湖北省丹江口市2024-2025学年九上期中英语试题(word版含答案）

这是一份湖北省丹江口市2024-2025学年九上期中英语试题(word版含答案），共13页。试卷主要包含了选择题的作答，非选择题的作答等内容，欢迎下载使用。
九年级英语试题
(本试卷共 12 页，满分 120 分，考试时间 130 分钟)
★ 祝考试顺利 ★
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上指定位置。
2.选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3.非选择题的作答：用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4.考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
笔试部分 (90分)
一、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My grandfather ften said “I wn’t” t shw his dislike f dishnesty（不诚实）. When he was yung, he wrked 1 a furniture（家具）maker. One day, a neighbr invited him t make sme furniture. When arriving, he nticed the wd prvided was a little 2 , s he said, “I wn’t start right away.” He chse t let the wd dry fr a mnth. He knew wrking with wet wd culd cause 3 later n.
Arund the same time, anther furniture maker was als asked fr a 4 jb by a different family. Unlike my grandfather, he 5 wrking right away. As a result, the neighbr started dubting my grandfather, thinking he was trying t make mre mney by 6 the wrk. Hwever, my grandfather waited 7 . He wanted the best quality fr the furniture he was making.
A mnth later, the ther furniture maker received his 8 and went back hme. My grandfather began t 9 strng and beautiful furniture when the wd was cmpletely dry. A few mnths passed and the furniture made by that maker began t break. The neighbr then regretted 10 my grandfather and said srry t him. Peple came t understand his 11 and skill, spreading his fame far and wide.
Influenced by my grandfather, my father als fllws the 12 f “I wn’t”. He always prvides the freshest fd, which makes his restaurant very 13 in twn. Once a trader wanted t sell sme cheap but smelly seafd t my father, he said “N!” and stpped the 14 .
Nw, my brther and I keep in mind 15 ur grandfather and father taught us. Thrugh ups and dwns in life, we’ve cme t deeply understand ur family value behind this saying—t be truthful and hnest.
1.A. byB. asC. likeD. with
2.A. hardB. lightC. wetD. sft
3.A. fireB. illnessC. prblemsD. pllutin
4.A. magicB. similarC. nrmalD. special
5.A. beganB. canceledC. keptD. stpped
6.A. checking utB. putting ffC. giving upD. turning dwn
7.A. patientlyB. excitedlyC. sadlyD. wrriedly
8.A. fdB. furnitureC. wd D. mney
9.A. cleanB. mveC. makeD. repair
10.A. answeringB. believingC. cmfrtingD. dubting
11.A. hnestyB. fairnessC. lveD. pliteness
12.A. jyB. planC. valueD. shape
13.A. beautifulB. cnvenientC. ppularD. peaceful
14.A. cmpetitinB. businessC. interviewD. survey
15.A. what B. hw C. when D. why
二、阅读理解 (共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分)
第一节 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读表格，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个与表格内容相符的最佳选项。
A
Chinese knt(中国结)is a knt that is wven(编）frm a single rpe t be different shapes. Each shape has its wn meaning.Nw yu can see it as a decratin(装饰物) r a gift fr friends. Peple can use rpes f different clrs t weave a Chinese knt, but they usually chse red because it means gd luck.
The Chinese knt has a lng histry. Peple might have riginally made them t recrd infrmatin and send messages befre they started t use wrds. It is
well-knwn that the knts were used fr decratin and t express thughts and feelings in the Tang Dynasty. They were later ppular in the Ming and Qing dynasties.But it didn’t becme a flk art truly until the Qing Dynasty.
Even tday, Chinese knts hld sentimental (情感的)value when gifted r passed dwn thrugh families. Fr example, lvers may give a knt t shw their lve. The “duble happiness knt" is given and used at weddings t express each ther’s lve and wishes fr grwing ld tgether.Knts are als used when peple make traditinal clthes in China. They can play the rle f buttns(纽扣).
Many turists like t buy Chinese knts as gifts fr their friends during their trips and there are s many places where peple can buy Chinese knts like Yiwu Cmmdity Market. There are many different types f beautiful Chinese knts, which are ppular with custmers.
