2023-2024学年安徽省蚌埠市经开区八年级（上）第一次月考英语试卷

这是一份2023-2024学年安徽省蚌埠市经开区八年级（上）第一次月考英语试卷，共10页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

（试题卷）
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共四部分, 十大题, 满分为120分, 考试时间为120分钟。
2. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题, 在“试题卷”上答题是无效的。
3. 考试结束后, 请将“答题卡” 交回。
听力（共四大题, 满分20分）
I. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分, 满分5分）
你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选岀一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1.Where did the by g last Sunday?
A. B. C.
2. What des the by ften d at hme?
A. B. C.
3. Hw did the by g t the beach?
A. On ft. B. By bus. C. By bike.
4. What des the girl think f the mvie?
A. It's wnderful. B. It's bring. C. It's interesting.
5. Hw ften des the by's sister g t the z?
A.Never. B. Often. C. Usually.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
What's the by's favrite subject?
A. Histry. B. Music. C. Art.
7. Hw ften des the girl listen t music?
A. At least three times a week.
B. Less than three times a week.
C. Mre than five times a week.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8.What did the girl's mther d?
A. Swam in the sea. B. Played beach vlleyball. C. Talked with friends.
9.Hw lng did the girl's brther swim in the sea?
A. 1 hur. B. 2 hurs. C.2.5 hurs.
10.What did the girl think f the things she bught fr her family?
A.They're special. B. They're interesting. C. They're great.
Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. Where des Maris cme frm?
A. Lndn B. ParisC. Sydney
12. Hw lng will Maria and her parents stay in China?
A. Fr tw years. B. Fr three years. C. Fr five years.
13. What are Maria’s parents?
A. Teachers. B. Wrkers. C. Dctrs.
14. What clr des Maria like best?
A. Green. B. Brwn. C. Red.
15. What des the speaker think f Maria?
A. Kind and healthy. B. Helpful and quiet. C. Outging and kind.
IV. 信息转换(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，填写下面表格中的空缺部分。短文读两遍。
英语知识运用（共两大题, 满分30分）
Ⅴ. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My aunt arrived ______ Guangzhu ______ the mrning f August 18．
at； inB. in； nC. in； inD. t； n
Hurry up! The schl bus is cming. We have ________ time left.
few B．a fewC．littleD．a little
Parents' lve fr their children is great and never __________.
wins B. dies C. dislikes D. wrks
The nly prblem was that there was much t d in the evening but read.
nthing B. anything C. nbdy D. anybdy
It rained s that I culd see the rad.
hardly; hardly B. hard; hard C. hard; hardly D. hardly; hard
he was tired, he kept n wrking and never stpped.
Because B. S C. Thugh D. But
yu speak, yur English will be.
The less; the mre; B. The mre; the better;
The less; the better; D. The mre; the less
Life is like a（n）________.When yu laugh in frnt f it, it will als laugh.
mirrrB. swingC. diaryD. umbrella
---What d yu think f Larry, Huang Lei?
---He is quite helpful and always the best in me.
brings up B. brings dwn C. brings in D. brings ut
---I missed the schl bus this mrning.
--- ___________ Yu wke up early this mrning!
A. Nt really.B. Yu’re right.C. Hw cme？D. That’s all right.
Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Last summer, I went t Yunnan n vacatin with my family. We 31 fur days there.
Our first stp was Lugu Lake. I wndered why there was s beautiful a lake in the wrld. I enjyed 32 there. We went bating and tk quite a few phts. Then we went up t a hill. On the tp f the 33 , we gt t see smething beautiful. I felt like I was in a painting. I thught I wuld 34 frget the beautiful scenery (风景) there.
The next mrning we went t Lijiang by bus. It was a lng 35 frm Lugu Lake t Lijiang. In the afternn we 36 . After a shrt break, we went t walk arund the twn and bught 37 special fr ur friends. Then we decided t try the famus Guqia Rice Ndles fr dinner. They were very delicius. After dinner we tk a walk and enjyed the ld streets and buildings under the 38 . The summer evening was cl.
