山东省济南第一中学2024-2025学年高三上学期期中英语试卷

这是一份山东省济南第一中学2024-2025学年高三上学期期中英语试卷，共10页。试卷主要包含了答卷前，考生务必用0，回答非选择题时，必须使用0， B等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑.如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
3.回答非选择题时，必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡指定位置作答。写在本试卷上无效。不能使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带在答题卡上修改答案。
第I卷（共95分）
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答，每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What kind f car des the man want t hire?
A. A sprts car. B. A car with enugh space. C. A car suitable fr children.
2. What will the wman d n Saturday?
A. Watch a film. B. D hmewrk. C. Play with her cusins.
3. Why did the wman g t Mallrca?
A. T teach Spanish. B. T lk fr a jb. C. T see a friend.
4. What des the man suggest the wman d?
A. Make an aplgy. B. Change her persnality. C. Cme up with sme ideas.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
A. Lunch. B. A restaurant. C. A cwrker.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What time was the plane suppsed t leave?
A. At 3:00. B. At 4:00. C. At 5:00.
7. Why is the wman wrried?
A. The weather is bad. B. The reprt is. nt finished. C. An appintment will be delayed.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What is the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
A. Fellw travelers. B. Guide and turist. C. Teacher and student.
9. When d v1sıtrs fail t visit the waterfall?
A. In January. B. In February. C. In December.
10. What will the speakers d next
A. Check the rcks. B. See sme pictures. C. Walk acrss a bridge.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What is the man busy ding?
A. Srting ut the new clthes.
B. Wrking n the display stand
C. Picking up smething frm the first flr.
12. Where will the man wrk later?
A. In the strage rmB. In the security ffice. C. By the main entrance.
13. Whm des the man recmmend t wrk n the stand?
A. Ms Channings. B. Linda C. Paula.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What makes Nana late?
A. A later start. B. Traffic jams. C. Bad weather.
15. Why are mtrists driving slwly?
A. T ensure safety. B. T save petrl. C. T avid being stuck.
16. What results frm a car accident?
A. Many damaged cars. B. Mre car accidents. C. Blcked traffic.
17. Hw will the wman g t wrks when it turns warmer?
A. On ft. B. By bike. C. By subway.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. When will this year’s festival prbably be held?
A. January 2—9. B. January 10—17. C. January 24—31.
19. Which style is the Russian ballet perfrmance?
A. Classical. B. Rmantic. C. Mdern.
20. What is the speaker prbably?
A. A dancer. B. A cnductr. C. A reprter.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Simns Summer Research Prgram
Established in 1984 as a grwth prgram fr lcal high schl students, the Simns Summer Research Prgram nw attracts applicants frm all acrss the cuntry t the Stny Brk campus: Simns Fellws are matched with Stny Brk study advisrs, jin a research grup r team, and assume respnsibility fr a prject. The Simns Fellws cnclude their prgram: by prducing a research pster.
In additin t learning valuable techniques and experiencing life at a majr research university, Simns Fellws attend weekly research talks and take part in special wrkshps, turs and events. At the clsing meeting n psters, students are presented with a cash award.
Eligibility (资格)
·Students interested in science wh have shwn independence, creativity and an ability t d hands-n wrk are especially encuraged t apply.
·Applicants must be in their junir year (11th grade) f high schl at the time f applying and must be at least 16 years ld by the start f the prgram.
Husing and Dining
Prjected summer’24 prgram csts (residential): $2,781.50 (includes $600 Meal Plan and $61. 50 Student Health Services Fee)
Residential & Cmmuter (通勤者) Optins:
Participants may chse t live n campus with ther student researchers r t cmmute. Students wh live n campus are typically hused in a duble rm in a university residence hall, and are respnsible fr paying their wn husing fees befre the prgram start date. Please nte that residential students are nt allwed t bring a car t campus.
