（word版含答案）

这是一份武汉市洪山区2024-2025学年上学期期末七年级英语试卷（word版含答案），共9页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，词与短语填空，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节，满分25分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面 5 个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有 5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Yes, I d. B. Music. C. Sure.
2. A. Drama club. B. Yes, I can. C. In Rm 303.
3. A. On 15th July. B. In the mrning. C. At 6: 30.
4. A. 30 yuan. B. 5 kils. C. Delicius.
5. A. It’s Ms Ga. B. It’s my mther’s. C. Next t the windw.
第二节 (共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. Which class starts at 8 ’clck?
A. Gegraphy. B. Bilgy. C. IT.
7. What special day d the speakers talk abut?
A. PLA Day. B. CPC Funding Day. C. China’s Natinal Day.
8. What des the man usually d befre 10 in the evening ?
A. Watch TV. B. Read bks. C. G t bed.
9. What des Mike think f histry?
A. Hard. B. Imprtant. C. Interesting.
10. What fd wuld Bill like t learn t ck?
A. Map tfu. B. Pizza. C. Hamburgers.
11. What may the wman say next?
A. I have n idea. B. Here yu are. C. Yes, please.
12. What is Tim’s favrite sprt?
A. B. C.
第三节 (共 13 小题，每小题 1 分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、 B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
13. Wh can cme t Jenny’s party?
A. Her friends. B. Her classmates. C. Her family members.
14. What kind f party des Jenny want?
A. A mvie night. B. A game night. C. A music night.
15. What des Jenny need t d next?
A. G shpping. B. Ask Binbin fr help. C. Make a t-d list.
听下面一段对话，回答 16 至18三个小题。
16. Hw many subjects des Sam have?
A. 6. B. 7. C. 8.
17. What is Sam’s favrite fd fr lunch?
A. Ht dgs. B. Vegetables. C. Fruit.
18. What d students usually d frm 6 t 8 in the evening?
A. Study and d hmewrk. B. Have dinner and g t bed. C. Play games and exercise.
听下面一段对话，回答 19至 21三个小题。
19. Hw d students spend their break time?
A. By studying in the classrm. B. By ding sme exercise. C. By eating healthy fd.
20. What helps students make gd use f the breaks?
A. An art shw. B. A new playgrund. C. A reading crner.
21. What can students d n the “Happy Farm”?
A. Enjy great paintings. B. Talk with each ther. C. Feed farm animals.
听下面一段独白，回答 22 至 25四个小题。
22. Hw are many schls ften like n weekends?
A. Quiet. B. Fun. C. Special.
23. Hw d the students at Furng schl chse a club?
A. With their parents’ help. B. By their grades. C. By their interests.
24. What club des Huang Ying jin?
A. The rbtics club. B. The ping-png club. C. The bk club.
25. What des Xia Hui think f bks?
A. Cl. B. Bring. C. Useful.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
从题中所给的A、B、 C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。将代表该答案的字母在答题卡上相应的位置涂黑。
26. The underlined letter in ____________ has different prnunciatin frm thers.
A. Yes B. why C. ygurt D. year
27. The underlined part in ____________ has the same prnunciatin as “ear”.
A. Wear B. here C. sure D. share
28. —D yu find the maths class interesting?
—____________. It is a little hard fr me.
A. Yu name it B. I can make it C. Exactly D. Nt really
29. —Yu have the ____________ t learn English well. Hw d yu d it?
— Thanks! I listen and read a lt and try t use it in everyday life.
A. ability B. symbl C. celebratin D. prblem
30. — What time d yu usually ____________ in the mrning?
—At arund 6. And then I brush my teeth and get dressed.
A. mark B. finish C. break D. rise
31. After spending lng hurs ____________ fr it, tday teachers and students can enjy the New Year’s shw in the schl hall.
A. preparing B. remembering C. chsing D. discvering
32. I ften ck fr the family and help with husewrk at hme. I think it is my duty t d smething ____________ fr my parents.
A. meaningful B. surprising C. exciting D. magic
33. There are mre than 20 different kinds f clubs in ur schl. Yu are free t jin ____________ club that interests yu.
A. sme B. bth C. all D. any
34. — New AI can ____________ different prblems in a very shrt time.
