2023-2024学年河北省保定市满城区八年级（上）期末英语试卷

这是一份2023-2024学年河北省保定市满城区八年级（上）期末英语试卷，共10页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

注意事项：1.本试卷共8页，总分120分，答题时间120分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡相应位置上。
3.答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，请用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4.考试结束，监考人员只收答题卡，试卷由考生保留。
听力部分（30分）
I.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
1. A. left B. west C. last
2. A. take up B. put n C. make up
3. A. wrk n the farm B. play in the park C. run t the car
4. A. I need a ruler. B. My ruler is lst. C. Lily brrwed my ruler.
5. A. Jane’s camera is new.
B. My new camera is better than Jane’s.
C. My new camera is different frm Jane’s.
Ⅱ.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
6. A. Sure, I’d lve t. B. I’ll be busy. C. One bttle, please.
7. A. I feel better. B. I’ll see a dctr. C. I have a cugh.
8. A. It’s Tuesday. B. It’s June 6th. C. It’s 10: 25.
9. A. Yes, I did. B. N, I dn’t. C. N, I haven’t.
10. A. Thank yu. B. All right. C. Yu are my friend.
Ⅲ.听对话和问题，选择正确答案。（共8小题，每小题1分，计8分）
11. What was the girl’s grandfather’s jb?
A.B.C.
12. What present will the by give his father?
A.B.C.
13. Where are the speakers?
A. In a fruit shp. B. In a bkstre. C. In a flwer shp.
14. Wh will Jane buy the present fr?
A. Li Ming. B. Her brther. C. Her sister.
15. Where des the wman want t g?
A. T a htel. B. T a cinema. C. T a bank.
16. Hw far is the htel frm here?
A. Abut 20 minutes’ drive. B. Abut 20 minutes’ walk. C. Abut 20 miles.
17. Hw will the wman get there?
A. By taxi. B. By bus. C. Walk.
18. Which bus shuld the wman take?
A. Bus 1. B. Bus 2. C. Bus 3.
Ⅳ.听短文和问题，选择正确答案。（共7小题，每小题1分，计7分）
19. What des Jim lk like?
A. He is strng. B. He has lng legs. C. He has small eyes.
20. What sprt des Jim like best?
A. Swimming. B. Vlleyball. C. Ftball.
21. Hw ften des Tm g swimming during schl days?
A. Every day. B. Three times a week. C. Twice a week.
22. Hw lng has Jiajia’s mther been away?
A. 7 days. B.10 days. C. 11 days.
23. What des Jiajia d every evening?
A. She plays the pian. B. She des her hmewrk. C. She draws pictures.
24. What’s the weather like in Jiajia’s city?
A. Cl. B. Warm. C. Ht.
25. Where did Jiajia and her father g last Sunday?
A. T the park. B. T the z. C. T the museum.
V.听短文填空（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
笔试部分（80分）
Ⅵ.单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31. Bb and Kate! Help ________ t sme fish.
A. yurself B. yurselves C. myself D. urselves
32. Hangzhu is very beautiful. Many ________ visit there every year.
A. passengers B. vlunteers C. neighbrs D. turists
33. Fishing is ne f ________ activities amng the middle-aged peple.
A. ppular B. mre ppular C. mst ppular D. the mst ppular
34. I saw a gd film, ________ I can’t remember its name.
A. s B. r C. fr D. but
35.—When shall we begin ur meeting?
—We’ll begin when Helen ________.
A. cmes B. came C. will cme D. cme
36.—What are yu ging t be when yu ________?
—I want t be a dctr like Zhng Nanshan.
A. grw up B. turn up C. get up D. give up
37. William ________ six bks, and all f them are bestsellers.
A. will write B. is writing C. has written D. writes
38. All f us helped t clean up the ld peple’s hme ________ Eric. He had a bad cld.
A. besides B. against C. except D. with
39. He ________ drives his car in the dwn twn because there is t much traffic.
A. always B. seldm C. smetimes D. ften
40.—What d yu want fr dinner tnight?
—________ . Everything is OK with us.
A. It’s up t yu B. Help yurself C. Never mind D. Dn’t wrry
Ⅶ.完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Lng lng ag, there were tw trees n a hill. One day, they were talking abut their 41 . The first tree said, “I hpe t be a treasure bx and I will have a lt f treasure.” And the secnd tree said, “Smeday I will be a(n) 42 ship and I will take a lt f peple acrss the sea.”
After a few years, a grup f men came t the 43 . They cut dwn（砍伐）the tw trees and tk them back hme. They made the first tree int a baby bed and the secnd tree int a small fishing bat. Bth f them felt sad 44 these were nt their dreams.
