湖北省孝感市孝南区2022-2023学年七年级下学期4月期中英语试题

这是一份湖北省孝感市孝南区2022-2023学年七年级下学期4月期中英语试题，共10页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，单项选择，完形填空，阅读理解，综合填空，完成句子，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

第Ⅰ卷 选择题 (88 分)
一、听力测试 (共三节，共25小题； 每小题1分，满分25分)
第一节：听五个句子，从下面所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中，按顺序选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子读两遍。
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
第二节：听下面六段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，根据对话内容，选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案。听完每段对话后，你将有10或15秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6、7小题。
6. What is Rse ding?
A. She is ding her hmewrk. B. She is playing the guitar. C. She is playing tennis.
7. What's Rse’s telephne number?
A. It's 256-9811. B. It's 256-8911. C. It's 265-9811.
听第二段对话，回答第8、9小题。
8. What can the by d?
A. Run in the hallways. B. Fight in the schl. C. Eat in the dining hall.
9. Wh are the tw speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Mther and sn.
听第三段对话，回答第10、11 小题。
10. Where are the tw speakers?
A. At the sprts center. B. At the music center. C. At the art center.
11. What can't they d there?
A. They can't talk. B. They can't take phts. C. They can't fight.
听第四段对话，回答第12、13、14小题。
12. What club is Jim in?
A. The basketball club. B. The music club. C. The sprts club.
13. When des Jim g hme?
A. At 4:00 p. m. B. At 5:00 p. m. C. At 6:00 p. m.
14. What des Jim's brther g t play after class?
A. The drums. B. The vilin. C. Basketball.
听第五段对话，回答第15、16、17小题。
15. Why des the girl like t see the giraffes first?
A. Because they are friendly and clever.
B. Because they are big and fun.
C. Because they are small and cute.
16. Where are the lins frm?
A. Canada. B. China. C. Africa.
17. Hw many kinds f animals d they mentin(提及)?
A.4. B.3. C.2.
听第六段对话, 回答第18、19、20 小题。
18. Where is the wman ging?
A. T the htel. B. T the library. C. T the park.
19. Hw far is it?
A. Fur kilmeters. B. Tw kilmeters. C. Three kilmeters.
20. Hw will the wman get there?
A. By bike. B. By car. C. By bus.
第三节：听下面一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，根据短文内容，选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案。听完短文后，你将有25秒钟的作答时间。短文读两遍。
21. What time des Sally get up every mrning?
A. At seven. B. At six thirty. C. At six.
22. Why can't Sally meet her friends after schl?
A. Because she has t walk hme.
B. Because she has t walk her dg.
C. Because she has t d hmewrk.
23. What des Sally d n weekends?
A. Cleans her rm. B. Washes her clthes. C. Cleans the park.
24. Where des Sally g t learn the guitar?
A. The music club. B. The Children's art club. C. At schl.
25. Hw des Sally feel at hme?
A. Happy. B. Terrible. C. Afraid.
二、单项选择 (共10小题； 每小题1分，满分10分)
从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个可以填入句子空白处的最佳选项。
26.— Hw many children are there in the schl?

A. Hundred f B. Tw hundreds C. Tw hundreds f D. Tw hundred
27. Mlly's mther asks her t her hair shrt.
A. find B. keep C. let D. remember
28. They get dressed half past six the mrning.
A. in; n B. n; in C. at; in D. in; at
29. Pandas are animals. They dn't want t see many peple.
A. shy B. lazy C. scary D. friendly
30. Bb usually ges t schl bike, but smetimes he ges t schl ft.
A. with; n B. n; by C. n; with D. by; n
31.— is yur schl frm yur hme, Gina?
— Only ten minutes’ walk.
A. Hw lng B. Hw far C. Hw many D. Hw much
32. We mustn't buy things ivry.
A. made in B. made frm C. made by D. made f
33. Bb ften newspapers after supper. But tday he is a letter.
A. reads, writing B. reads, writes C. is reading, writes D. is reading, writing
34. Dashan is at Chinese. He can speak Chinese very .
A. gd; gd B. well; well C. gd; well D. well; gd
35. My mther said t me,“ Tm, in bed.”
A. nt read B. desn't read C. dn't read D. n read
三、完形填空(共15小题； 每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面的短文，根据其内容，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个可以填入文中空白处的最佳选项，使短文意思完整，句子通顺。
Summer hliday is cming. The Greens are taking a trip t Sanya in Hainan. Hw will they 36 there? The family have different ideas(想法).
