江苏省徐州市铜山区2023-2024学年八年级上学期期中质量自测英语试题
展开(友情提醒:本卷共8页,满分140分,考试时间100分钟;答案全部涂、写在答题卡上,写在本卷上无效。)
一、听力(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
第一节:听下面十段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. What sign can they see?
A.B.C.
2. What are the tw speakers talking abut?
A.B.C.
3. Hw des the by usually g t schl?
A.B.C.
4. What subject des Gerge have n Friday afternn?
A.B.C.
5. What des Nick like?
A. Mnkeys. B. Pandas. C. Lins.
6. When is the wman’s birthday?
A. On December 24. B. On December 25. C. On December 26.
7. What happened t Jenny?
A. She lst her camera.
B. She brke her camera.
C. She fund her camera.
8. Where are the tw speakers?
A. At the bus statin. B. On the bus. C. In the z.
9. Hw lng did the girl stay in the museum?
A. Fr half an hur. B. Fr an hur. C. Fr tw hurs.
10. When did the wman get t the the bus stp?
A. At 6:25. B. At 6:30. C. At 6:35.
第二节:听下面两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的答案。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话,回答第11至12小题。
11. Hw many lessns has Bill gt tday?
A. 4. B. 6. C. 7.
12. Which is Bill’s favurite subject?
A. Science. B. Maths. C. English.
听第二段对话,回答第13至15小题。完成信息记录表。
13. A. getting n the bus B. having breakfast C. climbing the hill
14. A. chatting B. swimming C. drinking water
15. A. factries B. the museum C. a market
第三节:听一篇短文,填入所缺的信息。短文读两遍。
二、单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从下列各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项。
21. Film means ______ in the USA.
A. yard B. vacatin C. mvie D. sccer
22. — What is yur Physics teacher like?
— ______.
A. He is fine B. He is a singer
C. He likes playing baseball D. He’s kind and humrus
23. — Mr. Wu, I am feeling ill. May I have ne day ______?
— Sure, Linda. Take care f yurself.
A. n B. ff C. ut D. away
24. Yu’d better ______ the apples in the air fr a lng time. They will turn brwn quickly.
A. leave B. eat C. nt eat D. nt leave
25. Nt nly my cusin but als his parents ______ interested in DIY. They ften make many interesting things.
A. are B. is C. were D. was
26. — They all say the BGM in Hangzhu Asian Games(杭州亚运会) is s wnderful!
What des BGM mean, Simn?
— It ______ backgrund music.
A. lks fr B. stands fr C. ges fr D. wrks fr
27. I fell ff the bike n my way t schl. ______, I wasn’t hurt.
A. Luckily B. Unluckily C. Exactly D. Really
28. If yu wuld like t learn ______ infrmatin, please g t my hme page.
A. far B. further C. furthest D. the furthest
29. — Culd yu please help me ______ the picture n the wall?
— OK, n prblem.
A. put up B. put n C. put ff D. put in
30. Everyne in the wrld is different. S, just ______!
A. help yurself B. hurt yurself
C. be yurself D. teach yurself
三、完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项。
Mr. White lives and wrks in Sydney. Last week he had a 31 hliday but he didn’t knw 32 t g. He said t his friend Mr. Black, “I hate the ht days here, but I can’t think f a cl place in Australia. Where shuld I g t 33 my hliday?”
“That’s easy,” said Mr. Black. “Yu can g t Mscw. Snw and ice are cvering the grund there nw.”
Mr. White fllwed his advice. He bught a plane 34 and flew t Mscw. After he 35 Mscw, he enjyed himself but ne day he gt int truble. After lunch 36 a cld day, he went t a park in the city. He fund that a dg fllwed him when he walked 37 a huse. It seemed hungry. Maybe it wanted smething 38 , he thught. Hwever, Mr. White had n fd in his pckets. He tried t make the dg g away, but it began t bar k at him. Just at that mment, he saw a small stne(石头) n the grund. He tried t pick it up but he culdn’t.