Then ne day, a mther wanted t find a place fr her baby. She was 45 t see the baby bed and put her baby in it. Day after day, the first tree culd feel that the baby was his greatest 46 in the wrld. Years later, sme men went fishing and 47 a great strm（暴风雨）n the sea. Luckily, the fishing bat was strng enugh t keep 48 safe. In the end, the tw trees bth knew that they were imprtant.
In life, we dn’t knw 49 will happen next. Maybe things dn’t seem t be as yu like. But we will all find a 50 t achieve ur value.
41. A. animals B. dreams C. babies D. trips
42. A. big B. small C. new D. ld
43. A. sea B. hill C. ship D. hme
44. A. s B. and C. but D. because
45. A. quiet B. wrried C. glad D. busy
46. A. bed B. mther C. guide D. treasure
47. A. saved B. met C. lst D. missed
48. A. it B. him C. us D. them
49. A. what B. when C. hw D. where
50. A. fact B. place C. way D. flag
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共15题，每小题2分，共计30分）
阅读下面A、B、C、D四篇材料，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
A father is flying a kite. His little sn is watching him carefully.
After sme time the sn says, “Dad, the kite can’t g any higher because it’s being held dwn by the string（线）.”
Hearing this, the father smiles and breaks the string. The kite ges higher and higher, but then falls t the grund. The child lks at it sadly.
The father sits next t him and says, “Sn, this can be a lessn fr yu. In life, we might reach a higher level f success after sme time. We might feel like sme f the peple in ur life, such as ur family r friends, are keeping us dwn when we culd be flying even higher. We want t break free frm these strings because we believe they’re stpping us. But actually, these are the things that keep us stable（稳定的）. Withut them, we might fly t high—and then cme crashing（坠毁）t the grund withut peple t keep us safe.”
“We shuldn’t give up culture, family, friends and relatinships, as they help keep us stable while we are flying high.”
51. Why des the father break the string?
A. Because he feels the string is a prblem.
B. Because he wants t make his sn happy.
C. Because he thinks there is n need t keep the kite.
D. Because he wants t shw his sn what will happen.
52. Accrding t the father, hw des the string help with the kite?
A. It helps the kite get free. B. It keeps the kite stable and safe.
C. It makes the kite crash t the grund. D. It helps the kite fly higher.
53. What lessn des the father teach his sn?
A. Be careful with success.
B. True freedm（自由）cmes frm wrking hard.
C. The peple in ur lives can keep us safe.
D. Keep gd relatinships with everybdy.
B
Here is Sunshine Schl’s ntice bard. Let’s have a lk.
54. Sunshine Schl needs students t hand ut leaflets ________.
A. in the schl hall B. in frnt f the schl library
C. n the schl playgrund D. in the ld peple’s hme
55. If Lucy ges t the ld peple’s hme, she needs t stay there fr ________ hur(s).
A. ne B. tw C. three D. fur
56. Frm the ntice bard, we can learn that ________.
A. Dr. Lin will give the first-aid lessn n Thursday
B. Class Three will play against Class Tw n Friday
C. the schl needs three students t hand ut leaflets
D. students shuld help the ld peple clean their hme
C
There was nce a man. He built his wn huse. It tk him ver a year, but in the end, he had a beautiful huse f his wn. N ther huse in his neighbrhd lked like it and many f his neighbrs liked it.
But as time went by, his huse started t have sme prblems. One day, a neighbr said, “Friend, it lks like yur frnt yard（前院）is a bit vergrwn.”
The man replied, “Yes, I knw. But it’s kay. I’ll cut the grass tmrrw.”
A few days later, a pstman came by with a letter fr the man. The pstman said, “Friend, it lks like yur windws are a bit dirty.”
The man replied, “Yes, I knw. But it’s kay. I’ll wash them tmrrw.”
Mnths passed by. Finally, the man’s brther came ver fr a visit. He tk ne lk at his brther’s huse and culdn’t believe what he saw. The yard was in a mess, the paint n the walls was falling dwn and the windws were very dirty. The huse lked terrible because the man put everything ff until（直到）“tmrrw”.
“Tmrrw” can turn int “next week” r even “next year”. It’s much better t just d things tday than t wait until “tmrrw”.
57. What did the neighbrs think f the man’s huse when it was finished?
A. It tk him t lng t build it. B. It was nt beautiful.
C. It was very special. D. It had many prblems.
58. What did the man d with his huse?
A. He asked his neighbrs t build it. B. He built it by himself.
C. He cut the grass nce a week. D. He cleaned the windws every day.
59. What did the man’s brther cme t find?
A. The man was gd at building huses. B. The huse’s walls were brken.
C. The huse was falling dwn. D. The man tk little care f the huse.
60. What des the writer want t tell us?
A. Dn’t wait until tmrrw t d things. B. Dn’t wait thers t clean yur huse.
C. Taking care f yurself is nt hard. D. Taking care f a huse is difficult.
D
Imagine（想象）that yur bdy is like a factry. It takes in “materials（材料）” and puts ut “gds”. If yu start with pr materials, it’s likely that yur gds wn’t be very gd. But if yu use better materials, yur gds will cme ut much better.
