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浙江省杭州市余杭区2024-2025学年八年级上学期期中英语试题
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这是一份浙江省杭州市余杭区2024-2025学年八年级上学期期中英语试题，文件包含浙江省杭州市余杭区2024-2025学年八年级上学期期中英语试题docx、听力录音202411期中8年级12分53秒mp3等2份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共11页， 欢迎下载使用。
1．本试卷分试题卷和答题卷两部分，满分120分。
2．答题前，必须在答题卷的密封区内填写校名、班级、姓名、座位号等。
3．所有答案都必须写在答题卷标定的位置上，务必注意试题序号和答题序号相对应。
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．Where did Tm g n vacatin?
A．He went t the beaches.
B．He went t the muntains.
C．He went t his friends’ huses.
2．Which sprt des the man speaker like best?
A．Swimming.B．Playing basketball.C．Running.
3．What percent f the students in Nancy’s class smetimes watch TV?
A．15%.B．25%.C.50%.
4．What des the wman speaker think f the game shw?
A．She can’t stand it.B．She desn’t mind it.C．She lves it.
5．Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A．In a library.B．In a bkstre.C．In a restaurant.
第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6．Hw ften des Jenny wrk fr the library?
A．Once a week.B．Once a mnth.C．Once a year.
7．What can Tm help t d in the library?
A．Clean up the library.
B．Find bks fr readers.
C．Put bks in the right places.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8．What’s James ding nw?
A．Planning a trip t Hubei.B．Having a histry class.C．Playing cmputer games.
9．Why des Linda knw abut Hubei well?
A．Because she lived in Hubei.
B．Because she visited it years ag.
C．Because she read smething nline.
10．What des Linda think f the lcal fd in Hubei?
A．It’s ht.B．It’s delicius.C．It’s dry.
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。
11．Which ne is Lily in the pht?
A．The ne with curly hair.
B．The ne with big eyes.
C．The ne with a black hat.
12．Where is her father in the pht?
A．On the left.B．In the middle.C．On the right.
13．What des her mum ften d with her?
A．Plays tennis.B．Reads bedtime stries.C．Plays chess.
14．Wh has a dg?
A．Lily’s brther.B．Lily’s cusin.C．Lily’s grandparents.
15．What des Lily think f her grandparents?
A．They like her best f their three grandchildren.
B．They are just as kind t all three grandchildren.
C．They dn’t like her brther r her cusin.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
16．Wh is nt happy abut the sfa?
A．Anna.B．Jane.C．Alan.D．Jhn.
17．Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A．The sfa is frm England.B．Alan’s family all like the sfa.
C．Anna thinks the sfa is expensive.D．The sfa suits Jane’s rm well.
18．What can we infer frm the custmer reviews?
A．Anna put the sfa up by herself.B．Jane ften g shpping nline.
C．Alan desn’t like white sfa.D．Jhn desn’t like the sfa at all.
B
Tm came t his teacher and asked him, “Sir, I have a questin. Hw many friends shuld a persn have-ne r many?”
“It is very simple,” the teacher answered. “Get me that red apple frm the highest branch（树枝）f the tree.” Tm lked up and said, “It’s t high! I can’t reach it.” “Ask a friend. Maybe he can help,” the teacher suggested. Tm called anther student and std n his shulders（肩膀）t reach the branch. “I still can’t reach it, sir,” said Tm sadly after the first try. “Dn’t yu have mre friends?” the teacher smiled. Tm asked mre friends t cme ver. They std n each ther’s shulders, trying t make a human pyramid（金字塔）. But the apple was s high that they culdn’t g higher and the pyramid fell. Tm still culdn’t reach the apple. Then ne f the friends went hme, brught a ladder（梯子）and Tm finally picked the apple.
After getting the apple, the teacher asked, “S, d yu understand hw many friends a persn needs?”
“Yes, I d,” Tm said. “Many, s tgether we can wrk ut any prblem.”
“Sunds gd,” the teacher said. “Yu need as many friends as yu can. Amng them, there will be at least ne smart persn wh can think f a gd idea, like getting a ladder!”
19．What did the teacher ask Tm t d at first?
A．T pick the red apple fr him.B．T find the answer in bks.
C．T d his hmewrkD．T wrk with Tm’s friends.
20．Which f the fllwing is the right rder f Tm’s picking the apple?
①lked up under the tree ②climbed the ladder
③made a human pyramid ④ std n his friend’s shulders
A．①②③④B．②③①④C．④①③②D．①④③②
21．What can Tm learn frm his teacher?
A．He has as many friends as he needs.B．He needs at least ne smart friend.
C．He has t be friendly t all the friends.D．He shuld have many friends.
22．Hw did the teacher answer Tm’s questin?
A．By telling him a stry abut apples.B．By reading the answer.
C．By asking him t learn by ding.D．By drawing an apple tree.
C
Drbells are the bells（铃）fr peple t ring at a dr. When smene hears it, he r she can pen the dr. D yu knw that yu can ring a drbell fr fish, t?
Every spring, millins f fish migrate（洄游）alng the river in the city t find better places t lay eggs. But in the river, there are many lcks（水闸）. They stp fish frm swimming thrugh. Weerd Lck is in Utrecht, the furth largest city in the Netherlands. When fish get there, they have t wait a lng time befre the lck pens fr bats t pass thrugh. The lck keeper there is glad t pen the lck fr fish, but he cannt tell when fish want t get thrugh. S in 2021, Mark a scientist, came up with a gd idea t help slve this prblem— by using the fish drbell.