16. Which part f a Chinese knt mainly shws its different meaning?
A. The clr. B. The size.
C. The rpe. D. The shape.
17. When did Chinese knts becme a flk art truly?
A. In the Tang Dynasty. B. In the Sng Dynasty.
C. In the Qing Dynasty. D. In the Ming Dynasty.
18. Which f the fllwing matches the example in Paragraph 3?
A. B. C. D.
19. Frm the last paragraph, we knw it’s ________t buy Chinese knts.
A.useful B. expensive
C. imprtant D. cnvenient
20. In which part f a newspaper may yu read the passage?
A. Magic Wrld. B. Chinese Culture.
C. Schl Time. D. Scientific Study.
B
D yu ften listen t music at lud vlume(音量) ? Over ne billin(十亿) yung peple are at risk f hearing lss(听力损失) because f listening t lud nise fr lng perids f time. Listening t music r watching a TV shw at lud vlume is bad fr yur hearing.
The United Natins has standards fr safe listening. It is nt safe t listen t sunds that are luder than 85 dB(分贝) fr eight hurs r 100 dB fr 15 minutes. The sund f a busy rad is abut 85 dB and the sund f a rck cncert can be abut 100 dB.
Lud nise is harmful t the inner ears(内耳). Mst f us are brn with abut 16,000 hair cells(毛细胞) in ur inner ears. Hwever, listening t lud nise fr a lng time can make these cells wrk t hard and cause sme f them t die. This is what causes hearing lss.
Sme peple might think that their music isn’t all that lud. But this can depend n where yu are. Fr example, if yu are in a nisy place like the subway, yu might turn up yur music t lud withut realizing it. Later, when yu listen t it at the same vlume in a quiet place, yu might feel uncmfrtable.
The Wrld Health Organizatin said the " safe level" fr mst sunds is belw 80 dB fr 5 hurs a day. A level f 80 dB is rughly equal t(大约相当于) the nise f a subway.
21. Why are many yung peple at risk f hearing lss accrding t the passage?
A. Because they watch TV every day.
B. Because they listen t music every day.
C. Because they listen t lud nise fr a lng time.
D. Because they listen t lud nise in the subway.
22. What sund level can a rck cncert be?
A. Abut 80 dB. B. Abut 100 dB.
C. Abut 85 dB. D. Abut 180 dB.
23. What is lud nise harmful t?
The eyes. B. The brain.
C. The heart. D. The inner ears.
24. What can yu learn frm the passage?
A. We feel cmfrtable when listening t lud music in a quiet place.
B. Mst peple are brn with abut 1, 600 hair cells in the inner ears.
C. It is nt safe t listen t sunds that are luder than 85 dB fr 15 minutes.
D. Belw 80 dB fr up t 35 hurs a week is the " safe level" fr mst sunds.
25. What’s the best title f the passage?
A. Lud Nise Is Harmful t Hearing.
B. Keep the Lud Vlumes.
C. The Risk f Listening t Music.
D. Lud Nise Stps Ears frm Wrking.
C
What will the wrld f tmrrw lk like? Many peple tday believe that technlgy is ging t help slve sme f the mst difficult prblems we have n the earth tday. New technlgy may slve ld prblems, and it may als create new nes.___________ Each has advantages and disadvantages, as these three examples.
When we dream abut the future, many f us think that we will be able t fly t the skies in ur wn persnal flying car. We culd fly at 480 km per hur, aviding traffic lights and busy rads. Hwever, there will be prblems with traffic cntrl.
3D printing is anther new technlgy fr the future. 3D printers are already used t make life—size mdels f car parts, and man-made bdy parts, such as ears. As we mve int the future, 3D printing will change the way we make things and the way we treat sick peple. The disadvantage is that such a machine is very expensive.
Finally, peple are trying t build a rbt suit. This is an electrnic suit. It allws peple t lift heavy things and walk a lng way. It might help peple walk again after an illness r an accident. Hwever, ne disadvantage at the mment is cst.
Lking ahead, it is easy t imagine a future. We’ll be able t fly t wrk, print ut a new pair f shes r lift a car abve ur heads. Althugh there are sme prblems t slve befre all f this is pssible, we can certainly dream f a wrld. In this wrld, technlgy makes peple’s lives easier and safer. It can slve sme f the mst difficult prblems we have tday.
26. Which might be the missing sentence in Paragraph 1?
A. Technlgy causes lts f prblems.
B. N technlgy is perfect.
C. We can’t live well withut technlgy.
D. New prblems will be slved by technlgy.
27. What prblems may peple meet if the flying cars becme ppular accrding t Paragraph 2？
A. Harder traffic cntrl.B. Mre air pllutin.
C. Mre traffic lights.D. Busier rads.
28. What can a rbt suit help peple d? ________
① Prduce electricity. ② Lift heavy things.