“ 39 strange these Russians(俄罗斯人) are!” Mr. White said t 40 . “They tie up(拴) sme stnes instead f their dgs.”
31. A. wnderful B. shrt C. lng D. terrible
32. A. what B. which C. where D. hw
33. A. get B. cst C. spend D. pay
34. A. ticket B. mney C. infrmatin D. seat
35. A. arrived in B. put in C. came in D. cut in
36. A. in B. n C. at D. with
37. A. ver B. alng C. past D. int
38. A. eat B. eating C. t eat D. ate
39. A. What a B. Hw a C. What D. Hw
40. A. itself B. himself C. myself D. yurself
四、阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
A)阅读下面三则材料,从材料后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项。
A
Are yu thinking abut what t d in yur free time? Cme and jin us — Sunshine Club! Jin in lessns and activities. It’s fun! Fr mre infrmatin, call 36769246!
41. Yu can’t have cking lessns n ______.
A. Mnday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Sunday
42. Millie is free after 7:20 p. m., which lessns can she take?
A. Chess lessns. B. Dance lessns.
C. Cking lessns. D. Swimming lessns.
43. Hw ften can yu enjy music in the club?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week.
C. Once a mnth. D. Twice a mnth.
44. Where may yu find this passage?
A. In a newspaper. B. In a travelling magazine.
C. In a strybk. D. In a ckbk.
B
D yu like travelling? Hw can yu make yur trip interesting? Here’s sme advice.
Read! Befre yu leave, yu shuld find sme infrmatin abut the place, such as gegraphy, histry and peple. Yu can understand the place better by reading.
Take phts! If yu want t take sme phts, remember t chse the mst special sights. Dn’t chse the sights yu can see in ther places. Fr example, Qingda and Ningb are castal cities, s dn’t nly take phts f the sea. Yu shuld take phts f smething else, t.
Taste! Yu’d better taste sme specials in the area. Fd in sme places is very delicius. S why nt taste it in yur life?
Write! When yu visit a place, yu shuld take a pen and a ntebk, s yu can write dwn what yu see and what yu think during the trip.
45. Befre we travel t a place, we shuld ______.
A. decide when t leave B. learn smething abut it
C. knw which bus t take D. decide which htel t stay at
46. The underlined wrd “castal” means ______.
A. near the sea B. near the hill
C. near the river D. near the twn
47. What’s the best title(标题) fr this passage?
A. Hw t Make Yur Trip Interesting B. Hw t Make a Travel Plan
C. The Mst Ppular Way t Travel D. The Best Place t Travel
C
Mst peple want t be happy, but few knw hw t find happiness. Here are sme tips t help yu be happier.
The first secret f happiness is t enjy the simple(简单的) things in life. T ften, we spend t much time thinking abut the future — fr example, getting int cllege r getting a gd jb. Yu shuld enjy life’s simple happiness, such as reading a gd bk, listening t yur favrite music, r spending time with clse friends. Peple wh have a few clse friends ften live happier and healthier lives.
Anther secret f happiness is t be active. Many peple g dancing r play sprts. Peple can frget abut their prblems and nly think abut the activities.
Finally, many peple find happiness in helping thers. Studies shw that peple feel gd when they spend their time helping thers. If yu want t feel happier, d gd things fr smene. Yu can help a friend with his r her studies, clean up the city parks r help ut arund the huse by ding the dishes.
48. The secnd paragraph(段) tells us that ______.
A. sme peple dn’t live a happy life
B. we shuldn’t think abut ur future
C. happiness is t enjy the simple things in life
D. the mre friends yu have, the happier yu will be
49. One secret f happiness is t be ______.
A. hnest B. helpful C. patient D. hard- wrking
50. What’s the purpse(目的) f the passage?
A. T tell us t help thers. B. T teach us hw t make friends.
C. T tell us t play sprts. D. T teach us hw t find happiness.
B)阅读短文,从短文后所给的A~F六个选项中选出五个能填入空白处的最佳选项。
Everybdy wants t have true friends. If yu want t have true friends, yu shuld be a true friend yurself. 51 Here is sme advice.