21. What shuld participants d in the Simns Summer Research Prgram?
A. Decide n their future career. B. Learn abut Simns’ histry.
C. Visit their dream clleges. D. Design a research pster.
22. Which f the fllwing is a requirement fr the applicants?
A. Their age. B. Their residence.
C. Their related experiences. D. Their schl perfrmance.
23. Hw much is the husing fee fr a residential applicant?
A. $2,781.50. B. $2,720.00. C. $2,181.50. D. $2,120.00.
B
Elizabeth Keytn, riginally frm Gergia, the USA, married Arjun, a Malayali. She wanted t learn his mther tngue t strengthen their family bnd. In the prcess, she created an Instagram page called “Elikutty” thrugh which she nw teaches Malayalam t thusands f peple.
“I always lved hearing peple speak different languages, but when my mther frm Serbia spke Serbian at hme, my father shwed n interest in learning it, leaving frequent misunderstanding and cmmunicating prblems. That’s when I decided that if I met smene frm a different culture, I wuld try t learn his language, which wuld be gd fr us and ur family,” says Elizabeth t The Better India.
“S when my relatinship with Arjun started lking serius because f difficulties in cmmunicating, I decided t learn Malayalam. Hwever, I fund that there weren’t enugh resurces t learn the language. Mst bks available were utdated r made fr children. A small amunt f material was ften t difficult fr casual (非正式的) language learners like me,” says the 35-year-ld. “Later, I struggled t find a teacher suited t my needs and sme grammar resurces nline.”
As an English teacher, Elizabeth used her teaching skills t learn Malayalam. She wrte ntes and made ddles (涂鸦) t learn the letters. “Fr me, the best way t learn is by explaining it t smene else, s I made an Instagram page in 2018 t share my ntes and small drawings,” she says. Starting ut with 1,000 fllwers in 2018, her Instagram page has ver 70,000 fllwers tday. She is pleased t make learning Malayalam fun and easy.
“I have seen what happens when languages are ignred in my wn huse. My brther desn’t knw Serbian, which means his family wn’t. It’s imprtant t knw English as it is a glbal language and helps when yu g abrad, but the same respect shuld be given t native languages. They are the true way t a persn’s heart.” says Elizabeth.
24. Why did Elizabeth decide t learn Malayalam?
A. T build a fundatin fr her career.
B. T imprve her relatinship with Arjun.
C. T better cmmunicate with her mther.
D. T satisfy her interest in freign languages.
25. What difficulty did Elizabeth meet during her learning?
A. Rejectin frm her husband. B. Failure t find a native partner.
C. Lack f suitable learning resurces. D. Inability t find a prfessinal teacher.
26. What was Elizabeth’s Instagram. page used t d at first?
A. Cllect learning tips. B. Assist her in self-study.
C. Practice small drawings. D. Teach thers Malayalam.
27. What is Elizabeth’s pinin n language learning?
A. Using scial media as the primary tl.
B. Respecting ur inner thinking at all times.
C. Always putting the family’s cmmn language first.
D. Treating fficial languages and mther tngues equally.
C
In the summer f 2021, wildfires caused a disaster n an Italian island, burning ver 69,000 acres f land and displacing thusands. The Mntiferru regin, badly affected by the fires, is testing ut a new warning system fr wildfires, develped by a German cmpany called Dryad.
Due t climate change, the number f extreme wildfire events is expected t increase up t 14% by 2030. Apart frm billins f dllars f damage they cause, the chemicals they prduce are strng pllutants and in 2023, wildfires gave ut a recrd1. 76 billin metric tns f carbn in the atmsphere—equal t mre than duble Germany’s yearly CO₂ emissins.
Existing early warning systems are based n the visual detectin f smke, either thrugh satellite imaging, cameras n the grund r human bservers. “But these systems are t dilatry. In rder t generate smke that can be seen frm a distance f, say, 10 t 20 miles, the fire has t be very big—yu might already have half a ftball field n fire underneath. Then, if yu add the time fr firefighters t arrive at the scene, it may have becme t big t be put ut at all,” said Dryad’s c-funder and CEO, Carsten Brinkschulte.