—Amazing! It’s time fr schl t teach students t make gd use f AI
A. blw ut B. act ut C. wrk ut D. get ut
35. — Try t be quick! We meet at 5 ’clck fr the film.
—Oh, n! It’s 5: 10 nw. We’re late ____________.
A. then B. sn C. already D. nly
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
It is Friday afternn. The students are having the last 36 f this week. At the end f the class, the teacher 37 the students t bring sme tmates in a bag t schl the next Mnday. “And yu shuld give each tmat a 38 f the persn (人) yu dn’t like. Fr example, if yu dn’t like five persns, yu shuld bring 39 tmates.” the teacher says.
The students dn’t knw why, but they feel happy 40 they dn’t need t d hmewrk at the weekend. On Mnday, they all bring 41 . Sme have tw, sme have six, and sme 42 have twenty in their bags.
The teacher says, “All f yu have t take yur bags 43 yu t the places yu g t fr a week.” The students says “yes” happily. Then it is Friday again. The tmates’ smell (气味) are nt 44 “Hw d yu 45 this week?” the teacher asks. All the students cmplain (抱怨) abut the smell. Sme als say their bags are really heavy (重的) because they take 46 tmates.
The teacher smiles and says, “These tmates are similar t what yu take in yur 47 . When yu dn’t like smene, yu take that hatred (厌恶) with yu. If yu can’t stand (忍受) the smell and these heavy tmates fr nly a (n) 48 then 49 can yu stand bad feelings when yu take them every day? “
The students lk at their tmates and 50 what the teacher’s wrds mean: they shuld always keep gd things in mind.
36. A. talk B. game C. lessn D. test
37. A. asks B. helps C. shws D. sends
38. A. price B. name C. nte D. date
39. A. tw B. five C. six D. twenty
40. A. if B. when C. befre D. because
41. A. students B. persns C. tmates D. schls
42. A. usually B. even C. ften D. als
43. A. fr B. t C. n D. with
44. A. bad B. nice C. delicius D. different
45. A. stay B. lk C. study D. feel
46. A. gd B. small C. many D. funny
47. A. bag B. classrm C. mind D. head
48. A. day B. week C. night D. afternn
49. A. what B. where C. hw D. why
50. A. spell B. get C. chse D. mark
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
51. All the news abve has smething t d with ____________.
A. histry B. bks C. art D. pictures
52. The bilingual bk is special because ____________.
① it is in bth English and Chinese ② it has mre than 150 large pictures
③ it cmes ut after 300 days ④ it has easy-t-knw wrds
A. ①②④ B. ②③④ C. ①②③ D. ①③④
53. What wuld be a gd heading fr the secnd piece f news?
A. Shws fr Great Artists B. A Shw f the Back Art
C. Arund 100 Pictures D. The Early Art in Iraq
54. Peple may ____________. if they g t the Super Sample shw in Shenzhen.
A. walk quickly B. learn abut Beijing Opera
C. becme great artists D. think abut sme questins
55. It is clear that ____________.
A. there is a special art shw in the US
B. peple finish the bilingual bk easily
C. the Walking Persn wants t g t Shenzhen
D. sme pictures are back t Iraq after abut 20 years
B
What clur is the sea? It’s blue. What clur is the grass? It’s green. What clur is the snw? It’s white. Everything has its wn clur.
In an art class, ur art teacher says, “Red, blue and green are three primary clurs (三原色).” If we put red and green tgether, we can get yellw. If we put red and yellw tgether, we can get range. That’s interesting.
Different clurs can give us different feelings and they have different meanings. The same clur als has different meanings in different places. In China, peple like red very much. Because they think red can give gd luck t them. But in Thailand, it is a bad clur.
In mst cuntries, peple like green, but peple frm England and Japan dn’t like it. In Australia, peple think black cats can give them gd luck. But in America, peple prefer white cats. They’re cute animals and they bring gd luck t peple.
In ur lives, we can learn abut the meanings f different clurs. Then we can use clurs in a right way.