Our next stp was the spring city Kunming. We visited Dianchi, watched the birds and went t the flwer market. We had a really wnderful day.
The 39 trip came t an end sn. We had t g hme. Everything in Yunnan was great. It is a very beautiful and interesting place. I’m 40 yu’ll never regret (懊悔) ging n a trip there.
B
50-year-ld Zha Yuan is disabled (残疾的) , but she has helped ver 2,000 disabled peple.
Zha was a dance teacher befre she gt a kind f 41 illness(疾病) at the age f 24. The illness 42 her sit n a wheelchair (轮椅) and leave her schl. Then she pened a htel in her muntain village and used her mney t 43 13 students' study. She said, " Smene ever helped me, s I want t 44 thers. "
In 2017, she set up a platfrm (建立平台) t help the disabled peple sell their prducts (产品) . 45 , it stpped wrking because f COVID-19 . 46 Zha turned t nline sales. She always spent much time n her friends' prducts by telling 47 abut them. The stries made the sales very gd.
And she always checked the quality (检查质量) f every prduct by herself befre 48 t sell them. Althugh it was 49 fr her, she never stpped checking them. In 2020, she helped her friends 50 2 millin yuan. And everything she sells cmes frm disabled peple.
阅读理解（共两大题, 满分45分）
Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A：Luke,it's time fr lunch.
B：Yes, but I'm nt hungry at all, Le. 51
A：Really？I'm hungry because I didn't have breakfast. I want t rder a takeaway（外卖）nline.
B： 52
A：A hamburger and sme fried chicken.I like them and I usually have them fr lunch.
B：They're delicius, but they're unhealthy. 53 Yu shuld eat lts f fruit and vegetables every day. Als,yu shuld drink milk.
A： 54
B：I think yu have bad eating habits.
A： 55 I shuld change（改变）my eating habits befre it's t late.
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Here are sme ideas abut three students' exercise ut f schl.
Hw lng des Marc spend in the sprts center?
20 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 40 minutes. D. 50 minutes.
Hw ften des Sally swim?
A. At least twice a week. B. At least three times a week.
C. At least fur times a week. D. At least five times a week.
58. What d we knw abut the students?
A. Jhnsn ges t schl by bike with his cusin.
B. Marc and Lucy like t exercise every mrning.
C. The river is between Sally’s hme and schl.
D. Sally ften ges swimming frm Mnday t Friday.
B
Can yu name any red fruits? D yu knw any green vegetables? Let's add a little clr t ur dining table. These fds are gd fr ur health.
Give Red a G
Red fruits and vegetables help keep ur heart strng.What fds are red arund us? Yu might try tmates, sweet peppers, strawberries and cherries（樱桃）.
Lk Out fr Orange
Orange fruits and vegetables help keep ur eyes healthy. D yu like pumpkins, manges and carrts? If nt, it's time t have a change.
Say Yes t Yellw
Yellw fruits and vegetables help keep us frm getting sick. S give bananas, pineapples（菠萝）and sweet crns a g! Then yu may never need t see a dctr.
Let's G Green
Green fruits and vegetables help make ur bnes and teeth strng.That's why we call brccli and cabbage"super-vegetables"!
Try Blue and Purple
Blue fruits and vegetables help ur memry, and s des purple. Grapes, blueberries and blackberries are great chices!
Yu can eat a rainbw（彩虹）f fruits and vegetables!
