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    湖北省孝感市孝南区2022-2023学年八年级上学期期中监测英语试题

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    这是一份湖北省孝感市孝南区2022-2023学年八年级上学期期中监测英语试题,共4页。试卷主要包含了听力测试,单项选择,完形填空,阅读理解,综合填空,完成句子,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    第Ⅰ卷 选择题(88分)
    一、听力测试(共三节;满分25分)
    第一节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    听五个句子。从下面所给的A、B、C、D、E、F六个选项中,按顺序选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。听完每个句子后,你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子读两遍。

    A B C

    D E F
    1. ____________ 2. ___________ 3. ____________ 4. ____________ 5. ____________
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    听下面六段对话,每段对话后有几个小题,根据对话内容,选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案。听完每段对话后,你将有10或15秒钟的作答时间,每段对话读两遍。
    听第一段对话,回答第6、7小题。
    6. Hw ften des Annie play sprts?
    A. Smetimes. B. Hardly ever. C. Never.
    7. Which sprt is Le gd at?
    A. Basketball. B. Sccer. C. Vlleyball.
    听第二段对话,回答第8、9小题。
    8. What subject des Mr. Williams teach?
    A. P. E. B. Art. C. Music.
    9. What is Miss Vincent like?
    A. Outging. B. Smart. C. Serius.
    听第三段对话,回答第10、11小题。
    10. Where did the by g n vacatin?
    A. New Yrk. B. Lndn. C. Paris.
    11. Hw were the museums?
    A. Bring but clean. B. Interesting but dirty. C. Interesting but crwded.
    听第四段对话,回答第12、13、14小题。
    12. What des Bill want t d n Sunday?
    A. T buy sme clthes. B. T buy a pair f jeans. C. T buy a pair f shes.
    13. Which stre des Anna think the best?
    A. Center Stre. B. Sunny She Stre. C. Happy Sh e Stre.
    14. Hw can Bill g there?
    A. Take a bus. B. G there n ft. C. Ride a bike.
    听第五段对话,回答第15、16、17小题。
    15. Where des Miss Black cme frm?
    A. China. B. America. C. England.
    16. Where des Miss Black wrk?
    A. At a schl. B. In a bank. C. In a hspital.
    17. Hw ften des Miss Black cme t China?
    A. Twice a year. B. Three times a year. C. Fur times a year.
    听第六段对话,回答第18、19、20小题。
    18. Where is Susic?
    A. At hme. B. In the library. C. At the cffee shp.
    19. What is Mat t reading?
    A. A bk. B. A magazine. C. A newspaper.
    20. What is Susic learning?
    A. Swing dance. B. Kung fu. C. Swimming.
    第三节(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    听下面一篇短文。短文后有5个小题,根据短文内容,选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案。听完短文后,你将有25秒钟的作答时间。短文读两遍。
    21. When did they have the talent shw?
    A. Last Friday. B. Yesterday. C. Last Saturday.
    22. Hw many acts were there at the talent shw?
    A. Twelve. B. Fifteen. C. Twenty.
    23. Wh was the best perfrmer?
    A. Steve.B. Mark.C. Dennis.
    24. What did Mary d at the talent shw?
    A. She danced beautifully.B. She sang a beautiful sng.
    C. She tld a funny stry.
    25. What prize did Tm and his musical grup win?
    A. The mst creative act.B. The best dancer.C. The ludest singer.
    二、单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    从每小题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出一个可以填入句子空白处的最佳选项。
    26. —Lk! There is ____________ umbrella n the table. Is it Tny’s?
    —-N, I think ____________ umbrella is Jenny’s.
    A. an; aB. an; theC. a; theD. a; a
    27. —Did yu d ____________ last Sunday?
    —N, I just stayed at hme.
    A. special smethingB. smething specialC. special anythingD. anything special
    28. —Which f the tw shirts d yu want?
    —I want ____________. One is fr my brther and the ther is fr myself.
    A. allB. bthC. nneD. each
    29. —D yu have any ____________ fr the cming weekend?
    —Yes, I want t visit the car museum.
    A. jkesB. reasnsC. gradesD. plans
    30. —Many students think math is nt ____________ English.
    — I think s.
    A. s mre difficult thanB. s difficult as
    C. s mre difficult asD. as much difficult as
    31. Wh listens____________, Tm, Jack r Bill?
    A. the mst carefullyB. mre carefullyC. the mst carefulD. mre careful
    32. —____________ Ms. Chen lks serius and strict, she is truly friendly t us.
    —I agree.
    A. BecauseB. AlthughC. ThrughD. If
    33. —Is this schlbag different ____________ that ne?
    —N. That schlbag is the same ____________ this ne.