56. What are the three primary clurs?
A. White, green and brwn. B. Red, blue and green.
C. Orange, green and brwn. D. Orange, black and white.
57. In which cuntry d peple think red is bad?
A. In China. B. In Japan. C. In Thailand. D. In England.
58. What des the underlined wrd “prefer” mean in Paragraph 4?
A. Lve. B. Call. C. Lse. D. Draw.
59. Where is this passage mst prbably frm?
A. A strybk. B. An art bk. C. A travel bk. D. A music bk.
60. The writer writes the passage t tell us ____________.
A. clurs and animals B. black cats and white cats
C. different meanings f clurs D. Chinese peple’ s favurite clurs
C
At schl, students learn sme different subjects in the classrm. These days, a new subject becmes ppular (受欢迎的) . That is schl gardening. Students learn it utside the classrm.
★ . Sme teachers, hwever, are finding gd ways t make it wrk. The schl garden may be very small. Hwever, students can have a lt f fun in it. At first, teachers decide (决定) what vegetables t grw. Then they grw them with students. It is nice fr the students t get a tmat, wash it and eat it right in the garden, s tmates are their favrites.
Gardening is nt nly an interesting subject, but als a practical subject. It teaches students a lt. Sme vegetables are easy t grw, but thers need a lng time. This can teach students patience (耐心). With gardens, kids get t see a beginning, a middle and an end t their wrk. When wrking with thers, they can als learn sme teamwrk skills (技巧).
Gardening is nt just a hbby, it’s a life skill.
61. Where d students learn gardening?
A. In the classrm. B. Outside the classrm.
C. In the teaching building. D. In the cuntryside.
62. What’s the best fr “ ★ ” in Paragraph 2?
A. It’s difficult t keep a schl gardening gingB. Eating vegetables is gd fr students
C. Students are interested in gardeningD. Teachers like teaching students t grw plants
63. What can students learn frm gardening?
A. The way t eat tmates. B. A skill t keep animals.
C. Patience and teamwrk. D. Hw t chse gardening places.
64. The underlined wrd “practical” in the passage means ____________ in English.
A. easy B. bad C. helpful D. funny
65. What’s the best title fr the passage?
A. Healthy Vegetables B. Different Subjects in the Schl
C. Ways t Grw Vegetables D. Gardening — a New Schl Subject
第 Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共 40 分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，用方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使短文在结构、语意和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
fund / t / fall in lve with / really / useful / by / remember
PAWS fr Reading is a prject t get kids t read bks in a fun way. In the prject, kids are happy t enjy reading a lt and____________ (66) the stries in the bks with animals next t him/her.
“I feel like I wuld stay here fr tw hurs. I g arund t read ____________ (67) animals. It’ very ____________ (68) fr me t learn, “ says Sfia, a 5-year-ld girl in the prject. Sfia’s father, Nick says, “It’s exciting t see my daughter____________ (69) reading. I think it is ____________ (70) nice fr my daughter t have fun and learn by reading t smene else.”
六、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
Ging t a new schl can be difficult fr any student, but nt fr 13-year-ld Jimmy. He ____________ (71) (meet) a grup f friends. They are very nice and they really want ____________ (72) (help) him.
Jimmy starts the new schl year at ____________ (73) middle schl with a secret (秘密) . His right hand desn’t fully frm (完全形成). “In the first ____________ (74) (day) f schl, I make sure my classmates dn’t see my right hand,” he says.
____________ (75) his maths teacher knws his secret at last. He tells Jimmy that all his classmates may help. Jimmy says, “They are very ____________ (76) (friend). I get a big surprise when they ask me if I’d like a prsthetic hand (假手) . And I say yes ____________ (77) (happy).”
The grup f Jimmy’s friends then ges t wrk. With a 3D printer (打印机), they make a 3D-printed hand ____________ (78) Jimmy. The next day, Jimmy starts t play basketball with it fr the ____________ (79) (ne) time.
“I want t thank them all. They change ____________ (80) (I) life, “Jimmy says.
七、书面表达 (本题20分)
某英文周刊正在组织以”My Middle Schl Life”为题的征文活动。请你根据以下内容提示，谈谈你的中学生活吧！
内容提示：
Hw is yur daily rutine like?
What is yur favurite subject?
Which club are yu in?