Dryad aims t reduce the detectin time f wildfires and catch them early. T d s, the cmpany has designed a slar-pwered sensr fitted with a gas detectr. “It can detect hydrgen, carbn mnxide, etc. Think f it like an electrnic nse that yu attach t a tree,” says Brinkschulte. Once the sensr detects a fire, it sends ut a signal which is then sent t the Internet by satellite and 4G. Finally, what the frest managers get is an alarm with the exact GPS lcatin f the sensr that picked up the fire.
S far, Dryad has tested 300 sensrs acrss Eurpe and plans t make 230,000 units next year. “Our gal is t set up 120 millin f them by 2030, which wuld be able t save 3. 9 millin hectares f frest frm burning and prevent 1.7 billin metric tns f CO, frm reaching the atmsphere,” says Brinkschulte.
28. What d the facts mentined in Paragraph 2 mainly shw?
A. The danger f wildfire pllutants. B. The climate change ver the years.
C. The envirnmental stress frm wildfires. D. The prblem f CO2 emissins in Eurpe.
29. What des the underlined wrd “dilatry” mean in Paragraph 3?
A. Slw. B. Distant. C. Wasteful. D. Expensive.
30. Hw des the new warning system perate?
A. By putting ut the fire directly in its early stages.
B. By smelling the fire and reprting its lcatin.
C. By frecasting the weather t prevent the fire.
D. By ging arund the frest t check the fire.
31. What can be inferred frm the last paragraph?
A. The system has great pssibilities fr use.
B. Eurpe especially suffers frm wildfires.
C. The system needs further imprvement.
D. Climate change will deepen wildfires.
D
In just ver a year, the field f generative (生成的) artificial intelligence has cnstantly seen extrardinary advancements. The recent intrductin f OpenAI’s GPT-4 mdel has reduced the presence f false infrmatin, which marks a majr step frward as generative AI is nw better at creating images withut errrs and prducing clear, understandable text.
Nwadays, the custmizatin f Al fr specific tasks is becming increasingly ppular, with significant supprt directed twards develping AI slutins fr particular purpses, such as analyzing legal agreements and medical images. This emphasizes the grwing emplyment f AI in specialized areas, increasing its influence beynd general tasks.
At first, it seemed that nly large cmpanies with significant cmputing pwer culd tap int the advanced ability f AI. Hwever, services like Hugging Face have ppularized access t AI technlgies, prving that even smaller mdels can live up t a high standard. This turning has widened the user base, allwing a wider range f individuals and rganizatins t take advantage f AI tls.
Despite these advancements, the ptential dangers f AI cannt be ignred. Risks include misuse in creating misleading infrmatin as well as privacy cncerns arising frm the data that AI systems require fr training. These cncerns stress the need fr cnstant cautin and ethical (道德的) cnsideratins t ensure that AI technlgies are develped and used respnsibly.
As AI cntinues t develp, its impact is set t redefine what is pssible. Hwever, the integratin f AI int varius industries must be apprached with cautin, cnsidering the ptential dangers alngside the benefits. The future f AI prmises t add t prcesses and inspire new methdlgies as lng as we find prper appraches t avid its risks in advance.
32. What is an advantage f OpenAI’s GPT-4?
A. Its varied functins. B. Its greater accuracy.
C. Its faster prcessing speed. D. Its increased memry pwer.
33. What d the examples in Paragraph 2 intend t shw abut AI?
A. The limited ptential in image analysis.
B. The theretical basis fr task cmpletin.
C. The practical applicatin in prfessinal fields.
D. The insufficient technique supprt fr innvatin.
34. What is a psitive change in AI accrding t the text?
A. Being available t mre grups.
B. Being prtective f user privacy.
C. Being fcused n difficult AI mdels.
D. Being ecnmical fr industrial develpment:
35. What is prbably the authr’s attitude twards AI?
A. Indifferent. B. Resistant. C. Supprtive. D. Objective.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Rbt bees, r mechanical bees, are machines designed t d the wrk f actual bees, like pllinating (给...授粉) plants, as well as mnitring the health f bee huses. 36 And as expected, many rbt bee prjects have been successful s far.