Under the water near the lck, there’s a camera. Peple frm arund the wrld can visit a website t see fish thrugh the camera. When yu see a grup f fish waiting, yu can ring the drbell n the screen. And when the lck keeper ntices it, he will pen the lck fr the fish.
In its first spring seasn in 2021, peple arund the wrld rang the fish drbell mre than100,000 times. If yu want t jin them t help fish, visit the website and ring the fish drbell next spring!
23．Why d fish migrate alng the river in the city?
A．T find better places t live.B．T g thrugh lcks.
C．T lay eggs.D．T see the camera.
24．Why did Mark want t help slve the prblem?
A．He wanted t stp the fish.
B．He wanted t invent a drbell.
C．He wanted t use the drbell.
D．He wanted t help the fish.
25．What can peple d thrugh the website?
A．Catch the fish.B．See the fish.C．Open the lck.D．Feed the fish.
26．What’s the text mainly abut?
A．Hw t help fish migrate.B．The migratin f fish.
C．The intrductin f drbellsD．The use f cameras in lcks.
D
①In mst places in the wrld tday, it is easy t find healthy fd. With supermarkets, buying healthy fd like fresh fruits, vegetables, fish, and meat is easy and cnvenient（便利的）. Hwever, it is als easy t find unhealthy fd tday. Supermarkets and ther stres sell gd fd, but they als sell frzen fds and junk fd like chips, candy, and ckies. A lt f fd tday has chemicals（化学药品）. Research has shwn that many f these chemicals are bad fr ur health. S did peple in the past eat healthier than we d tday?
②A century ag, peple didn’t eat junk fd r frzen fd. Instead, they ate natural fds withut chemicals. On the ther hand, their natural fds were nt always as gd as fd tday. In the past, meat ften came frm sick animals. It’s nt healthy t eat meat frm a sick animal. In mst places tday, laws make sure that fd is safe.
③In mst cuntries tday, we can buy a variety（各种）f fds. We can buy ranges in the winter and apples in the summer. Healthy fruits and vegetables are available（可获得的）at any time f year. These fds cme frm all ver the wrld. In the past, this kind f variety was nt pssible. Peple culd eat certain fds nly in certain seasns.
④We als eat much mre meat, sugar, fattening fds, and chemicals tday than peple did a century ag. Studies shw that these things can cause（引起）heart disease（疾病）and a variety f ther health prblems. Hwever, peple live much lnger nw. Tday, the average（平均）persn lives fr 70 t 80 years. Hwever,100 years ag, the average persn lived fr nly abut 50 years. Peple live lnger because we have better medicine nw. But peple als have lnger lives because healthy fd is usually available.
⑤S ________? Yes and n. Peple in the past did eat mre natural fd than we d nw. But, in sme ways, we als eat better tday. We can eat healthier tday than peple did in the past. We just have t chse t eat gd fds.
27．What makes fd unhealthy tday?
A．Sme f the chemicals.B．Sick animals.
C．Supermarkets and stres.C．Frzen fds.
28．Why can peple buy a variety f fds all year alng accrding t Paragraph 3?
A．Because supermarkets sell all kinds f fds.
B．Because peple need fds at any time f year.
C．Because transprtatin（交通运输）is mre cnvenient nw.
D．Because it’s easier t plant fruits and vegetables.
29．Which f the fllwing can be put in ________ in Paragraph 5?
A．did peple eat mre natural fd in the past?
B．did peple eat healthier in the past?
C．did the fd taste better in the past?
D．did the peple eat better in the past?
30．Which f the fllwing best shws the structure f the passage?
A．B．C．D．
第二节：任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
下面文章中有四处（第31～34题）需要添加小标题，请从方框中的A-E选项选出符合各段意思的小标题（其中一项是多余的），并回答第35小题。注意，请将第35小题的答案写在答题纸上非选择题部分的相应位置。
Hw t be Outging
If（如果）yu think yu are t shy and want t be a little utging, try the fllwing. Yu can make it.
31 There’s n need t hide it. When they get t knw yu are a shy kid, they’ll understand yu better. This als helps yu feel mre cmfrtable when talking with thers.
32 Smile t thers s they will think yu are friendly and easy t talk t. Remember that ther peple have feelings t and mst peple will stay away frm an angry-lking face.
33 Try t start a cnversatin. If yu find it hard t d s, say smething nice abut peple arund yu. Think abut hw great yu feel when smene says smething nice t yu. Desn’t it make yu want t keep talking t thse peple?
34 Dn’t waste time wrrying abut yur lks r if peple like yu. Think mre abut ways t enjy the party r the game.
Keep trying and ne day yu wn’t be “shy” anymre when yu talk t thers.
35．What will yu d if yu want t be utging?（不超过20个单词）
__________________________________________________________________________________________
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中选出一个最佳选项。
It’s always a gd thing t have a hbby. Fr Miss Patty, a schl bus driver in Erie Cunty, her 36 f knitting（编织）has made her really tuch the cmmunity.
Miss Patty always wanted t d 37 in her spare time t help the students. After a 38 with ne f the students, things tk a turn frm knitting ne hat t knitting mre hats.