59. Why des the writer advise adding a little clr t ur dining table？
A. Because the fds are easy t ck.
B. Because the fds will be mre delicius.
C. Because it can make the fds mre clrful.
D. Because these fds are gd fr ur health.
60. Tm has a pr eyesight.What des he need t eat mre？
A. Tmates. B. Pumpkins. C. Bananas.D. Sweet crns.
61. Mr.Wu knws a lt abut clrs and he always eats grapes. Maybe he wants t ______ .
A. have a strnger heartB. keep himself frm getting sick
C. have strnger bnes and teethD. remember things better
62. What d yu knw abut the underlined fd "brccli"？
A. Its clr is blue. B. It's called"super-vegetable".
C. It tastes better than ther vegetables. D. It has the same use as pineapples.
C
D yu knw pleasure f Farmhuse (农家乐)? It’s a new way fr hlidays in China. Nw, mre and mre peple are interested in it, especially yung peple. Every weekend, thusands f peple drive t the cuntryside. The farmers invite them t their farms even hmes. Many peple help the farmers wrk n the farms, such as fishing, watering the crps r picking apples. If yu cme t the farm, yu will fall in lve with the cuntry life at nce. Here yu can listen t the birds, enjy the beautiful view f cuntryside, breathe the fresh air and watch the crps grw. Yu can even taste the fresh prduce, such as tmates and strawberries.
Pleasure f Farmhuse brings a gd chance t enjy the life f cuntryside, especially fr peple living in the cities. It can make them relax.
One farmer said, “Welcme children t ur farms. We will shw yu where yur fd cmes frm.”
63．What is a new way fr hlidays in China?
A．Climbing muntains.B．Ding farm wrk.
C．Pleasure f Farmhuse.D．Fishing.
64．What can’t visitrs d in the cuntryside?
A．They can enjy the beautiful view.B．They can wrk with the farmers.
C．They can taste the fresh prduce.D．They can sell strawberries.
65．In the last paragraph, the farmer said they wuld shw us ________.
A．hw t wrkB．where t grw crps
C．hw t ckD．where t find pleasure
D
Making new friends can be difficult. Dn't wrry. If yu're a nice persn, yu can make friends t.
Step 1. Decide what kind f peple yu want t play with. Chse (选择) cleverly, because yu'll prbably becme like them. Chse children that are nice t ther peple.
Step 2. Smile and say smething nice t the persn yu want t be yur friend. If yu like a persn's shes r think a girl is gd at basketball, just say s. Because everyne likes t be praised（被表扬）.
Step 3. Jin clubs and teams. If yu like sprts, try ut fr sme. Put yurself in situatins where yu are arund many children that enjy the same activities as yu. It's easier t develp (发展) friendships when yu have the same hbbies.
Step 4. Ask questins carefully. Be careful nt t ask t persnal questins r ask smene t many questins. But asking ne r tw questins shws yu're interested in him r her.
What shuld yu say if yu want t make friends with him r her?
A. His clthes are cl.B. He is nt friendly.
C. Her English is pr.D. She isn't gd at playing sccer.
67. What shuld yu d when yu make friends with smene?
A. Ask hw ld he r she is.
B. Ask him r her t many questins.
C. Smile and say smething nice t him r her.
D. Tell him r her yu dn't like his r her shes.
68. Why shuld we say smething nice t smene we want t make friends with?
A. Because peple are happy when they are praised.
B. Because they like the same sprt as we d.
C. Because they are interested in us.
D. Because they are nice t us.
69. What is mainly talked abut in the passage?
A. It is difficult t make new friends.B. There are sme steps t make new friends.
C. Be nice t the peple arund yu. D. Everyne has their hbbies and interests.
E
If yu want t visit many famus places in a city and try sme delicius fd, yu may need many days t d them. But sme peple can d all f them in just 48 hurs.
This kind f trip is becming ppular these days. Sme peple think it is nt a relaxing trip. It is mre like "special frces" training (特种部队训练). Many yung peple, usually cllege students (大学生), try it ut, because they dn't have much mney.
In fact, the travel squads (特种兵式旅游) like t g t sme places with gd transprtatin services (交通服务). During the ne-day Qingming hliday, 62% f the pst-2000 visitrs tk vernight transprtatin t travel and mre than 30% f the grup visited mre than fur places f interest in a day.