★ 52
Laughing with a friend is the best, but smetimes crying brings yu clser tgether. Dn’t be afraid t be yurself when yu stay with yur friends. Shw yur true feelings t yur friends. Then friends will knw each ther better.
★ Be a nice gift giver.
Gift - giving is nt just fr birthdays r hlidays. It can be a fun way f making yur friends feel special! 53 Making things by yurself shws yur care, because yu put time and ideas int yur gifts.
★ Stand up fr him r her.
54 D smething abut it! Yu can try t find a smart way t help yur friend and make thers lk at yur friend differently. Smetimes, it’s necessary fr yu t make him r her feel better. 55
五、根据句意和音标提示,写出正确的单词。(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
56. Cmputers are very imprtant in ur ______ /’deɪli/ life.
57. The weather is cld, but the students are ______ /’tʃɪəfl/.
58. Please lk ______ /θru:/ the questins quickly.
59. Kitty, we’re ging t the Great wall. Wuld yu like t ______ /dʒɔɪn/ us?
60. Sandy is crazy abut swimming and ______/ə’ tendz/ swimming lessns twice a week.
六、词语运用(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
A)选用方框内的单词或词组填空,其中有一个单词或词组是多余的。
61. Jim wrks hard and ften ______ Maths prblems with his classmates after class.
62. — My family will travel t Beijing next week.
— Wish yu a happy ______!
63. I visited many places f interest ______ my stay in Shanghai.
64. T keep healthy, we shuld eat mre vegetables ______ t much meat.
65. Everyne can be a ______ persn t make ur cuntry strnger.
B)阅读短文,在文中空白处填入1个适当的单词, 或用括号内所给单词的正确形式填空。
Tday I’d like t share my schl life with all f yu. I study in a 66 (mix) schl. Bys and girls have lessns tgether. Schl starts at 8 a. m. and 67 (finish) at 4 p. m.. We have lts f subjects t study. I like Physics best 68 it is very interesting.
We have lts f different 69 (activity) at schl. We can listen t music 70 lunchtime, we can chat with ur friends t. We have a little hmewrk. We usually spend half an hur 71 (d) ur hmewrk. We can bring ur wn bks t ur class. We can als brrw bks 72 ur schl library. 73 (read) bks is really fun. On Friday afternn, ur schl always ends 74 (early) than usual. Every mnth we g n a schl trip. We ften g t different museums, beautiful parks r nice hills. All f my classmates enjy ur schl trip.
Our schl life is 75 (clur). What abut yurs?
七、阅读与表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读短文,回答短文后的问题。
In China, many students spend much f their time n their studies and dn’t help with husewrk at hme. As a result, they lack(缺少) basic skills. Luckily, things are changing. Last year, many schls began t teach students life skills.
In Hpe Middle Schl in Jiangsu, students have a special life skill class. They learn t make dumplings in different kinds f shapes(形状). “I culdn’t make dumplings befre, but nw I am gd at ding it. I really lve my life skill class. It’s my favrite class,” said Zhang Yan, a by at the schl.
Guangming Middle Schl set up (建立) sme farming clubs. Their students learned t plant vegetables. “At first, I thught I culd nly grw sme vegetables here, but I learned a lt abut vegetables,” said Chen Jia, a girl at the schl.
In fact, learning life skills is is as imprtant as learning Chinese and Math because it helps us prepare fr ur future life. But d yu help yur parents d husewrk at hme? If nt, maybe yu shuld get started nw.