One f the advantages f rbt bees is that they are mre prductive than real bees. Farmers using rbt bees can yield abut 20 t 40 percent mre crps than if they use cmmercial hney bees. Meanwhile, these rbts are gd at cllecting and analyzing critical crp data alng the way. 37 In this sense, rbt bees have the ptential t achieve a big ecnmic impact.
Rbt bees can als act as wild pllinatrs in greenhuses, withut requiring that the whle greenhuse be pened up t the actual wild. 38 These are clsely mnitred envirnments, s there is n need fr pesticides (杀虫剂), ffering rbt bees a prmising prspect as they are mre se cure fr fd quality.
39 Unless they are given accurate cmmands t d it, rbt bees likely wn’t pllinate things like wildflwers the way bees d. As the whle fd web is secured by having bees pllinate wildflwers, if yu were t replace thse bees, then the wildflwer cmmunities wuld start t break dwn, which wuld then impact ther species like birds.
And yet, we may nt have much f a chice. The glbal ppulatin is expected t grw by 25 percent t abut 10 billin peple by 2050. T meet the demand, fd prductin will need t increase greatly. S will the number f hney bees, which are already facing their wn unique challenges in the face f habitat lss, pesticide use, climate change. 40
A. There is still a lng way fr rbt bees t g.
B. This enables grwers t make better farming decisins.
C We may need the help f rbt bees t ensure ur survival.
D. But the ways they are used are nt envirnmentally friendly.
E. Hwever, rbt bees culd affect the given area’s bidiversity.
F. They are used t increase prductivity in the agriculture industry.
G. That matters as greenhuses are becming mre ppular than utdr farms.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Herman Cruse has been driving a schl bus fr decades. He is nt a teacher but that didn’t stp him frm his 41 spare time as a reading teacher fr the students.
It all started when Cruse heard a student 42 a reading task he hadn’t cmpleted with his friend. Cruse thught he culd help him. Since then, his 43 has spread and attracted mre curisity. He meets kids fr several hurs a day, with his ppular 44 named “Mr. Herman’s Kids”.
Cruse said he wanted t 45 his lve f reading with the yunger generatin. “I clearly remember 46 I was their age my mther bught me a Wrld Bk Encyclpedia,” he said. “I read every bk frm A t Z. I was a vracius (贪婪的) reader and it 47 my mind. S I want t pass that 48 t the kids.” Cruse als lves seeing a child discver the 49 f reading. “It’s much like 50 an unknwn dr,” he said. “I can see the lights n in their eyes, which fills my heart with happiness.”
Since Cruse has given s much t the schl and the kids, they 51 him with a frame that says “Mr. Herman’s Kids Crner” with their headmaster t give Cruse a 52 area in the schl t carry ut his unpaid wrk. “The 53 appreciatin and recgnitin frm the schl have 54 me deeply. I’m grateful fr the 55 t be a part f their jurney twards becming lifelng readers.”
41. A. cutting B. saving C. vlunteering D. recrding
42. A. discussing B. planning C. perfrming D. checking
43. A. bravery B. ppularity C. assistance D. achievement
44. A. design B. prgram C. mvement D. belief
45. A. express B. cnnect C. explre D. share
46. A. until B. since C. if D. when
47. A. cleared B. changed C. bradened D. relaxed
48. A. duty B. gift C. example D. skill
49. A. determinatin B. hpe C. questin D. jy
50. A. unlcking B. answering C. building D. unpacking
51. A. challenged B. presented C. armed D. exchanged
52. A. frmal B. familiar C. useful D. cnvenient
53. A. persnal B. immediate C. unknwn D. unexpected
54. A. interested B. tuched C. amused D. raised
55. A. pprtunity B. methd C. ability D. freedm
第II卷（共55分）
第二节 短文填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个恰当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A heartwarming scene ccurred recently n a subway in Nanjing, East China’s Jiangsu Prvince, earning thumbs-up natinwide.