The sn Dale says,“ Let’s take the 37 . Taking a trip by train is really relaxing. We can see the beautiful scenery(风景) 38 the windw.”
The daughter Alice says,“ But the train statin is far frm ur hme. If(如果) we g there by train, we have t leave hme 39 . S, let's drive a car.”
“ Why?” asks Dale.
“ Because we can 40 at any place and at any time n ur way,” answers Alice.
“ But I think taking a trip by car is 41 . And smetimes, we can't find the right way and may 42 . What abut taking a bus?” asks Dale.
“ Oh, that’s 43 . There are always 44 peple n the bus. And it 45 a lng time. I dn't like that.” says Alice.
Then they g t ask fr their 46 ideas. But they like 47 ways. Mr. Green wants t take the plane because it's the fastest way. He says that they can't spend(花费) t much time n the way 48 they need time t visit the city. But Mrs. Green wants t g by ship because it is cheap(便宜的) and they can save sme 49 .
Everyne’s idea is nt the same. What d yu 50 their ideas? Which is the best way?
36. A. get n B. get t C. arrive D. arrive at
37. A. bus B. plane C. car D. train
38. A. frm B. t C. between D. fr
39. A. late B. early C. quietly D. easily
40. A. stp B. sleep C. walk D. talk
41. A. interesting B. fun C. bring D. relaxing
42. A. get dressed B. get up C. get lst D. get ut
43. A. true B. terrible C. useful D. nice
44. A. t many B. many t C. much t D. t much
45. A. feels B. learns C. uses D. takes
46. A. parent's B. parents' C. teacher's D. teachers’
47. A. thers B. any ther C. ther D. the ther
48. A. but B. because C. r D. s
49. A. mney B. time C. fd D. life
50. A. think fr B. think f C. ask abut D. ask fr
四、阅读理解(共两节，共19小题； 每小题2分，满分38分)
第一节：阅读选择 (共14小题，每小题2分，满分 28 分)
阅读下面三篇短文，根据短文内容，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。
A
Dear Mr. Wang,
Smene cmes t the ffice t see yu in the mrning, but yu and yur wife(妻子) are ut. He cmes here at 10:00 a. m. Because he is very busy, he leaves half an hur later. He tells me that he is yur cllege(大学) classmate. Nw he teaches Chinese in a high schl in this city and he lives near N.6 Middle Schl. He is a very tall man with shrt hair. He wears a pair f glasses. He tells me his telephne number is 33426685. He is ften at hme at 7:00 p. m. S yu can call him in the evening.
Mlly
51. This nte(便条) is t .
A. Mr. Wang B. Mlly C. Mr. Wang's classmate D. Mr. Wang's wife
52. Mr. Wang's classmate is .
A. a cllege teacher B. an ffice wrker C. a musician D. a high schl teacher
53. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Mr. Wang and his wife are classmates.
B. Mr. Wang's classmate is shrt.
C. Mr. Wang ges ut with Mrs. Wang in the mrning.
D. Mr. Wang's classmate's phne number is 33446685.
54. Why des Mlly write the nte?
A. Because she wants t tell Mr. Wang smene cmes t meet him.
B. Because she wants t knw smething abut Mrs. Wang.
C. Because she wants t get Mr. Wang's phne number.
D. Because she wants t g t the cllege.
B
My name is Kate. There are many rules in my life. I think these rules are imprtant t me.
At hme, I can't play cmputer games fr mre than(超过) half an hur. I think it is gd fr my study because I can have mre time t study. I must make the bed after I get up. And I must clean my rm every day. S my bedrm is always clean and tidy. My mther says keeping the rm tidy is gd fr my health.
I study at N.19 Middle Schl. At ur schl, we als have sme rules. We can't be late fr schl. S we must arrive at schl n time. We must get t schl befre half past seven in the mrning. We need t wear the schl unifrm every day. In the class, we have t be quiet. We can't listen t music. We can't eat in class. We must eat in the dining hall. After class, we can't run in the hallways.