③ Walk a lng way. ④ Walk again after an illness.
A. ①②③B. ①③④
C. ②③④D. ①②④
29. What is the structure (结构) f the text?
A.B.C.D.
30. What des the writer think f new technlgy?
A. He dubts it. B. He lks frward t it.
C. He can’t stand it. D. He desn’t mind it.
第二节 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读短文，从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Seeing is believing, but if ur eyes dn’t wrk, hw can we see t believe(相信)?
31 Because they use their eyes t much withut a rest. But what can we d t prtect ur eyes?
Lve yur eyes. Every day, when we pen ur eyes, we can see the lvely friends and parents, beautiful flwers and green trees. 32 It is like a huse withut any light. Hw imprtant ur eyes are!
33 When yu use the cmputer fr an hur r tw, it is time t stp t have a 30-minute rest. At schl, yu need t d eye exercises. It is helpful t clse yur eyes fr a few minutes. Yu can als lk at green trees r grass during the break.
34
Have gd habits (习惯). When ding hmewrk and reading, it is imprtant t keep a distance f 30cm between yur eyes and yur bks. 35 Befre and after swimming, use eye drps. Eat smething healthy fr eyes, such as carrts, fish and eggs.
三、短文填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读短文，从方框中选出正确的词并用其适当形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
Teens will grw up sme day, leaving their parents and facing the challenges in life alne, s they shuld 36 basic life skills and frm gd wrking habits.
The gvernment has 37 attentin t the spirit f wrking hard. 38 , this has been verlked(忽视) in recent years. Many teenagers d nt realize the 39 f wrking hard. A teenage girl named Nancy never helps ut arund the huse. Once her mther was n vacatin fr a week, leaving her alne at hme. When her mther came back hme, she fund everything was in a 40 .
Schls play an imprtant rle in teaching students the value f wrking hard. Primary and middle schls shuld 41 students with hard- wrking spirit curses every week. T ur jy, sme schls has ffered a field t plant their favrite vegetables t each class . Fr example, N. 38 Middle Schl in Hefei set up a 500-m² farm n an pen platfrm(露天平台) f their teaching building. Each class is asked t grw and pick vegetables there. Students all felt quite 42 .
Children shuld als be 43 t learn hw t d chres at hme. Teens shuld master ne r tw life skills every year. Thse skills can 44 cking, washing their clthes and tidying their rms. The basic skills may help teenagers t 45 the prblems they will meet in the future.
四、读写结合(共两节，满分25分)
第一节 任务型阅读 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读短文,回答问题 (请注意每小题的答题与词数要求)。
A village primary schl in Yunnan Prvince has amazed everyne wh knws it. The schl with mre than 1,000 teachers and students has achieved fd self- sufficiency(自给自足) by ffering farming fr students.
Jingwai Mingde Primary Schl is made up f five lcal village primary schls. Since 2008, it has been paying attentin t students’ develpment in an all- arund(全方面的) way thrugh labr educatin.
Prvided with 150 mu f field, the schl has fed itself since then. On the field, students can take part in farm chres.
Mst f the time, full-time staff are respnsible fr the land, but students d farm chres twice a week with the help f the teachers. After entering Grade 3, each class is given a piece f land t plant vegetables r keep animals. The vegetables and animals will be used fr their daily meals, In the prcess f planting, students gradually feel the hardship(艰难) f farm wrk and will value the fd mre in the future.
There is als a z in the schl raising sme special animals. Every time students see these animals, they always reach ut their hands excitedly t feed them. While pening up their hrizns(眼界) , students can als learn hw t get alng with animals.
The schl built a greenhuse with fruit trees and medicinal herbs(药草), Besides listening t teachers in the classrm, students are als able t learn abut knwledge f plants in nature.
Accrding t headmaster Lei Yingtei, thrugh labr educatin, students have mastered basic life skills, develped a sense f teamwrk, as well as imprved their perfrmance f cultural curses. “Children wh have nt kissed the land will nt have a cmplete childhd. The farm labr will build excellent characters that last a lifetime” he said.