“The ne by gets n the 39 , and he ges ‘what are yu ding?’ I said, ‘I’m 40 a hat. He said, ‘That wuld be 41 having such a warm hat in icy winter.’ S I said, ‘What 42 wuld yu like?’ That 43 everything,” Miss Patty tld the lcal（当地的）newspaper.
Several years have passed since that day, and Miss Patty has already knitted 7,083 44 fr students in her spare time. Smetimes she will get the 45 favrite clr befre she begins the prject.
What is mre mving is that Miss Patty buy all the materials（材料）using her wn 46 . Sme peple d give 47 gift cards arund the hlidays t help, but she still 48 the materials with a lt f her wn mney.
Alng with making hats fr the students that will keep them 49 , Miss Patty als gets praise（表扬）fr being a 50 friend t the students.
36．A．dreamB．planC．hbbyD．hpe
37．A．smethingB．everythingC．nthingD．anything
38．A．fightB．cnversatinC．gameD．class
39．A．trainB．batC．planeD．bus
40．A．thrwingB．cleaningC．makingD．washing
41．A．newB．hungryC．sadD．great
42．A．clrB．sizeC．kindD．price
43．A．startedB．savedC．meantD．shared
44．A．SkirtsB．scarfsC．hatsD．glves
45．A．parents’B．guests’C．students’D．friends’
46．A．timeB．mneyC．healthD．mind
47．A．themB．himC．yuD．her
48．A．puts nB．pays frC．brings utD．takes away
49．A．warmB．ppularC．differentD．busy
50．A．strangeB．funnyC．strictD．clse
第二节：词汇运用（共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A．将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
Talent shws are becming very ppular because they are exciting and allw peple t see thers’ special abilities. These shws lk fr 51 in different areas like singing, dancing, and magic. They attract a lt f peple wh want t shw their skills.
Hwever, nt everyne likes these shws. Sme peple think that the 52 f the perfrmers are nt real. They might say they are pr farmers, but 53 they are just actrs pretending t be smething they are nt.
But if yu dn’t take these shws t 54 , they can be a lt f fun t watch. The best part is that they give peple a chance t make their 55 cme true. S, talent shws are a way fr peple t enjy and supprt thers’ talents.
B．阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
Tim was a 56 （作家）wh lived in a small village. He liked t write sngs. He wasn’t 57 （富裕的）, but he was happy. He wanted t g t new places, but he culdn’t. One day, he wrte a sng abut the wrld 58 （在...之下）the sky. The sng was lud and fun.
Peple in his twn liked the sng a lt. It made them feel gd. His sng 59 （赢得）a singing cntest. The 60 （奖品）was a trip t a faraway place. Tim was excited t g n this trip.
He traveled and 61 （看见）many new things. He met peple with sad stries and happy stries. Sme stries were 62 （更糟的）than his, and sme were better. Tim wrte mre sngs abut the peple he met.
When he came back hme, he didn’t have mre mney, but he had many gd memries. He knew his sngs culd take him t different places in his 63 （头脑）. He was happy with his life, and he kept writing sngs that made peple smile. Tim’s sngs were like a lud and 64 （美丽的）vice that tld stries frm 65 （任何地方）in the wrld.
第三节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
One early mrning, I wke up by a telephne call. It was frm a taxi driver. He tld me he had my 66 （friend）cell phne（手机）.My friend Michael 67 （leave）it in the taxi the night befre. 68 driver called thers, but I was the first ne t answer his call.
It was 69 a rainy mrning. Fr taxi drivers in this big city, it’s the best time 70 （make）mney. He asked me where he culd drp the cell phne ff. I tld 71 （he）the street where I lived. Then I 72 （quick）jumped ut f bed and gt dressed, s I culd meet him at the crner.
When he arrived, I thanked him. And I was even 73 （happy）than my friend. He mved t this cuntry a few weeks ag— and I culd nly imagine（设想）hw imprtant his cell phne was t him!
I asked the taxi driver fr his name, s my friend culd thank him. He said my 74 （thank）were all that he needed. Then he drve ff.
I e-mailed my friend telling him I had his phne. In the evening, he came t my hme and I tld him 75 I gt it. My friend was very excited t get back his cell phne. He said he wuld help thers as much as pssible.
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
假设你是李华，国庆长假你和家人去北京游玩，请你根据下列表格所提供的信息，写一篇日记。
要求：（1）70词左右；（2）日记中不出现你的真实信息；（3）表格中的省略号部分须补充信息。
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024学年第一学期八年级期中学情评估
英语听力材料
第一节，听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
Text 1:
W: Hi, Tm. Where did yu g n vacatin?
M: I went t the muntains with my friends.
Text 2:
W: Yu lk fit. Yu must be a sprts fan.
M: Well, I ften spend time running with my brther and I smetimes play basketball with my friends, but my favrite is still swimming.
Text 3:
M: Hw ften d students watch TV in yur class, Nancy?
W: 15 % f the students watch TV every day, 50 % watch TV 4 t 6 times a week, 25% watch TV 1 t 2 times a week, the thers never watches TV.
Text 4:
W: Did yu watch the game shw n TV last night? It was quite interesting.
M: Nt really. I think it was meaningless.
Text 5：
M: Gd evening. May I take yu rder?
W: A mment please. I’m still reading the menu. Is there anything new n it?