What des this mean in real life? It means get enugh sleep, eating health y fd, and exercise. Yu might nt think abut this much as a student, but believe me — as yu get lder, it becmes very imprtant.
It’s gd t start building a better “factry” at a yung age. Getting int the habit f living healthily can help yu in many ways. If yu get enugh sleep （nt t little, nt t much）, yu’ll be able t fcus（集中精力）better n yur studies. Eating health y fd helps yur bdy grw strng and fight against sickness. And exercise can help yu stay fit bth physically and mentally（精神上）.
This sunds like a lt t d. S start small—try t g t bed at the same time each night and wake up at the same time as well. Find time t eat an apple each day—they say “An apple a day keeps the dctr away.” Try t exercise each day, even if it’s nly fr 10 minutes. Ding these little things will help yu build a great “factry”.
61. What des the writer want t shw in Paragraph 1?
A. Hw t run a factry.
B. Which materials are better t use.
C. Materials are imprtant fr the quality（质量）f gds.
D. Factries can’t use pr materials.
62. Which is NOT a gd “material” fr the bdy?
A. Getting enugh sleep. B. Eating health y fd.
C. Exercising t stay fit D. Sleeping until（直到）late mrning.
63. In Paragraph 3, we can learn that ________.
A. it’s gd fr us t build a factry
B. it is OK fr us t eat sme junk fd
C. exercise can help us fcus n ur studies
D. enugh sleep （nt t little, nt t much）is gd fr ur health
64. The underlined wrd “sickness” means “________”in Chinese.
A.疾病 B. 厌恶 C. 失望 D.悲伤
65. What is the writer’s suggestin?
A. It is nt easy t start gd habits.
B. Imprve ur life by ding small things.
C. Yuth（年轻）is the best time t dream big.
D. It is best t live a real life.
IX.任务型阅读。（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
阅读短文，并按要求完成66-70题。
Being sick at schl is nt gd at all. It means missing classes and scial events. It als means that yu have t catch up n wrk. Here are a few tips n hw yu can keep health y at schl.
Wash yur hands. It is the easiest way t stp yu frm catching a cld frm rmmates and friends. Yu shuld wash hands befre eating. Yu shuld use clean running water t wash them. Remember t wash them fr abut twenty secnds.
Drink water. sme yung peple lve t drink cffee. But I advise yu t drink mre water. There are many kinds f drinks, but water is the healthiest fr us. Yu can carry a water bttle in yur backpack and make it full f water all the time.
Dn’t stay up. Staying up late and getting up early fr class the next day mean wrking fr abut ne night. The quickest way t run dwn yur bdy is nt t prvide（提供）it with enugh fd, water and sleep.
Carry sme healthy snacks. Smetimes yu are t busy t have meals. Yu’d better carry sme health y snacks. They can satisfy（满足）yu befre yur next meal.
66—67 题完成句子；68—70 题简略回答问题。
66. If smene is sick at schl, he may miss ________________.
67. ________ is the easiest way t stp us frm catching a cld.
68. What is the healthiest drink fr us accrding t the passage?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
69. Why des the writer advise us t carry sme snacks?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
70. What else can we d t keep healthy? （写出1—2条建议）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
X.词语运用（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
根据短文内容及所给提示，补全文中单词或用所给单词的正确形式填空。
When I was cleaning my rm yesterday, I fund an ld bx f my father’s. He gave it 71. ________ me tw years ag. It was 72. ________ （real）interesting t discver smething abut my father’s life as a child. I learned 73. ________（much）abut him than ever befre. He nce tld me abut his hbbies as a child. He 74. ________（write）t peple frm all ver the wrld, and they sent him letters back. In this way, he had 75. ________ bk f stamps. He learned a lt abut famus peple and histry 76. ________ these stamps. Peple als gave him things frm different 77. ________（cuntry）, such as a silk fan frm China, a little mdel car frm Germany 78. ________ a small mdel ship frm Australia. My father even kept the ticket fr his 79. ________ （ne）ftball match. The bx made me think abut 80. ________（I）hbby. I want t keep my ld picture bks and magazines fr a lng time, t.