    A. as; frmB. with; asC. frm; withD. frm; as
    34. As friends, we can talk freely and____________ happiness with each ther.
    A. shareB. mindC. expectD. break
    35. —My favrite TV shws are sprts shws and talk shws.
    —____________ . I can’t stand them.
    A. They’re bringB. Sunds greatC. It’s interestingD. Of curse
    三、完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    阅读下面的短文,根据其内容,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个可以填入文中空白处的最佳选项,使短文意思完整,句子通顺。
    D yu like sprts? All ver the wrld peple enjy sprts. Sprts can help peple t keep healthy, happy and t live 36 . What sprts d yu like? Peple ften 37 different games in winter and summer. Summer is gd 38 swimming. And in winter peple ften g skating. Sme sprts are very ppular arund the wrld 39 basketball, ftball and running. D yu ften run? Are yu gd at it? Here is a funny stry abut running!
    Peter and Mike are in the 40 class. Peter lived in a pr family. But Mike’s father is a shpkeeper and is 41 . When Peter has prblems, Mike always 42 him. Peter likes t have sprts. And he is gd at running. 43 can catch up with(追上)him in his schl and he ften wins the 400-meter race.
    It was Sunday. Mike and Peter went t a frest t have a picnic. ‘Mike tk a lt f 44 there. They ate and drank and then began t g fishing in the river. The tw bys enjyed themselves there. Suddenly they 45 a great nise(噪音). They lked arund and fund it was 46 behind a big tree. They were bth very 47 . Peter put n his. shes 48 and was ging t run away. Mike 49 him and said, “It’s n use fr us. The tiger runs 50 than us. Let’s find a way.” “It desn’t matter.” said Peter, “I’m sure I’ll run faster than yu!”
    Dn’t yu think yu shuld learn t run fast?
    36. A. shrterB. lngerC. slwerD. faster
    37. A. gB. dC. playD. get
    38. A. tB. inC. frD. n
    39. A. fr exampleB. such asC. s nD. in fact
    40. A. sameB. difficultC. cheapD. expensive
    41. A. hardB. prC. richD. unhappy
    42. A. helpsB. winsC. laughsD. acts
    43. A. NbdyB. EveryneC. AnybdyD. Smene
    44. A. bksB. clthesC. fdD. mvies
    45. A. listened tB. tastedC. heardD. watched
    46. A. a linB. a tigerC. a manD. a runner
    47. A. excitedB. bredC. tiredD. afraid
    48. A. slwlyB. happilyC. beautifullyD. quickly
    49. A. stpped B. askedC. wnderedD. tld
    50. A. fastest B. much fasterC. mre slwlyD. much slwly
    四、阅读理解(共19小题;每小题2分,满分38分)
    第一节:阅读选择(共14小题,每小题2分,满分28分)
    阅读下面三篇短文,根据短文内容,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳选项。
    A
    Because f COVID-19, peple’s travel plans dn’t cme true. But Liu Yuxi and Liu Hngjia fund a new way t travel arund China. They mved int a recreatinal vehicle(RV)(房车)and are ging n interesting trips.
    In June 2020, the tw started a trip in their RV t celebrate(庆祝)their 30tª birthday. They drve 14,380 kilmeters frm Shanghai t Tibet in 100 days. The trip was very exciting. Last year, they tk a trip alng the famus Silk Rad. The tw lved this way f traveling.
    “Usually, we need t plan a vacatin very carefully. We have t decide when t get t the airprt(机场), which htel t stay in and things like that,” Liu Hngjia says. “An RV trip is different. On an RV trip, yu can g r stp anywhere yu want.”
    Nw, mre and mre Chinese peple are interested in RV trips. Arund the cuntry, the sales f RVs rcketed last year. The number was 12,582, abut 43 percent higher than that in 2020. The number was 4,541 in 2017.
    RV trips are getting ppular in China. What d yu think f traveling in an RV?
    51. Liu Yuxi and Liu Hngjia tk an RV trip t celebrate their 30th birthday in____________.
    A. 2020B. 2021C. 2022D. 2017
    52. What is special abut RV trips accrding t Paragraph 3?
    A. They are cheap.B. They are hard t start.
    C. They dn’t need a lt f planning.D. They are expensive.
    53. What des the underlined wrd “rcketed” in Paragraph 4 prbably mean in Chinese?
    A. 跌落B. 猛增C. 撤回D. 消失
    54. Which f the fllwing is NOT TRUE?
    A. In 2020, Liu Yuxi and Liu Hngjia drve 14,380 kilmeters frm Shanghai t Tibet in 100 days.
    B. Nw, mre and mre Chinese peple lse interest in RV trips.
    C. Liu Yuxi and Liu Hngjia think RV trips are great fun.
    D. On an RV trip, yu can g r stp anywhere yu want.
    B
    It’s never t late t d what yu want t d. Anna Mary, knwn as Grandma Mses, lived n a farm. As a child, she lved drawing. But she hardly did it because f the bus y farm wrk.