第一节到此结束。
第二节，听下面3段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
M: Hi, Jenny, hw abut ging bating this Sunday mrning?
W: That sunds gd, Peter. But I am afraid I can’t. I will d wrk in the city library. l g there nce a week
M: What d yu d?
W: I usually clean up the reading rms and put the bks in the right places.
M: Yu are s helpful. I am als interested in vlunteer wrk t. Can I jin yu?
W: Sure. Yu are gd at cmputer and yu can help readers find the bks they want.
M: Great. I will try t d well. See yu n Sunday mrning.
W: See yu.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
W: Hey, James, what are yu ding?
M: Hi, Linda. I’m planning a trip t Hubei, and I am lking up sme infrmatin nline.
W: Oh, I visited Hubei several years ag.
M: Really? Tell me smething abut it.
W: There are lts f lakes, rivers and muntains, such as the East Lake, the Changjiang River and Munt Wudang Shan.
M: Sunds great. Anything else?
W: Yes, there are als many places f great interest, like the Yellw Crane Twer. It’s called Huanghe Lu in Chinese.
M: Yu visited the Yellw Crane Twer, right?
W: It stands by the Changjiang River. Frm the tp f the twer, the river lks mre wnderful.
M: Fantastic. I like t g. Did yu visit any museums?
W: Of curse, I’ve been the Hubei Museum. It is the famus ne in China.
M: Oh, I like histry, and visiting museums is my favrite.
W: By the way, dn’t miss the delicius lcal fd, ht dry ndles and Wu Chang fish.
M: Thanks, I can’t wait t g there.
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。现在，你有25秒钟的时间阅读这五个小题。（停20秒）
Hi, I’m Lily frm Ireland. It’s my turn t intrduce my family with the family pht. I lve my big family. I’m the ne with a black hat. This is my dad, Fred, n the left. He’s very handsme. He ften plays tennis with me. My little brther, Sam, is n his knee. Sam is seven, and he really likes chess and he has curly hair. My mum, Jane, is n the right. She is beautiful and she has big eyes. She is kind and she always reads me a stry at night. My grandparents, Jack and Sarah, are in the middle. They’re my dad’s parents. They have a dg. His name is Oscar. My grandparents have three grandchildren: Sam, my cusin Lucy and me. They ften say I’m their favrite grandchild, but I think they say the same thing t all f us!
That’s all. Thank yu!
（停2秒，然后重复，后再停20秒）
现在你有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上.
听力测试到此结束。
2024学年第一学期八年级期中学情评估
英语参考答案
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
1-5 BABCC
第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
6-10 ABABB11-15 CABCB
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 40分）
第一节：阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
16-20 BBAAD21-25 BCCDB26-30 AACBC
第二节：任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
31-34 EBDA
35．略（言之有理即可）
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
36-40 CABDC 41-45 DAACC46-50 BDBAD
第二节：词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A．将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。【大小写不扣分】
51．the best 52．stries 53．in fact 54．seriusly 55．dreams
B．阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
56．writer57．rich58．belw59．wn
60．prize61．saw 62．wrse63．mind
64．beautiful65．anywhere
第三节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）【大小写不扣分】
66．friend’s67．left68．The69．n
70．t make71．him72．quickly73．happier
74．thanks75．hw
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
Pssible visin
Wednesday, Octber 2nd
Tday was a sunny and cl day. It was gd t lk arund Beijing. My family and I went t see the ld small streets called Hutngs. We walked and saw there are a lt f ld buildings. We bught sme nice things, like pretty fans and little wden tys, fr ur friends and relatives.
Fr lunch, we ate the famus Beijing duck. It was really delicius. The duck had a crispy utside and sft inside, with thin bread, green nins, and sweet sauce. We all liked it a lt.
I learned a lt abut the histry f Beijing and I am interested in the ld culture and stries f Beijing. What an enjyable day we had! I’m lking frward t what we’ll d tmrrw!
What: Sfa
Clr: white
Hw lng: 3m
Hw much: $ 170
Frm: China
Custmer Reviews（客户评论）:
I think it’s a 5-star sfa. The clr is beautiful and it lks great in my living rm. It is easy fr me t put it up（组装）. What’s mre, the price is nice t. After wrk, I always sit n the sfa t read bks r sleep t have a rest. All in all, I’m happy t have it.
Anna
I bught it n Dec. 12th but it gt t my hme n Dec. 28th. It’s a lng time. I’m nt happy abut it. The sfa is t big in my living rm. It’s my first time t g shpping nline. I dn’t like it at all.
Jane
Great clr and great price! I lve it. It is sft t sit n. My sn likes t play with his tys n the sfa every day. My mther likes sitting n it t watch TV while my father likes reading newspapers n it. White is my favrite clr but it is really difficult t keep it tidy.
Alan
The sfa I bught nline was gd, but the delivery（快递）was terrible. It tk half a mnth t arrive. The delivery service was unhelpful. I had t call them many times. The sfa itself is cmfrtable and lks nice, but the delivery experience left a bad taste. I wish the service had been as gd as the sfa.
Jhn
A．Turn yur mind t smewhere else.
B．Try t smile mre.
C．Dn’t laugh at thers.
D．Talk t thers first.