46. In their land, the students can d farm chres, such as
(10个词以内)
47. Students can pen up their hrizns, and learn hw t get alng with animals
because in the schl (10个词以内)
48. The schl grws in the greenhuse. (10个词以内)
49. Why did the schl set up a greenhuse with fruit trees and medicinal herbs?
（10个词以内)
50. In yur pinin, what can the labr class help students d?(20个词以内)


书面表达(共1题，满分15分)
假如你是李华，你的外国朋友Jhn对中国传统文化和中文学习很感兴趣，写信来询问你中秋节的传统习俗及好的学习中文方法，请你根据以上信息写一封回信。
写作要求：
1.根据要点提示，可以适当发挥；
2.文中不得出现真实的姓名和校名。
3.注意书写工整、语句通顺、句意连贯；
4.词数100词左右。(开始语和结束语已经给出，不计入词数)
参考词汇：carry wishes t..., admire, practice, learn frm
Dear Jhn,
I’m glad t knw that yu are interested in Chinese culture and the ways f Chinese learning.









Yurs,
Li Lhua
听力部分 (30分)
第一节 听短对话，选择图片。(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的内容，从所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中，选出与你所听内容相符的图片。听完每段对话后，你将有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听一遍。
A. B. C.
D. E.F.
1._________ 2._________ 3._________ 4._________ 5._________
第二节 听短对话，选择答案。(共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
下面你将听到5段短对话。根据你所听到的对话内容，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间作答和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遍。
6. Which wrd des the girl hear?
A. /ɡreІps/ B. /ɡru:ps/ C. /ɡrəųps/
7. Where des the man want t g prbably?
A. A supermarket.B. A fruit stre.C. A service center.
8. What des the girl mean?
A. Peter gets up late. B. Peter is lazy.C. Peter is hard-wrking.
9. What des the girl think f the talk shw?
A. It’s interesting. B. It’s humrus.C. It’s exciting.
10. When was the telephne invented?
A. In 1786. B. In 1867.C. In 1876.
第三节 听长对话，选择答案。(共7小题，每小题1.5分，满分10.5分)
下面你将听到3段长对话，根据你所听到的内容，从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出回答问题的最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完每段对话后，每小题你有5秒钟的时间作答。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段长对话，回答第11至12小题。
Hw ften des Kate use the cmputer?
A.Once a week. B.Twice a week.C.Every day.
12. Wh isn’t gd at math?
A. The by. B. The by’s brther.C. Kate’s brther.
听第二段长对话，回答第13至14小题。
13. Hw many times has Bill read the nvel?
A. Never. B. Twice. C. Three times.
14. What will the girl prbably d?
A. She will g t buy the nvel. B. She will brrw the nvel.
C. She will wrk in the bkshp.
听第三段长对话，回答第15至17小题。
15. What happened t Mike?
A. He passed the exam. B. He missed the exam. C. He failed the exam.
16. When was the exam?
A. Last week. B. Yesterday mrning. C. This mrning.
17. What will the by prbably d?
A. He will tell the truth. B. He will be angry. C. He will keep the secret.
第四节 听短文，填写表格。(共3小题，每小题1.5分，满分4.5分)
下面你将听到一段短文，根据你所听到的内容，填写表格中所缺单词，每空仅填一词。听短文前，你将有15秒钟的时间浏览表格。听完后，你将有30秒钟的时间作答。短文听两遍。
2024年九年级期中考试英语试题
参考答案及评分细则（202411）
一、完形填空（共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15 分）
1-5BCCBA 6-10 BADCD 11-15 ACCBA
评分细则：1—15 小题选对得分，反之不得分。
二、阅读理解（共 20 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
第一节
16-20 DCADB 21-25 CBDDA 26-30 BACDB
评分细则：16—30 小题选对得分，反之不得分。
第二节
31-35 FDABE
评分细则：31—35 小题选对得分，反之不得分。
三、短文填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
36. learn 37.paid 38.Sadly 39. imprtance 40. mess
41. prvide 42.excited 43. educated 44.invlve 45.slve
与本答案一致得分，反之不得分。
四、读写结合（共两节，满分 25 分）
第一节 任务型阅读（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
46. 原文创编:planting vegetables r keeping animals.
评分细则：要点齐全，词数超过规定扣0.5分；
要点齐全，句子表达有误，酌情扣0.5分。
原文创编:there is a z raising sme special animals.
评分细则: 词数超过规定扣0.5分；
内容答对了，但句子表达有误，酌情扣0.5分。
48.原文:fruit trees and medicinal herbs.