    Grandma Mses spent all her life n the farm. When she was ld and fund farm wrk difficult, she started t paint when she was 78.
    An art lver fund Grandma Mses’s paintings in a shp in 1938. He bught them, and the next day he went t her farm and bught all her paintings. Sn Grandma Mses became famus. In 1940, at the age f 80, she had her first painting shw in New Yrk. Many peple lved the bright clrs and beautiful farm views in her wrks.
    Grandma Mses died in 1961, at the age f 101. She painted ver 1,600 paintings in the late part f her life. “D yur favurite thing, and yu will finally win success,” she nce said.
    55. Why did Grandma Mses hardly paint as a child?
    A. Because she didn’t lve it.B. Because she culdn’t d it.
    C. Because n ne taught her.D. Because she had n time.
    56. Grandma Mses started t paint when she was___________ years ld.
    A. 76B. 78C. 80D. 84
    57. Where did the art lver find Grandma Mses’s paintings?
    A. In a shp.B. On her farm. C. On TV.D. On her shw.
    58. What d we knw abut Grandma Mses frm the passage?
    A. She learned d frm a great painter.B. She was gd at drawing peple.
    C. Mst f her paintings were expensive.D. Her paintings were bright and beautiful.
    59. What is the writing purpse(目的)f the passage?
    A. T ask peple t learn painting.
    B. T ask peple t d what they want t d.
    C. T ask peple t buy Grandma Mses’s paintings.
    D. T ask peple t enjy their life n the farm.
    C
    Many years ag, there was a king. He had a beautiful garden. In the garden, there was a little nightingale(夜莺)singing very beautifully.
    One day, the king heard abut this little bird’s beautiful vice. He asked his guards(警卫)t bring her t him. When the king heard the nightingale’s vice, he said, “Put her in a glden cage, s she can stay and sing fr me whenever(无论何时)I want t hear her.”
    The little bird was unhappy and she stpped singing ne day. The king was very angry. He rdered the scientists t make a rbt bird fr him. The bird culd sing very beautifully, t. The king was happy.
    Sn the rbt bird became ld. It culdn’t sing beautiful sngs. And the king’s health became wrse and wrse. One mrning, the king wanted it t sing nce again. But the rbt bird culdn’t sing. Suddenly, the nightingale came. She started t sing her mst beautiful sng. The king was very happy! He became better and better each day.
    After the king was well, he became friendly t his peple. After that, all his peple cherished(爱戴)him fr his lve and kindness.
    60. Where did the nightingale live at first(起初)?
    A. In a park.B. In the cinema.C. In the garden.D. In a cage.
    61. Wh brught the nightingale t the king?
    A. The guards.B. The scientists.C. The king’s peple.D. Anther king.
    62. Why did the nightingale stp singing ne day?
    A. Because she was t tired.B. Because she was t ld.
    C. Because she was t hungry.D. Because she was t sad.
    63. What happened after the nightingale began t sing her mst beautiful sng again?
    A. The rbt bird was very angry.B. The king was very angry.
    C. The king became better and better.D. The rbt bird died.
    64. Which f the fllwing is NOT TRUE?
    A. Bth the nightingale and the rbt bird had a beautiful vice.
    B. The nightingale was very happy after she stayed in the glden cage.
    C. The king kept the nightingale in a glden cage t hear her sing at any time.
    D. The king learned frm the nightingale what lve and kindness was.
    第二节 阅读还原(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
    阅读下面的短文,根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项。(提示:每个选项限用一次,其中有一项为多余选项)
    We see many things like clrs, lights, buildings with ur eyes. But can yu prtect(保护)yur eyes well? 65
    Let eyes have a gd rest. Many peple need t lk at a cmputer when they wrk r study. That puts a lt f pressure(压力)n their eyes. S every 20 minutes, yu shuld let yur eyes have a gd rest fr arund 20 secnds. 66
    Wear a sun hat r sunglasses. There are sme bad rays frm the sun. They can be bad fr eyes, s it’s best t get in the habit f prtecting them frm an early age. 67
    Have eye-friendly fd. Yu can als prtect yur eyes by eating sme eye-friendly fd. 68
    Have a gd sleep. 69 Yu may think yu are ding nthing when yu’re sleeping. But it’s the time fr yur bdy t rebuild and repair(重建和修复). At night, yur eyes keep cleaning ut the bad things that cme in during the day.