E．Tell peple yu are shy.
in fact, gd, dream, stry, seriusly
Date
Wednesday, Octber 2nd
Weather
Sunny and cl
Activities
Visit a Beijing hutng, buy smething special, …
Fd
Beijing duck
Feelings
…
1．本试卷分试题卷和答题卷两部分，满分120分。
2．答题前，必须在答题卷的密封区内填写校名、班级、姓名、座位号等。
3．所有答案都必须写在答题卷标定的位置上，务必注意试题序号和答题序号相对应。
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．Where did Tm g n vacatin?
A．He went t the beaches.
B．He went t the muntains.
C．He went t his friends’ huses.
2．Which sprt des the man speaker like best?
A．Swimming.B．Playing basketball.C．Running.
3．What percent f the students in Nancy’s class smetimes watch TV?
A．15%.B．25%.C.50%.
4．What des the wman speaker think f the game shw?
A．She can’t stand it.B．She desn’t mind it.C．She lves it.
5．Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A．In a library.B．In a bkstre.C．In a restaurant.
第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6．Hw ften des Jenny wrk fr the library?
A．Once a week.B．Once a mnth.C．Once a year.
7．What can Tm help t d in the library?
A．Clean up the library.
B．Find bks fr readers.
C．Put bks in the right places.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8．What’s James ding nw?
A．Planning a trip t Hubei.B．Having a histry class.C．Playing cmputer games.
9．Why des Linda knw abut Hubei well?
A．Because she lived in Hubei.
B．Because she visited it years ag.
C．Because she read smething nline.
10．What des Linda think f the lcal fd in Hubei?
A．It’s ht.B．It’s delicius.C．It’s dry.
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。
11．Which ne is Lily in the pht?
A．The ne with curly hair.
B．The ne with big eyes.
C．The ne with a black hat.
12．Where is her father in the pht?
A．On the left.B．In the middle.C．On the right.
13．What des her mum ften d with her?
A．Plays tennis.B．Reads bedtime stries.C．Plays chess.
14．Wh has a dg?
A．Lily’s brther.B．Lily’s cusin.C．Lily’s grandparents.
15．What des Lily think f her grandparents?
A．They like her best f their three grandchildren.
B．They are just as kind t all three grandchildren.
C．They dn’t like her brther r her cusin.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
16．Wh is nt happy abut the sfa?
A．Anna.B．Jane.C．Alan.D．Jhn.
17．Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A．The sfa is frm England.B．Alan’s family all like the sfa.
C．Anna thinks the sfa is expensive.D．The sfa suits Jane’s rm well.
18．What can we infer frm the custmer reviews?
A．Anna put the sfa up by herself.B．Jane ften g shpping nline.
C．Alan desn’t like white sfa.D．Jhn desn’t like the sfa at all.
B
Tm came t his teacher and asked him, “Sir, I have a questin. Hw many friends shuld a persn have-ne r many?”
“It is very simple,” the teacher answered. “Get me that red apple frm the highest branch（树枝）f the tree.” Tm lked up and said, “It’s t high! I can’t reach it.” “Ask a friend. Maybe he can help,” the teacher suggested. Tm called anther student and std n his shulders（肩膀）t reach the branch. “I still can’t reach it, sir,” said Tm sadly after the first try. “Dn’t yu have mre friends?” the teacher smiled. Tm asked mre friends t cme ver. They std n each ther’s shulders, trying t make a human pyramid（金字塔）. But the apple was s high that they culdn’t g higher and the pyramid fell. Tm still culdn’t reach the apple. Then ne f the friends went hme, brught a ladder（梯子）and Tm finally picked the apple.
After getting the apple, the teacher asked, “S, d yu understand hw many friends a persn needs?”
“Yes, I d,” Tm said. “Many, s tgether we can wrk ut any prblem.”
“Sunds gd,” the teacher said. “Yu need as many friends as yu can. Amng them, there will be at least ne smart persn wh can think f a gd idea, like getting a ladder!”
19．What did the teacher ask Tm t d at first?
A．T pick the red apple fr him.B．T find the answer in bks.
C．T d his hmewrkD．T wrk with Tm’s friends.
20．Which f the fllwing is the right rder f Tm’s picking the apple?
①lked up under the tree ②climbed the ladder
③made a human pyramid ④ std n his friend’s shulders
A．①②③④B．②③①④C．④①③②D．①④③②
21．What can Tm learn frm his teacher?
A．He has as many friends as he needs.B．He needs at least ne smart friend.
C．He has t be friendly t all the friends.D．He shuld have many friends.
22．Hw did the teacher answer Tm’s questin?
A．By telling him a stry abut apples.B．By reading the answer.
C．By asking him t learn by ding.D．By drawing an apple tree.
C
Drbells are the bells（铃）fr peple t ring at a dr. When smene hears it, he r she can pen the dr. D yu knw that yu can ring a drbell fr fish, t?
Every spring, millins f fish migrate（洄游）alng the river in the city t find better places t lay eggs. But in the river, there are many lcks（水闸）. They stp fish frm swimming thrugh. Weerd Lck is in Utrecht, the furth largest city in the Netherlands. When fish get there, they have t wait a lng time befre the lck pens fr bats t pass thrugh. The lck keeper there is glad t pen the lck fr fish, but he cannt tell when fish want t get thrugh. S in 2021, Mark a scientist, came up with a gd idea t help slve this prblem— by using the fish drbell.