注:每题答案不超过6个词
76. When did many schls begin t teach students life skills?
77. What is Zhang Yan gd at nw?
78. What did the students learn in farming clubs in Guangming Middle Schl?
79. Why is it imprtant fr students t learn life skills?
80. What husewrk can yu d?
八、连词成句(共5题;每小题2分,共10分;注意标点符号和大小写)
81. Lucy water is with the filling bttle
_________________________________________________________________________________________
82. match will the in take the Sprts Center place
_________________________________________________________________________________________
83. dn’t the paint tuch wet please
_________________________________________________________________________________________
84. reached we finally the f the muntain tp
_________________________________________________________________________________________
85. is fr the museum free students
_________________________________________________________________________________________
九、书面表达(共20分)
假定你是Li Hua,你们学校的Buddy Club正举办以 “My Best Friend”为题的英语演讲比赛,请根据下表所提示的要点,用英语写一篇短文,介绍你的好友Suzy。
注意:
1.词数80左右。短文的开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数;
2.短文需包括表格内所有要点,可适当增加细节,使内容完整通顺;
My Best Friend
Hell, everyne! Tday I will intrduce my best friend Suzy t yu.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank yu.
2023--2024学年度第一学期期中质量自测
八年级英语 参考答案
一、听力(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
1—5 BABCC 6—10 AAACB 11-15 CACAB
16. grades 17. warm 18. mrning 19. drawing 20. pictures
二、单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
21--25 CDBDA 26--30 BABAC
三、完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
31--35 CCCAA 35--40 BCCDB
四、阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
41--44 DBCA 45--47 BAA 48--50 CBD 51--55 BADFE
五、根据句意和音标提示,写出正确的单词。(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
56. daily 57. cheerful 58. thrugh 59. jin 60. attends
六、词语运用(共15题;每小题1分,共15分)
A)选用方框内的单词或词组填空,其中有一个单词或词组是多余的。(共5题;每小题1分,共5分)
61. discusses 62. jurney 63. during 64. instead f 65. useful
B)阅读短文,在文中空白处填入1个适当的单词,或用括号内所给单词的正确形式填空。(共10题;每小题1分,共10分)
66. mixed 67. finishes 68. because 69. activities 70. at
71. ding 72. frm 73. Reading 74. earlier 75. clurful
七、阅读与表达(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)(答案不超过6个词)
76. Last year.
77. He is gd at making dumplings. /Making dumplings.
78. They learned t plant vegetables. /They learned t grw vegetables. /T plant vegetables. /T grw vegetables. / Hw t plant / grw vegetables.
79. Because they lack basic skills. /Because they lack life skills. /T prepare fr their future. /T prepare fr their future life.
80. Make dumplings. /D sme cleaning.(答案合理即可)
八、连词成句(共5题;每小题2分,共10分;注意标点符号和大小写)
1、以下情况可得2分:句子完全正确。
2、以下情况可得1分:句子基本结构正确,但有修改、替换、抄写错误、增加或减少单词,句子基本结构正确,但句子不完全正确。
3、以下情况不得分:从句子中看不出学生有语法知识;没有作答。
81. Lucy is filling the bttle with water. /Is Lucy filling the bttle with water?
82. The match will take place in the Sprts Center. /Will the match take place in the Sprts Center?
83. Please dn’t tuch the wet paint. /Dn’t tuch the wet paint, please.
84. Finally, we reached the tp f the muntain. /We finally reached the tp f the muntain.
85. The museum is free fr students. /Is the museum free fr students?
九、书面表达(共20分)
My Best Friend
Hell, everyne! Tday I will intrduce my best friend Suzy t yu.
She has lng straight hair and smiling eyes. She always has a smile n her face. She is humurus. She ften tells us funny jkes. She is als generus and willing t share her things with us.
She is crazy abut DIY. She nce made a beautiful birthday card fr her mther. She als enjys travelling. She visited many places f interest.
She wants t be a scial wrker t help mre peple in the future. I think she will make an excellent scial wrker. (85词)
That’s all. Thank yu.
听力原稿
一、听力(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
第一节:听下面十段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: Let’s put the car at the crner.
W: Lk at the sign. It says n parking.
2. M: D yu need any help?
W: Yes. There’s smething wrng with my bike.
3. W: Hw d yu usually g t schl?
M: I take a bus t schl.
4.W: What lessns d yu have n Friday afternn, Gerge?
M: English, Music and a class meeting.
5. W: I like lins very much. D yu like lins, Nick?
M: N, I dn’t. I like giant pandas. They are lvely.