56 (seat) Inside a subway train, a senir citizen was reprtedly seen checking a piece f paper which read “This is Nanjing Suth Statin. Yu can take Line 3 57 Taifenglu Statin, and then transfer t (转乘) Line S8 t get t Changlu Statin. ”
“This is truly 58 pleasure fr elderly peple wh find it difficult t figure ut a subway rute using a smart phne. What a 59 (thught) mve,” ne netizen said after seeing the reprt.
Actually, this is ne f the public services ffered by the Nanjing Suth Statin. 60 it is pen t everyne, it mainly targets elderly peple wh have truble using smart phnes t gain infrmatin. When asked by passengers 61 (seek) directins, staff members statined at entry pints wuld write dwn transfer instructins n a small piece f paper.
Accrding t data frm the Natinal Bureau f Statistics, by the end f 2023, China’s ppulatin aged 60 and abve 62 (reach) nearly 297 millin peple, causing increasing discussins abut imprving public services t meet the needs f 63 (senir) Prviding enugh cncern fr the elderly 64 (be) nt nly a basic aspect f a respnsible sciety, but als a 65 (reflect) f the prmise t supprt the well-being f all citizens.
第四部分 写作（共两节满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
上周日你参观了你市新建的“中国民俗文化”主题公园。请你写一篇英语短文，记录这次参观的体验，并向校英语报投稿。内容包括：
简单介绍该公园；2.体验内容及感受；3.推荐人们参观。
注意：
1.词数80左右；2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I clearly remember the day I went t schl with a big change—my very first pair f eye glasses. I was filled with excitement, eager t shw them ff t my classmates. I had chsen a pair f pink-framed glasses, thinking they wuld lk fantastic n me. Little did I knw that I wuld becme the bject f ridicule (嘲笑)
The reasn behind getting the glasses was my pr eyesight. My teacher had repeatedly criticized me fr nt cmpleting my wrk accurately. Sitting at the back f the class, I culdn’t cpy wrds and prper grammar frm the blackbard because everything was t blurry (模糊的) fr me t see. Mre ften than nt, my deskmate wuld read every phrase alud t me s that I culd write them dwn, like a parrt.
Wearing thse glasses was like stepping int a 3D cinematic wrld: I culd see everything clearly. Hwever, n the day I wre my glasses t schl, all the bys laughed and I culd see them hiding their faces with hurtful smiles. Several girls kindly tld me that my glasses lked gd n me, but I knew they were all telling white lies. Nevertheless,I needed the glasses mre than I wanted them.
A mnth passed, but my classmates still weren’t used t seeing me wear glasses. Insecurity led me t take them ff during lunch break r after class. I admitted that I had started t hate my glasses, but little did I knw that my decisin t wear them wuld change the life f ne f my friends.
On a Mnday mrning, my friend Jane came t me, lking at me with curisity. When I asked what gt her s interested, she pinted t my glasses and said she wanted t try them n. Withut hesitatin, I handed my glasses t her. As she put them n, her muth drpped pen in surprise.
注意：
1.续写的词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
济南十一中高三上期中测试答案
阅读 DADBC BDCAB ABCAD
七选五 FBGEC
完形 CACBD DCBDA BA DBA
语法 seated; at; a; thughtful; Althugh; seeking; had reached; senirs; is; reflectinPuzzled, I asked her what was s surprising. ______________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
The fllwing week, I was amazed t see Jane wearing a pair f glasses t. _____________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________