Under the water near the lck, there’s a camera. Peple frm arund the wrld can visit a website t see fish thrugh the camera. When yu see a grup f fish waiting, yu can ring the drbell n the screen. And when the lck keeper ntices it, he will pen the lck fr the fish.
In its first spring seasn in 2021, peple arund the wrld rang the fish drbell mre than100,000 times. If yu want t jin them t help fish, visit the website and ring the fish drbell next spring!
23．Why d fish migrate alng the river in the city?
A．T find better places t live.B．T g thrugh lcks.
C．T lay eggs.D．T see the camera.
24．Why did Mark want t help slve the prblem?
A．He wanted t stp the fish.
B．He wanted t invent a drbell.
C．He wanted t use the drbell.
D．He wanted t help the fish.
25．What can peple d thrugh the website?
A．Catch the fish.B．See the fish.C．Open the lck.D．Feed the fish.
26．What’s the text mainly abut?
A．Hw t help fish migrate.B．The migratin f fish.
C．The intrductin f drbellsD．The use f cameras in lcks.
D
①In mst places in the wrld tday, it is easy t find healthy fd. With supermarkets, buying healthy fd like fresh fruits, vegetables, fish, and meat is easy and cnvenient（便利的）. Hwever, it is als easy t find unhealthy fd tday. Supermarkets and ther stres sell gd fd, but they als sell frzen fds and junk fd like chips, candy, and ckies. A lt f fd tday has chemicals（化学药品）. Research has shwn that many f these chemicals are bad fr ur health. S did peple in the past eat healthier than we d tday?
②A century ag, peple didn’t eat junk fd r frzen fd. Instead, they ate natural fds withut chemicals. On the ther hand, their natural fds were nt always as gd as fd tday. In the past, meat ften came frm sick animals. It’s nt healthy t eat meat frm a sick animal. In mst places tday, laws make sure that fd is safe.
③In mst cuntries tday, we can buy a variety（各种）f fds. We can buy ranges in the winter and apples in the summer. Healthy fruits and vegetables are available（可获得的）at any time f year. These fds cme frm all ver the wrld. In the past, this kind f variety was nt pssible. Peple culd eat certain fds nly in certain seasns.
④We als eat much mre meat, sugar, fattening fds, and chemicals tday than peple did a century ag. Studies shw that these things can cause（引起）heart disease（疾病）and a variety f ther health prblems. Hwever, peple live much lnger nw. Tday, the average（平均）persn lives fr 70 t 80 years. Hwever,100 years ag, the average persn lived fr nly abut 50 years. Peple live lnger because we have better medicine nw. But peple als have lnger lives because healthy fd is usually available.
⑤S ________? Yes and n. Peple in the past did eat mre natural fd than we d nw. But, in sme ways, we als eat better tday. We can eat healthier tday than peple did in the past. We just have t chse t eat gd fds.
27．What makes fd unhealthy tday?
A．Sme f the chemicals.B．Sick animals.
C．Supermarkets and stres.C．Frzen fds.
28．Why can peple buy a variety f fds all year alng accrding t Paragraph 3?
A．Because supermarkets sell all kinds f fds.
B．Because peple need fds at any time f year.
C．Because transprtatin（交通运输）is mre cnvenient nw.
D．Because it’s easier t plant fruits and vegetables.
29．Which f the fllwing can be put in ________ in Paragraph 5?
A．did peple eat mre natural fd in the past?
B．did peple eat healthier in the past?
C．did the fd taste better in the past?
D．did the peple eat better in the past?
30．Which f the fllwing best shws the structure f the passage?
A．B．C．D．
第二节：任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
下面文章中有四处（第31～34题）需要添加小标题，请从方框中的A-E选项选出符合各段意思的小标题（其中一项是多余的），并回答第35小题。注意，请将第35小题的答案写在答题纸上非选择题部分的相应位置。
Hw t be Outging
If（如果）yu think yu are t shy and want t be a little utging, try the fllwing. Yu can make it.
31 There’s n need t hide it. When they get t knw yu are a shy kid, they’ll understand yu better. This als helps yu feel mre cmfrtable when talking with thers.
32 Smile t thers s they will think yu are friendly and easy t talk t. Remember that ther peple have feelings t and mst peple will stay away frm an angry-lking face.
33 Try t start a cnversatin. If yu find it hard t d s, say smething nice abut peple arund yu. Think abut hw great yu feel when smene says smething nice t yu. Desn’t it make yu want t keep talking t thse peple?
34 Dn’t waste time wrrying abut yur lks r if peple like yu. Think mre abut ways t enjy the party r the game.
Keep trying and ne day yu wn’t be “shy” anymre when yu talk t thers.
35．What will yu d if yu want t be utging?（不超过20个单词）
__________________________________________________________________________________________
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中选出一个最佳选项。
It’s always a gd thing t have a hbby. Fr Miss Patty, a schl bus driver in Erie Cunty, her 36 f knitting（编织）has made her really tuch the cmmunity.
Miss Patty always wanted t d 37 in her spare time t help the students. After a 38 with ne f the students, things tk a turn frm knitting ne hat t knitting mre hats.
“The ne by gets n the 39 , and he ges ‘what are yu ding?’ I said, ‘I’m 40 a hat. He said, ‘That wuld be 41 having such a warm hat in icy winter.’ S I said, ‘What 42 wuld yu like?’ That 43 everything,” Miss Patty tld the lcal（当地的）newspaper.