A student named Liu Jia frm Wuhan enjys this kind f trip." I may nt have a lt f time t travel arund, but at least I can take trips at weekends," he says.
Sme peple think that this kind f trip is t shrt fr them t really experience and enjy a city." We spend a lt f time planning the trips.We really enjy the place when we arrive. My bdy can be tired, but I'm happy t see new things," Liu Jia says.
70. Why d cllege students like t try the trip like "special frces" training?
Because they want t try sme delicius fd.
Because they think this kind f trip is ppular.
Because they think this kind f trip is relaxing.
Because they d nt have a lt f mney.
71. What des the underlined wrd "experience" mean in the last paragraph?
体验 B. 遭受 C. 经历 D. 实践
72. What can we learn frm the passage?
The travel squads like t g t sme places with bad transprtatin services.
30% f the pst-2000 visitrs tk vernight transprtatin t travel.
Fr sme peple, this kind f trip isn’t lng enugh t enjy a city.
Peple like Liu Jia dn’t need t spend a lt f time planning the trips .
F
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。
The 19th Asian Games(亚运会)will be held frm Sept 23 t Oct 8 in Hangzhu and five ther cities in Zhejiang — Ningb, Wenzhu, Jinhua, Shaxing and Huzhu.
Many artists welcme the Asian Games with their artwrks. And Su Hngfei is ne f them. She is a great artist frm Haining, Zhejiang. She makes sme beautiful paper cuttings(剪纸作品) t shw her best wishes fr the Asian Games.
One f the wrks is Welcme t the Asian Games. We can see the "Big Ltus(大莲花)”— the Hangzhu Olympic Sprts Center Stadium in the middle f the wrk. There are sme cluds between the lg(标志)f the Games and the Big Ltus. She als uses fur kinds f flwers t shw the fur seasns in this wrk.
Su Hngfei and her team make ver 20 paper cuttings abut the Asian Games. They als make things like clth bags and cups t shw traditinal Chinese culture(中国传统文化).
Where des Su Hngfei cme frm?(不超过5个词)
Why des Su Hngfei make sme beautiful paper cuttings?(不超过10个词)
What des Su Hngfei use t shw the fur seasns in her wrk?(不超过5个词)
写（共两大题, 满分25分）
Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
It s （似乎，好像）that I will finish this bk in tw days.
Yu shuldn’t p （指着）at thers with yur fingers（手指）.
He a （几乎）frgt the time t g back hme.
We were excited t knw the r （结果）f the singing cmpetitin.
Gd friends always have s （相似的）hbbies.
Ⅹ. 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
假如你是李华，你的好朋友Mike想要了解你平时的锻炼情况。请根据要点内容提示，给他写封信。要点如下：
每天至少锻炼半小时；
主要是跑步和球类运动；
喜欢和同学一起；
要求∶
短文内容要包括以上所有提示信息内容；
内容可适当发挥，以保证内容的完整与流畅；
词数∶不少于80。开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Mike,
I'm very happy t tell yu smething abut my exercise at schl.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

With my best wishes!
Yurs,
Li Hua
The Ways t Wrk Out Students’ Prblem
First
16 the hmewrk in sme times.
Secnd
Exercise at least 17 hurs a week.
Third
Listen t sme music t relax yur 18 .
Dn’t drink 19 in the night.
Furth
Try 20 smething.