    第Ⅱ卷 非选择题(32分)
    五、综合填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或用括号内单词的正确形式填空。(每空不超过三个单词)
    We were surprised that Kbe Bryant, ne f the mst ppular NBA players died 70 January 26th, 2020. And the bad news made peple 71 (feel)sad.
    Kbe was talented in 72 (play)basketball at a very yung age. S his father decided 73 (make)him g t the basketball club. He was interested in basketball and tk it 74 (serius). He gt int the NBA frm high schl and spent twenty years with the Ls Angeles(洛杉矶)Lakers. With his help, the LA Lakers wn the 75 (ne)prize five times. Kbe was a 76 (success)basketball player. He was als a writer. He ften tld stries t his daughters in his free time. That’s why he wrte a bk abut a basketball team.
    He nce said, “I dn’t want 77 (be)the next Michael Jrdan, I nly feel like being Kbe Bryant. ” He saw Michael Jrdan as his idl and wuld like t play a game with Jrdan.
    We all knw that Kbe had tw different jersey(球衣) 78 (number):8 and 24. D yu knw the meaning f the number 24? The meaning is — if yu want t achieve(实现)yur dream, yu need t wrk hard 24 hurs a day.
    Kbe Bryant is such 79 great man that all f us will remember him all the time.
    六、完成句子(共7小题;每小题1分,满分7分)
    阅读下列各小题,根据汉语及句末括号内的英语动词提示,用相关动词短语的适当形式完成句子。(每空不超过四个单词)
    80. 长期熬夜对我们是有害处的。(stay)
    It is bad fr us___________________________________ fr a lng time.
    81. 俗话说:“旧习难改”。(die)
    The saying ges, “Old habits________________________________.”
    82. 叶老师擅长为孩子们编有趣的故事。(make)
    Miss Ye is gd at____________________________ interesting stries fr kids.
    83. 去年我们团队的每个人在抗击新冠肺炎中发挥了作用。(play)
    Everyne in ur team_______________________ in fighting COVID-19 last year.
    84. 当你有困难时,一个真正的朋友能够关心你。(care)
    A true friend can______________________________ yu when yu are in truble.
    85. 我父母帮我展现我最好的一面。(bring)
    My parents help t______________________________ the best in me.
    86. 对于苏珊而言,世上没有人能取代她母亲的位置。(take)
    Fr Susan, nbdy in the wrld can_______________________________.
    七、书面表达(共1题,满分15分)
    假如你是李明,你有一个好朋友Jack,是来自美国的交换生。请根据以下提示信息写一篇短文,介绍你的好朋友Jack以及他在中国的学习和生活情况。
    写作提示:
    1. 性格上,他更外向,更喜欢运动……
    2. 学校里,与同学们友好互助……
    3. 生活中,空闲时,你带他游玩了……品尝了……观赏了……你们一同看了电影《我和我的家乡》,令人感动;演员们在剧中表演出色;
    4. 好习惯……
    写作要求:
    1. 不得逐条翻译,需围绕以上提示展开作文并适当发挥补充,使文章内容连贯,表达流畅;
    2. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称;
    3. 词数80词左右。文章的开头已给出,不计入总词数。
    参考词汇:我和我的家乡 My peple, My Hmeland 令人感动的 mving
    My name is Li Ming. My friend is Jack, an exchange student frm the USA.
    _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    孝南区2022-2023学年度八年级上学期期中学业水平监测
    英语 参考答案
    一、听力测试(每小题1分,共25分)
    1-5: FEADB6-10: CAACA11-15: CCBBB
    16-20: CBCBA21-25: BACBA
    二、单项选择(每小题1分,共10分)
    26-30: BDBDB31-35: ABDAA
    三、完形填空(每小题1分,共15分)
    36-40: BCCBA41-45: CAACC46-50: BDDAB
    四、阅读理解(每小题2分,共38分)
    51-54: ACBB55-59: DBADB60-64: CADCB
    65-69: CEBAD
    五、综合填空(每小题1分,共10分)
    70. n71. feel72. playing73. t make
    74. seriusly75. first76. successful77. t be
    78. numbers79. a
    六、完成句子(每小题1分,共7分)
    80. t stay up (late)81. die hard82. making up83. played a part/rle
    84. care abut85. bring ut86. take her mther’s placeA. Green vegetables and fish are gd t keep yur eyes healthy.
    B. Wearing a sun hat r sunglasses is the best way t prtect yur eyes.
    C. Here are sme ways abut hw t prtect yur eyes.
    D. Yu shuld have a gd sleep at night.
    E. Yu shuld lk ut f the windw when yu have a rest.
    F. S start exercising befre it’s t late.
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