Several years have passed since that day, and Miss Patty has already knitted 7,083 44 fr students in her spare time. Smetimes she will get the 45 favrite clr befre she begins the prject.
What is mre mving is that Miss Patty buy all the materials（材料）using her wn 46 . Sme peple d give 47 gift cards arund the hlidays t help, but she still 48 the materials with a lt f her wn mney.
Alng with making hats fr the students that will keep them 49 , Miss Patty als gets praise（表扬）fr being a 50 friend t the students.
36．A．dreamB．planC．hbbyD．hpe
37．A．smethingB．everythingC．nthingD．anything
38．A．fightB．cnversatinC．gameD．class
39．A．trainB．batC．planeD．bus
40．A．thrwingB．cleaningC．makingD．washing
41．A．newB．hungryC．sadD．great
42．A．clrB．sizeC．kindD．price
43．A．startedB．savedC．meantD．shared
44．A．SkirtsB．scarfsC．hatsD．glves
45．A．parents’B．guests’C．students’D．friends’
46．A．timeB．mneyC．healthD．mind
47．A．themB．himC．yuD．her
48．A．puts nB．pays frC．brings utD．takes away
49．A．warmB．ppularC．differentD．busy
50．A．strangeB．funnyC．strictD．clse
第二节：词汇运用（共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A．将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
Talent shws are becming very ppular because they are exciting and allw peple t see thers’ special abilities. These shws lk fr 51 in different areas like singing, dancing, and magic. They attract a lt f peple wh want t shw their skills.
Hwever, nt everyne likes these shws. Sme peple think that the 52 f the perfrmers are nt real. They might say they are pr farmers, but 53 they are just actrs pretending t be smething they are nt.
But if yu dn’t take these shws t 54 , they can be a lt f fun t watch. The best part is that they give peple a chance t make their 55 cme true. S, talent shws are a way fr peple t enjy and supprt thers’ talents.
B．阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
Tim was a 56 （作家）wh lived in a small village. He liked t write sngs. He wasn’t 57 （富裕的）, but he was happy. He wanted t g t new places, but he culdn’t. One day, he wrte a sng abut the wrld 58 （在...之下）the sky. The sng was lud and fun.
Peple in his twn liked the sng a lt. It made them feel gd. His sng 59 （赢得）a singing cntest. The 60 （奖品）was a trip t a faraway place. Tim was excited t g n this trip.
He traveled and 61 （看见）many new things. He met peple with sad stries and happy stries. Sme stries were 62 （更糟的）than his, and sme were better. Tim wrte mre sngs abut the peple he met.
When he came back hme, he didn’t have mre mney, but he had many gd memries. He knew his sngs culd take him t different places in his 63 （头脑）. He was happy with his life, and he kept writing sngs that made peple smile. Tim’s sngs were like a lud and 64 （美丽的）vice that tld stries frm 65 （任何地方）in the wrld.
第三节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
One early mrning, I wke up by a telephne call. It was frm a taxi driver. He tld me he had my 66 （friend）cell phne（手机）.My friend Michael 67 （leave）it in the taxi the night befre. 68 driver called thers, but I was the first ne t answer his call.
It was 69 a rainy mrning. Fr taxi drivers in this big city, it’s the best time 70 （make）mney. He asked me where he culd drp the cell phne ff. I tld 71 （he）the street where I lived. Then I 72 （quick）jumped ut f bed and gt dressed, s I culd meet him at the crner.
When he arrived, I thanked him. And I was even 73 （happy）than my friend. He mved t this cuntry a few weeks ag— and I culd nly imagine（设想）hw imprtant his cell phne was t him!
I asked the taxi driver fr his name, s my friend culd thank him. He said my 74 （thank）were all that he needed. Then he drve ff.
I e-mailed my friend telling him I had his phne. In the evening, he came t my hme and I tld him 75 I gt it. My friend was very excited t get back his cell phne. He said he wuld help thers as much as pssible.
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
假设你是李华，国庆长假你和家人去北京游玩，请你根据下列表格所提供的信息，写一篇日记。
要求：（1）70词左右；（2）日记中不出现你的真实信息；（3）表格中的省略号部分须补充信息。
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2024学年第一学期八年级期中学情评估
英语听力材料
第一节，听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试题的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
Text 1:
W: Hi, Tm. Where did yu g n vacatin?
M: I went t the muntains with my friends.
Text 2:
W: Yu lk fit. Yu must be a sprts fan.
M: Well, I ften spend time running with my brther and I smetimes play basketball with my friends, but my favrite is still swimming.
Text 3:
M: Hw ften d students watch TV in yur class, Nancy?
W: 15 % f the students watch TV every day, 50 % watch TV 4 t 6 times a week, 25% watch TV 1 t 2 times a week, the thers never watches TV.
Text 4:
W: Did yu watch the game shw n TV last night? It was quite interesting.
M: Nt really. I think it was meaningless.
Text 5：
M: Gd evening. May I take yu rder?
W: A mment please. I’m still reading the menu. Is there anything new n it?
第一节到此结束。
第二节，听下面3段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你有时间阅读各小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
M: Hi, Jenny, hw abut ging bating this Sunday mrning?