31. A. tk
B. paid
C. cst
D. spent
32. A. staying
B. skating
C. waiting
D. climbing
33. A. lake
B. wrld
C. hill
D. painting
34. A. always
B. never
C. smetimes
D. ften
35. A. jump
B. run
C. walk
D. trip
36. A. gt
B. went
C. arrived
D. mved
37. A. smething
B. nthing
C. anything
D. everything
38. A. sun
B. mn
C. tree
D. sea
39. A. fur day
B. fur-day
C. fur-days
fur days
40. A. srry
B. afraid
C. sad
D. sure
41. A. cheap
B. funny
C. terrible
D. nice
42. A. helped
B. made
C. put
D. tried
43. A. pay fr
B. lk fr
C. ask fr
D. wait fr
44. A. find
B. hear
C. frget
D. help
45. A. Luckily
B. Hwever
C. Als
D. Or
46. A. Because
B. And
C. S
D. Thugh
47. A. stries
B. diaries
C. ideas
D. ways
48. A. enjying
B. spending
C. deciding
D. making
49. A. easy
B. difficult
C. different
D. enjyable
50. A. lse
B. take
C. get
D. put
Yu' re right.
B. What abut yu？
C. Try t eat them less.
D. Yu lk s healthy.
E. I ate a big and healthy breakfast.
F. Oh, what wuld yu like t rder？
G. But I really dn't like them very much.
I like exercising very much, and I usually run in the park near my hme every mrning. After the thirty-minute run, I have a little rest and then have sme eggs and milk. After that, I ride t schl with my cusin, Helen. We live next t each ther.
Jhnsn
Lucy is my sister and we like t exercise with each ther every afternn after schl. We usually play basketball r ping-png in the sprts center fr frty minutes. It's between my hme and the schl. We d it at least fur times a week. It's really healthy fr us.
Marc
I enjy swimming very much, and when I'm free, I usually g swimming in the river near my hme. I usually d it at least three times a week. Sme f my classmates als like it very much. On weekends, we g swimming with each ther.
Sally
英语（人教版）参考答案及评分标准
听力
Ⅰ. 1-5: CBCAA
Ⅱ. 6-10: BABCA
Ⅲ. 11-15: CBACC
Ⅳ. 16. Finish 17. 5/five 18. mind 19. cffee 20. reading
评分标准：1-20题，每小题1分。
英语知识运用
Ⅴ. 21-25: BCBAC 26-30: CBADC
Ⅵ. 31-35: DACBD 36-40: CABBD 41-45: CBADB 46-50: CACBC
评分标准：21-50题，每小题1分。
阅读理解
Ⅶ. 51-55: EFCGA
评分标准：51-55题，每小题1分。
Ⅷ. 56-58: CBA 59-62: DBDB 63-65: CDB 66-69: ACAB 70-72: DAC
Haining, Zhejiang./ She’s frm Haining, Zhejiang...
T shw her best wishes fr the Asian Games.
Fur kinds f flwers.
评分标准：56-75题，每小题2分。
写
Ⅸ. 76. seems 77. pint 78. almst 79. result(s) 80. similar
评分标准：76-80题，每小题1分。
Ⅹ.【范文】ne pssible versin：
Dear Mike，
I’m very happy t tell yu smething abut my exercise at schl.
I usually take exercise at least thirty minutes at schl. I knw it’s really gd fr my mind and bdy. I usually play all kinds f balls such as basketball, vlleyball and s n. They are all very interesting t me. I usually take exercise at least five times a week. At schl，I ften play sprts with my classmates. Smetimes I als exercise with my PE teacher. He is very kind and ften teaches me smething. I think I als need t eat healthy fd t keep healthy. I’ll keep exercising every day.
With my best wishes!
Yurs,
Li Hua
各档次的划分以及给分要求:
第五档(很好)： (20 ~17 分)
完全完成了试题规定任务，涵盖了所有的内容要点，或在发挥时内容有新意有亮点，语言基本无错误，行文连贯，表达清楚。
第四档(好)： (16 ~13 分)
完成了试题规定的任务，涵盖了基本的内容要点，语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。
第三档( 一般)： (12 ~9 分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务，写出了一些内容，语言有一些错误，行文不够连贯。
第二档 (较差)：
(8 ~5 分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务，只能写出个别观点，语言错误较多，未能清楚表达信息。
第一档 (差)：
(4 ~0 分)
未能完成试题规定的任务，只能写出有关内容的一些单词，语法错误很多，未能清楚表达信息。