55. Hw des Kate feel abut the rules in her life?
A. Strict. B. Interesting. C. Bad. D. Imprtant.
56. Hw lng can Kate play cmputer games accrding t(根据) this passage(文章)?
A. Twenty minutes. B. One and a half hurs. C. Thirty- five minutes. D. One hur.
57. What time can Kate arrive at schl accrding t the passage?
A. At 7:35 a. m. B. At 7:40 a. m. C. At 8:00 a. m. D. At 7:25 a. m.
58. What can we knw frm the passage?
A. Kate desn't d any husewrk. B. Kate never fllws the schl rules.
C. Kate is a tidy girl. D. Kate has t be quiet at hme.
59. The best title(标题) fr the passage is“ ”.
A. Rules in Kate's Life B. Kate's Schl Life
C. Rules at Kate's Hme D. Kate's Schl Rules
C
Danny Lee is a student f the fifth grade. He wants t jin the schl tackle ftball(冲撞橄榄球) team. Peter Lee is Danny’s dad. He has ther ideas.“ My friends never want their kids t play tackle ftball.” Peter nce tld TIME fr Kids. He desn't want his sn t play tackle ftball, either. Instead, he wants Danny t play flag ftball(腰旗橄榄球). In this game, players dn't need t tackle.
Experts(专家) say kids under 14 may be in danger when they are playing tackle ftball. The sprt can cause(造成) bad head injuries(伤害). A study finds that playing tackle ftball befre age 12 can cause health prblems later in life. But flag ftball is a safe(安全的) sprt. And it becmes a ppular sprt in the United States.
Sphie Day is 14. She plays flag ftball. She says flag ftball is exciting. And fr Sphie's mm, it's all abut safety.“ In tackle ftball, yu have t be big, yu have t be bad, and yu have t win(赢),” She says.“ ▲ It's a friendly sprt.”
60. What des the underlined wrd“ Instead” mean in Chinese?
A. 仍然 B. 反而 C. 尽管 D. 甚至
61. Accrding t the passage, playing tackle ftball is fr kids under 14.
A. difficult B. interesting C. dangerus D. relaxing.
62. Flag ftball is ppular in nw.
A. America B. Thailand C. Australia D. China
63. Which sentence can be put in ▲ ?(以下哪个句子可以填入 ▲ ? )
A. But flag ftball is nt like that. B. Every player is very healthy.
C. Which ball game is yur favrite? D. I can teach yu t play tackle ftball.
64. What can we knw frm the passage?
A. Danny's father wants him t play tackle ftball.
B. Playing flag ftball befre age 12 can cause health prblems later in life.
C. Sphie's mm des well in playing flag ftball.
D. Danny's father and Sphie's mther think it's imprtant t keep safe when playing sprts.
第二节：阅读还原 (共5 小题； 每小题2分，满分 10分)
阅读下面的短文，根据其内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。(每个选项限用一次，其中有一项为多余选项)
My favrite animals are kalas because they' re very cute. D yu knw abut kalas? 65
Kalas cme frm Australia. The kala is ne f Australia’s symbls. They have small black eyes, big ears and thick(浓密的) hair. 66 They are 70-80 cm lng. 67 Eucalyptus leaves(按树叶)! They hardly drink because they can get much water frm the eucalyptus leaves. 68 They get up and have fd at night. They can sleep fr 16 t 18 hurs a day.
69 Tday there are nly abut 43,000 kalas. Peple cut dwn trees s kalas are lsing their hmes. Peple als kill kalas. We must d smething t save them.
A. But they are in great danger nw.
B. What d they like t eat best?
C. Let me tell yu smething abut them.
D. Kalas are really cute and smart.
E. Their hair is usually gray and brwn.
F. They sleep in the trees in the daytime.
第 II 卷 非选择题 (32 分)
五、综合填空 (共10小题； 每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面的短文，在空白处填入适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。(每空不超过三个单词)
I'm a student f Grade Seven. Nw I 70 ( read) a bk abut the time difference(时差). It's very interesting. Let me give yu an example(例子). It's ne ’ clck in the early mrning in Beijing. Peple are still sleeping. 71 are the peple in different cuntries(国家) ding?
In Lndn, sme peple are leaving wrk t g back t 72 ( they) huses. They are walking73 ( quick). In Mscw, sme peple are taking 74 walk in the park after dinner. Sme are ging t the 75 ( mvie). It's mrning in Ls Angeles. 76 ( child) are ging t schl. And adults are wrking in the ffice. Mst f them g t wrk 77 subway. Hw abut New Yrk? It's nn. Peple aren't wrking 78 studying. They are eating hamburgers, ht dgs r ther fd. Sme peple are meeting friends. Everyne wishes 79 ( have) a happy day.