Smething mre abut yur middle schl life.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息；词数80词左右；标题和开头已给出；不计入总词数。
My Middle Schl Life
Hell, everyne. I’d like t share my middle schl life with yu. _________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
参考答案
一、听力测试 (共25分，每小题1分)
1-5 BACAB 6-10 ВCACA 11-15 BAAAC16-20 BACBA 21-25 CACBC
二、选择填空 (共10分，每小题1分)
26-30 BBDAD 31-35 AADCC
三、完形填空 (共15分，每小题1分)
36-40 CABBD 41-45 CBDBD 46-50 CCBCB
四、阅读理解 (共30分，每小题2分)
51-55 CABDD 56-60 ВСAВС 61-65 BACCD
五、词与短语填空 (共10分，每小题2分)
66. remember 67. t 68. useful 69. fall in lve with70. really
六、综合填空 (共10分，每小题1分)
71. meets 72. t help 73. a 74. days 75. But
76. friendly 77. happily 78. fr 79. first 80. my
七、书面表达 (共20分)
One pssible versin
My Middle Schl Life
Hell, everyne. I’d like t share my middle schl life with yu.
I usually get up at 6: 30 and have breakfast at seven. I have eight lessns frm 8 a. m. t 5 p. m. After schl, I ften d my hmewrk and exercise. As fr my favurite subject, English always cmes first because I’m interested in it. And I’m in the English club because I can make new friends with the same hbby. Besides, there are many activities in my schl, such as the reading crner and the sprts meeting.
All in all, my schl life is busy but interesting.
书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为20分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、语言和结构三个方面考虑，具体为： (看规范，读思维) (1) 对内容提示的覆盖情况以及表达的清楚程度和合理性。
(2) 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性和恰当性。
(3) 上下文语意的逻辑性和连贯性。
3. 评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 (先归档，再定分)
4. 评分时还应注意：
(1) 词数少于 60 的，或书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情给分。 (降低1个档次)
(2) 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档次： (17-20分) (五档提倡丰富性和多样性)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达清晰、合理；使用了恰当的词汇和语法结构，且基本无错误；上下文语意连贯、逻辑合理。
(内容提示无缺项、语言准确、逻辑缜密、错点s2-3个、书写美观，建议判17分) 第四档次： (13-16分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达比较清晰、合理；使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有少量错误，但不影响理解；上下文语意比较连贯、逻辑比较合理。
(词法错误s4-5个、句法错误 1-2个，建议判13分；较之好者，考虑档内高分) 第三档次： (9-12 分)
覆盖了大部分内容提示，表达基本清楚、合理；使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解；上下文语意基本连贯、逻辑基本合理。基
(只有1-2个表述正确句、其他仅能表意、有多处词法句法错误，建议判9分；较之好者，考虑档内高分)
第二档次： (5-8 分)
覆盖了部分内容提示，所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解；上下文语意不够连贯、逻辑不够合理。
(有三个内容提示和 1-2个有表意功能的句子，建议判5分；较之好者，考虑档内高分) 第一档次： (1-4 分)
覆盖了少量内容提示，所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构非常单调，错误很多，严重影响理解；上下文语意不连贯、逻辑不合理。
注意： 如表达出现以下情况之一，建议判零分。
1) 未能传递任何信息； 2) 内容太少，无法评判；
3) 所写内容均与题目要求内容提示无关或所写内容无法看清。
Bilingual (双语的) Bk n Chinese Traditinal Opera
After 300 days’ hard wrk, a special bk, Yu Beijing, cmes ut. It talks abut the Beijing Opera in bth Chinese and English. It has mre than 150 large pictures and easy-t-knw wrds, s students frm bth China and ther cuntries can learn abut Beijing Opera easily.
_______________________________________________
There is a special art shw in Baghdad. It shws us the early great artists f Iraq. There are abut 100 pictures there. These pictures are lst (丢失) in 2003 because sme peple frm the US steal (偷) them , but nw they are back.
Famus Artist’s Large Sculpture (雕塑).
At the Super Sample shw in Shenzhen, yu can see a big sculpture— the Walking Persn. The sculpture lks like smene walking quickly. It makes yu think: Where des he begin? Where des he want t g? Why des he walk quickly?