W: That sunds gd, Peter. But I am afraid I can’t. I will d wrk in the city library. l g there nce a week
M: What d yu d?
W: I usually clean up the reading rms and put the bks in the right places.
M: Yu are s helpful. I am als interested in vlunteer wrk t. Can I jin yu?
W: Sure. Yu are gd at cmputer and yu can help readers find the bks they want.
M: Great. I will try t d well. See yu n Sunday mrning.
W: See yu.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
W: Hey, James, what are yu ding?
M: Hi, Linda. I’m planning a trip t Hubei, and I am lking up sme infrmatin nline.
W: Oh, I visited Hubei several years ag.
M: Really? Tell me smething abut it.
W: There are lts f lakes, rivers and muntains, such as the East Lake, the Changjiang River and Munt Wudang Shan.
M: Sunds great. Anything else?
W: Yes, there are als many places f great interest, like the Yellw Crane Twer. It’s called Huanghe Lu in Chinese.
M: Yu visited the Yellw Crane Twer, right?
W: It stands by the Changjiang River. Frm the tp f the twer, the river lks mre wnderful.
M: Fantastic. I like t g. Did yu visit any museums?
W: Of curse, I’ve been the Hubei Museum. It is the famus ne in China.
M: Oh, I like histry, and visiting museums is my favrite.
W: By the way, dn’t miss the delicius lcal fd, ht dry ndles and Wu Chang fish.
M: Thanks, I can’t wait t g there.
听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。现在，你有25秒钟的时间阅读这五个小题。（停20秒）
Hi, I’m Lily frm Ireland. It’s my turn t intrduce my family with the family pht. I lve my big family. I’m the ne with a black hat. This is my dad, Fred, n the left. He’s very handsme. He ften plays tennis with me. My little brther, Sam, is n his knee. Sam is seven, and he really likes chess and he has curly hair. My mum, Jane, is n the right. She is beautiful and she has big eyes. She is kind and she always reads me a stry at night. My grandparents, Jack and Sarah, are in the middle. They’re my dad’s parents. They have a dg. His name is Oscar. My grandparents have three grandchildren: Sam, my cusin Lucy and me. They ften say I’m their favrite grandchild, but I think they say the same thing t all f us!
That’s all. Thank yu!
（停2秒，然后重复，后再停20秒）
现在你有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上.
听力测试到此结束。
2024学年第一学期八年级期中学情评估
英语参考答案
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
1-5 BABCC
第二节（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
6-10 ABABB11-15 CABCB
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 40分）
第一节：阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
16-20 BBAAD21-25 BCCDB26-30 AACBC
第二节：任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
31-34 EBDA
35．略（言之有理即可）
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节：完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
36-40 CABDC 41-45 DAACC46-50 BDBAD
第二节：词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
A．将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。【大小写不扣分】
51．the best 52．stries 53．in fact 54．seriusly 55．dreams
B．阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
56．writer57．rich58．belw59．wn
60．prize61．saw 62．wrse63．mind
64．beautiful65．anywhere
第三节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）【大小写不扣分】
66．friend’s67．left68．The69．n
70．t make71．him72．quickly73．happier
74．thanks75．hw
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
Pssible visin
Wednesday, Octber 2nd
Tday was a sunny and cl day. It was gd t lk arund Beijing. My family and I went t see the ld small streets called Hutngs. We walked and saw there are a lt f ld buildings. We bught sme nice things, like pretty fans and little wden tys, fr ur friends and relatives.
Fr lunch, we ate the famus Beijing duck. It was really delicius. The duck had a crispy utside and sft inside, with thin bread, green nins, and sweet sauce. We all liked it a lt.
I learned a lt abut the histry f Beijing and I am interested in the ld culture and stries f Beijing. What an enjyable day we had! I’m lking frward t what we’ll d tmrrw!
What: Sfa
Clr: white
Hw lng: 3m
Hw much: $ 170
Frm: China
Custmer Reviews（客户评论）:
I think it’s a 5-star sfa. The clr is beautiful and it lks great in my living rm. It is easy fr me t put it up（组装）. What’s mre, the price is nice t. After wrk, I always sit n the sfa t read bks r sleep t have a rest. All in all, I’m happy t have it.
Anna
I bught it n Dec. 12th but it gt t my hme n Dec. 28th. It’s a lng time. I’m nt happy abut it. The sfa is t big in my living rm. It’s my first time t g shpping nline. I dn’t like it at all.
Jane
Great clr and great price! I lve it. It is sft t sit n. My sn likes t play with his tys n the sfa every day. My mther likes sitting n it t watch TV while my father likes reading newspapers n it. White is my favrite clr but it is really difficult t keep it tidy.
Alan
The sfa I bught nline was gd, but the delivery（快递）was terrible. It tk half a mnth t arrive. The delivery service was unhelpful. I had t call them many times. The sfa itself is cmfrtable and lks nice, but the delivery experience left a bad taste. I wish the service had been as gd as the sfa.
Jhn
A．Turn yur mind t smewhere else.
B．Try t smile mre.
C．Dn’t laugh at thers.
D．Talk t thers first.
E．Tell peple yu are shy.
in fact, gd, dream, stry, seriusly
Date
Wednesday, Octber 2nd
Weather
Sunny and cl
Activities
Visit a Beijing hutng, buy smething special, …
Fd
Beijing duck
Feelings
…
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