六、完成句子 (共7小题； 每小题1分，满分7分)
阅读下列各小题，根据汉语句子及句末括号内的英语单词提示，用相关短语的适当形式完成句子。(每空不超过四个单词)
80.他们可以给你讲故事，你们可以交朋友。(tell)
They can and yu can make friends.
81.这位老师应付小孩子有一套。( gd)
The teacher kids.
82.朱辉现在正在洗澡。 ( take)
Zhu Hui nw.
83.他们的梦想能够成为现实吗? ( cme)
Can their dream ?
84.玛丽知道冰淇淋对她(健康)不利，但它却很好吃。(taste)
Mary knws ice- cream is nt gd fr her, but it
85.请遵守规则, 不要迟到。( fllw)
and dn't be late, please.
86.晚饭后，我的爷爷要么看电视要么听音乐。( either)
After dinner, my grandpa listens t music.
七、书面表达 (共1题，满分15分)
假如你是李华，请以“ My Gd Friend”为题，根据以下思维导图的提示写一篇英文短文介绍你的好朋友。
写作要求：1.可适当发挥，使文章内容完整，层次清晰，表达流畅，语法正确；
2.不少于70词(文章开头已给出，不计入总词数) 。
My Gd Friend
Hell, my name is Li Hua. I have a gd friend..
孝南区2022-2023学年度七年级下学期期中学业水平监测
英语参考答案及评分标准
一、听力测试
1-5 CAEDF6-10 CACBC11-15 BBCCA
16-20 CAABC21-25 BCAAB
二、单项选择
26-30 DBCAD31-35 BDACC
三、完形填空
36-40 CDABA41-45 CCBAD46-50 BCBAB
四、阅读理解
51-54 ADCA55-59 DADCA60-64 BCAAD
65-69 CEBFA
五、综合填空
70. am reading 71. What 72. their 73. quickly 74. a
75. mvies 76. Children 77. by 78. r 79. t have
注：若第71、76题单词首字母未大写，则该题不给分。
六、完成句子
80. tell yu stries/tell yu a stry/tell stries t yu
81. is gd with 82. is taking a shwer
83. cme true 84. tastes gd/delicius
85. Fllw the rule(s) 86. either watches TV r
注：1、未使用所给提示词0分，只照抄提示词0分，未写出正确短语0分；
2、短语使用正确，但语言结构错误 (如时态、语态、非谓语动词、从句等)只得0.5分；
3、短语使用正确，但出现单复数、单词个别字母拼写、个别代词或冠词错误或缺漏、大小写等错误只得0.5分；
4. 与答案相符，给满分。
若第86题只写出了either … r 或watches TV这两个短语中的一个只给0.5分。
七、书面表达：
1.评分原则：先根据写作内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。评分时应注意内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和正确性，上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
2.评分提示：
（1）写作内容与题目要求无关，照抄试卷中与作文主题无关的内容均为0分；
（2）给分有理、扣分有据，鼓励学生动笔但需谨慎给满分；
（3）语法类的错误按照种类，而不是按照错误个数逐个扣分；单词拼写一般 3 个错误扣 1 分，句式结构等错误扣1-3 分，人称全错扣 5 分；
（4）总词数少于试题要求的，扣1分；略有超过规定总词数的，不扣分。
3. 评分标准：
满分15分：全篇零瑕疵， 同时有亮点，如使用高级词汇或句式，语言优美，行文流畅等。
第五档(13－15分):符合题目要求，要点齐全，句子结构完整，语言准确，语意连贯，表达清晰，条理逻辑合理，文章有美感且可读性强，书写工整，卷面整洁，只有个别语法或拼写类的小错误。
第四档(10－12分):大体符合题目要求，要点基本齐全。语法结构和词汇满足表达需要，语言较通顺，语意较连贯，表达较清楚。有少量语言错误，但不影响整体理解。
第三档(7－9分): 部分内容符合题目要求，要点不齐全。语句基本通顺，有一些语法结构和词汇错误，语言表达不够清楚，但就整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(4－6分)：能写出少量内容要点，漏掉或未描述清楚主要内容，影响了对写作内容的理解，但尚能达意；语句不通顺，语言有较多错误，只有少量句子表达正确。
第一档(0－3分)：基本或完全没写出内容要点，只有少数单词、词组或短语的拼凑和堆砌，不知所云。
0分：抄袭试卷中与本题无关的文章；写的内容均与所要求的内容无关；写的内容完全无法辨认；白卷