6. M: It’s Christmas Day tday. I hear tday is yur birthday.
W: N, yesterday was my birthday.
7. M: Yu lk wrried. What’s wrng, Jenny?
W: I put my camera n the table. I can’t find it anywhere nw.
8. W: Excuse me, which is the way t Beijing Z?
M: Hmm... take the 27 bus, and it’ll take yu there.
9.W: Hw lng did it take yu t g t the Museum?
M: Half an hur. But we stayed there fr tw hurs.
10. M: Why were yu late fr schl this mrning?
W: I went t the bus stp at 6:30, but the early bus left just five minutes earlier.
第二节:听下面两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确的答案。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话,回答第11至12小题。
W: Hw are yu ging with yur wrk these days, Bill?
M: Nt bad. I’m busy with my lessns. The mid-term exams are cming.
W. Hw many lessns d yu have tday?
M: I have fur in the mrning and three in the afternn.
W: Which subject d yu like best?
M: I like science best because I can learn a lt abut the wrld. What abut yu, Tina?
W: I like English best because it is useful.
M: Yes, I agree with yu.
听第二段对话,回答第13至15小题,完成信息记录表。
M: Where did yu g n Saturday mrning?
W: We went t the park by bus. At 7:00 a.m., all f the classmates met at the schl gate and gt ff the bus in frnt f the park gate. Mr. Lee went there with us.
M: Sunds great !What activities did yu have there?
W: First, we saw a hill and many bys began t climb it. After a while, at 9:00, girls were singing and dancing under the tree.
M: What were yu ding at 10:00?
W: We were sitting by a lake and sme f them were chatting. Finally, all the classmates went t watch animals in the z. After a quick lunch, we visited the museum fr the whle afternn.
M: Ww, that sunds like an exciting trip!
第三节:听第一篇短文,填入所缺的信息。短文读两遍。
Hi, I’m Sam. This is my brther, Mark. We are the same in many ways. Mark studies harder than me, s he can get better grades. He has a warm heart. He ften helps his classmates with their prblems. Last Sunday mrning, he helped ne f his classmates learn sme interesting Chinese sayings, I am better at drawing than Mark. I ften draw sme pictures and share them with my friends. Mark is my gd brther.A schl trip n Saturday
Mrning
First
Many bys were 13 .
Then
Girls were singing and dancing at 9:00.
We were sitting by a lake and sme were 14 .
Finally
We were watching animals in the z.
Afternn
We were visiting 15 .
Mark
He studies harder than Sam. He can get better 16 .
He has a(n) 17 heart. Last Sunday 18 , he helped ne classmate learn sme interesting Chinese sayings.
Sam
He is better at 19 than Mark.
He ften shares his 20 with his friends.
Lessns
Activities
Mnday — Friday
5:30 p. m. —6:30 p. m.
Cking lessns fr new learners
Saturday and Sunday
8:00 a. m. —9:00 p. m.
Badmintn curt(球场) pen
Mnday, Thursday
7:30 p. m. —9:30 p. m.
Dance lessns fr dance lvers
Learn and enjy wnderful dances.
Mnday — Sunday
5:30 p. m. — 7:30 p. m.
Swimming pl pen
Tuesday, Wednesday and Friday
6:30 p. m. — 7:30 p. m.
Chess lessns
We have three excellent chess teachers.
The last Saturday f every mnth
7:00 p. m. — 9:30 p. m.
Cncert(音乐会) time — Enjy beautiful
sngs frm all ver the wrld!
A. Laugh and cry tgether.
B. Wnder what yu can d?
C. She never fights with her friend.
D. But yu dn’t need t buy expensive gifts.
E. It may nt be easy, but it’s what a gd friend shuld d.
F. If smene laughs at yur friend, dn’t just stand there quietly.
jurney instead f discusses useful during endless
Lks
又长又直的头发,带有笑意的眼睛,总是面带微笑
Persnality
有幽默感……
慷慨大方……
Hbby
1.痴迷于 DIY 课程,曾经……
2.……(自拟一点)
Future plan
……(自拟一点)
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