评分细则: 词数超过规定扣0.5分；
内容答对了，但句子表达有误酌情扣0.5分。
原文创编:Because they can learn abut knwledge f plants in nature.
50.原文创编：It can help them master basic life skills、develp a sense f teamwrk and imprve their perfrmance f cultural curses.(回答其中之一可得满分)
评分细则：本题因答案词数限制又要求用自己的话来回答，学生只有通过略改变原文内容或用自己的语言来表达。
符合题意，词数超过规定扣0.5分；
句子表达有误酌情扣0.5分；
抄原文未创编扣1分。
第二节 书面表达（共1题，满分15分） 略
书面表达评分细则
一、评分重点
评分时，以“内容要点”“语言表达”“逻辑连贯”和“紧扣主题”四个方面为重点。“内容要点”主要涉及是否有效地涵盖了题目的要求；“语言表达”着重关注考生在词、句、段、篇等各个层面的表达情况；“逻辑连贯”考查考生在句间和段落间的衔接词运用和语意连贯程度（逻辑合理）；“紧扣主题”则要求考生紧扣书面表达的主题，尤其注意不要跑题、不要写错体裁等。
二、评分方式
评分时，采用整体印象评分法。首先确定五类不同档次的分数，分别为“一档”“二档”“三档”“四档”“五档”，每档均有涉及“内容要点”“语言表达”“逻辑连贯”和“紧扣主题”等四个方面的细则。阅卷教师应依据这四个方面的总体印象给出相应的分数。
三、分档评分细则
一档（13 — 15分）
1. 覆盖所有内容要点，达到预期写作目的。
2. 结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法、词汇等方面错误较少，具备较强的语言运用能力，且书写规范，格式正确。
3. 能有效地使用常见连接词表示顺序和逻辑关系，连接信息，做到符合逻辑、意义连 贯。
4. 紧扣主题，无跑题、偏题等现象。
二档（10 — 12分）
1. 较好地完成了规定的写作任务，虽漏掉1、2处次重点写作信息，但基本上包含所有内容要点。
2. 结构较为完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少，格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
3. 能应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
4. 虽有少量无关信息，但基本能围绕主题。
三档（7 — 9分）
1. 基本上完成了规定的写作任务。重要的写作要点、内容信息有缺失。
2. 结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，但基本不影响理解。格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
3. 能应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容基本连贯。
4. 整体而言，基本能围绕主题，能看出写作意图。
四档（4 — 6分）
1. 未恰当完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点。
2. 结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多，影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
3 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
4. 主题不大明确，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
五档（0 — 3分）
1. 未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。未能理解写作要求，明显遗漏主要内容，只写出个别要点，写了一些无关内容。
2. 结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多，影响对写作内容的理解，书写不规范。
3. 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
4. 主题完全不明，信息未能传达给读者。
5. 无有效信息；照搬照抄试卷中原文；雷同试卷；答题区域空白等情况不得分。
英语试卷 听力部分
第一节 听短对话，选择图片。（共5小题，每题1.5分，满分7.5分）
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. F 5. C
第二节 听短对话，选择答案。（共5小题，每题1.5分，满分7.5分）
6.A 7. B 8. C 9. B 10.C
第三节 听长对话，选择答案。（共7小题，每题1.5分，满分10.5分）
11. A 12.B 13. B 14. A 15. C
16. B 17. A
第四节 听短文，填写表格。（共3小题，每题1.5分，满分4.5分）
18. France 19. pllutin 20.cities
填词评分细则：听对写对得1.5，否则为0分
A. Remember t rest yur eyes.
B. In these ways, yur eyes will feel relaxed(放松).
C. The wrld is very beautiful.
D. Withut them, there is nly darkness.
E. We shuld never rub(摩擦) ur eyes with dirty fingers.
F. Tday mre and mre kids wear glasses befre ging t middle schl.
imprtant sad mess educate pay
slve excite invlve learn prvide
内容要点
写作参考
Intrduce the Mid-Autumn Festival
Time, custms, activities...
The ways f learning Chinese
Practice mre,
Learn frm mistakes...
Invite Jhn t China

Wrld Car Free Day
Wrld Car Free Day started in 18 , in 1998.
Sme French yung peple wanted a day withut cars because f the air and nise 19 .
Many Eurpean and Asian 20 began t take part in the activity.