XI.基础写作（包括A、B两部分，A部分5分，B部分15分，共计20分）
A）连词成句（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
将所给词语连成句子，标点已给出。要求：符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用。
81. tw at thse lk phts
______________________________________________________.
82. spring tk I last them
______________________________________________________.
83. are beautiful they hw
______________________________________________________!
84. a garden the pht there is in
______________________________________________________.
85. see birds yu happily the singing can
______________________________________________________?
B）书面表达（共计15分）
86.习近平总书记在党的二十大报告中指出“打造宜居、韧性、智慧城市”。请以“My Dream Neighburhd”为主题,给校刊投稿。
1. What’s arund yur dream neighburhd?
2. What are yur dream neighburs like?
3. What d yu think f yur life in yur dream neighburhd?
要求：1.语句通顺，意思连贯，语法正确，书写规范；
2.必须包含所给提示，并做适当发挥；
3.行文中不得出现真实人名、校名或地名 ；
4.词数80左右。（短文的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）
My Dream Neighburhd
I’m glad t share my ideas abut my dream neighburhd. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
This is my dream neighburhd, d yu like it?
2023-2024年学年度第一学期期末学业质量监测
八年级英语试题参考答案
听力部分
1-5 ABBAC 6-10 ACCCA 11-15 CABCA 16-20 BBBAC 21-25 CCBCA
评分标准:1-25小题，每小题1分，计25分；
Ⅴ. 26. England 27. engineer 28. physics 29. hpes 30. 80 / eighty
笔试部分
31-35BDDDA 36-40ACCBA 41-45 BABDC 46-50 DBDAC 51-55DBCBC
56-60 ACBDA 61-65 CDDAB
Ⅸ. 66. classes and scial events
67. Washing (ur) hands
68. Water. / It’s water. / Water is the healthiest drink. / Water is the healthiest fr us. （意思对即得分）
69. Because they can satisfy us befre ur next meal.
70. Exercise after schl. / Have less fast fd.（言之有理，符合要求即得分）
评分标准：1. 66小题首字母大写不得分；67小题首字母不大写不得分，ur答成yur扣一分。
2. 68、70 小题符合要求，语法正确即得分，否则酌情减分。
3. 69 小题us 改成yu, ur改成 yur也得分，其他情况不得分。
Ⅹ. 71. t 72. really 73. mre 74. wrte 75. a
76. frm 77. cuntries 78. r / and 79. first 80. my
Ⅺ. 81. Lk at thse phts
82. I tk them last spring
83. Hw beautiful they are
84. There is a garden in the pht
85. Can yu see the birds singing happily
One pssible versin:
I’m glad t share my ideas abut my dream neighburhd.
My dream neighburhd must be clean. There are many flwers and trees arund it s that we can breathe the fresh air. There is a big square in it fr peple t exercise.
The neighburs here are very friendly and helpful. They ften help each ther. Fr example, yung peple ften help ld peple take ut the rubbish. I think the life here is great. I nt nly like the envirnment here but als like the peple here.
This is my dream neighburhd, d yu like it?
评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名，酌情减分。
Infrmatin Sheet （信息表）
26. Linda is a girl frm ________ .
27. Linda’s father is a（n） ________ .
28. Linda is gd at ________ at schl.
29. Linda ________ t be a scientist in the future.
30. She has cllected mre than ________ cncert tickets.
Helper Wanted
Number f students: Tw.
Place: In frnt f the schl library.
Things t d: Handing ut leaflets（传单）.
Day: Wednesday.
Time: 5: 30 pm-6: 30 pm.
First Aid（急救）
Gd news! Dr. Lin will cme t ur schl t give a first-aid lessn. If yu are interested, cme t the schl hall n Thursday afternn. The lessn is frm 2: 30 pm t 4: 30 pm.
Ntice
There will be a basketball game between Class Three and Class Fur n the schl playgrund this Friday afternn. It will start at 4: 45 pm. Welcme t cme and watch.
Want t help?
Can yu sing r dance? Are yu free n Saturday afternn? What abut ging t the ld peple’s hme t help?
Time: 2: 00 pm—5: 00 pm
一档
13-15分
包含了所有要点, 能围绕内容要点适当发挥，内容具体、丰富；应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇, 用词准确，句子通顺，行文连贯，表达清楚；没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，达到了预期的写作目的。
二档
10-12分
基本包含了所有要点，并有一定发挥，内容比较丰富；应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚；有少量语言错误，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档
7-9分
包含了多数要点，并有所发挥，内容不够丰富、具体，字数较少；句子不够通顺，语言表达过于简单，行文不够连贯；有部分语言错误。
四档
4-6分
只包含了少数要点，内容过少；句子无条理，语言不规范，行文不连贯；语言错误较多。
五档
0-3分
白卷，只包含一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关，内容杂乱，不知所云；语言很不通顺，用词很不准确；错误过多，几乎难以读懂。