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2023-2024学年湖北省武汉市青山区八年级（上）期末英语试卷
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这是一份2023-2024学年湖北省武汉市青山区八年级（上）期末英语试卷，共11页。试卷主要包含了听力测试部分，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，词与短语填空，综合填空，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
青山区教育局教研室命制 2024年1月
本试卷满分为120分考试用时120分钟
第I卷 (选择题共85分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试部分 (共三小节，满分25分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Peking University. B. In Beijing C. I’m eighteen.
2. A. It’s interesting B. In the classrm. C. She had a gd time.
3. A. With his dad. B. At six ’clck. C. By undergrund.
4. A. T be an artist. B. He is a student. C. It’s great.
5. A. Alice. B. Alan. C. Clse the dr.
第二节 (共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. When will the class begin?
A. At 12: 15. B. At 12: 45 C. At 13: 00.
7. What’s the relatinship between the speakers prbably?
A. Brther and sister. B. Mther and sn. C. Father and daughter.
8. What’s the weather like nw?
A. Windy. B. Sunny. C. Snwy.
9. What des Grace’s mm want her t be?
A. B. C.
10. What will the man d?
A. Brrw a magazineB. Give a hand t the wman. C. G t the library with the wman.
11. Hw des the wman like the mvie?
A. It is just s-s. B. It is the best. C. It is the wrst.
12. What des the wman mean?
A. She needs a map. B. Nrth Star is helpful. C. She never gets lst.
第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、 C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
13. What are the tw speakers talking abut?
A. A cncert. B. A schl trip. C. A talent shw.
14. What is Vera gd at playing?
A. The pian. B. The guitar. C. The vilin
15. Wh did the man think was the funniest?
A. Steve and his dg. B. Eliza. C. Dennis.
听下面一段对话，回答16至18三个小题。
16. When did Tny cme back frm his vacatin?
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
17. Which is TRUE accrding t the cnversatin?
A. Tny’s father played glf. B. Tny’s brther played tennis.
C. Tny went swimming with his mther.
18. Hw was Tny’s vacatin?
A. It was terrible. B. It was bring. C. It was great.
听下面一段对话，回答19至22四个小题。
19. Where are the tw speakers prbably?
A. At the schl. B. At hme. C. On a bus.
20. Wh is ging t N. 1 High Schl?
A. Peter. B. Helen. C. Linda
21. What can we knw abut N. 1 High Schl?
A. It’s very beautiful. B. It’s the best ne in their city.
C. The teachers there are the mst experienced
22. Why des Linda NOT want t g t NO. 15 High Schl?
A. Because it’s t far frm her hme. B. Because Mr. Black dislikes that schl
C. Because she desn’t want t leave her friends
听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。
23. Where des strng black tea cme frm?
A. China. B. India. C. England.
24. What d peple in Britain always have after the main meal?
A. Smething delicius. B. Smething salty. C. Smething sweet.
25. What eating habits d peple in Britain have?
A. They eat rice every day. B. They have bread with milk.
C. They put milk and sugar in their tea.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. —D I have t add mre hney, Mm?
— __________. Or it will be t sweet.
A. N, that’s it B. That’s fr sureC. I guess s D. I hpe s
27. —Can yu cme t my birthday party n Saturday afternn?
— __________. I have t prepare fr an exam.
A. Sure, I’d lve t B. Srry, I can’tC. Have a gd time D. With pleasure
28. —What d yu think f the talk shws?
— __________. They’re bring.
A. I lve them B. N prblemC. I’m nt sure D. I can’t stand them
29. —Why are yu in such a hurry, Mike?
—There __________ an NBA basketball game in ten minutes.
A. is B. will have C. is ging t beD. is ging t have
30. —Hw abut camping in the park this weekend?
—Gd idea. But if it __________, yu can cme t my hme t enjy delicius fd.
A. rained B. will rain C. rains D. is raining
31. —The air is getting dirtier and we can plant mre trees.
—Yes. Everyne shuld play a part __________ saving the earth.
A. in B. by C. with D. thrugh
32. —I’ll buy yu a new bike if yu can learn hw t ski this winter.
—Is that a (an) __________? I’m sure I’ll get it.
A. chance B. prmise C. idea D. jke
33. —What d Americans d n Thanksgiving Day?
—It’s __________ in America t eat turkey n that day.
A. envirnmental B. classical C. educatinal D. traditinal
34. —Mary lks wrried these days. What’s wrng?
—Her reprt is nt gd enugh but she desn’t knw hw t __________ it.
A. prepare B. guide C. imprve D. chse
35. —As teachers, we shuld help ur students develp bth mentally and __________.
—But mst parents nly care abut grades.
A. physically B. actively C. hardly D. nrmally
36. —Culd I brrw yur dictinary?
—Of curse yu __________.
A. culd B. will C. shuld D. can
37. —Ww! These ty planes lk s cl!
—Why nt buy __________ fr ur sn? He will like __________.
A. it; it B. ne; it C. it; ne D. ne; ne
38. —David, where is my ring? I can’t find it anywhere.
—I dn’t knw. It will __________ if it is in the rm.
A. turn n B. turn up C. turn ff D. turn dwn
39. —It’s useless t __________ with him abut his mistakes. He wn’t listen t yu
—But I still want t have a try.
A. reasn B. fight C. share D. agree
40. —Excuse me, d yu knw __________?
—Yes, there is ne in 15 minutes.
A. when will the bus t Tianhe Airprt leaveB. where can I get n the bus t Tianhe Airprt
C. if there is anther bus t Tianhe Airprt laterD. hw lng I will spend n the bus t Tianhe Airprt
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
It was Friday afternn. The students were having the last 41 f this week. At the end f the class, the teacher 42 the students t bring sme tmates in a bag t schl the next Mnday. “And yu shuld give each tmat a 43 f the persn yu dn’t like. If yu dn’t like five persns, yu shuld bring five tmates. “the teacher said.
The students didn’t knw why, but they felt glad 44 they didn’t need t d hmewrk at the weekend. On Mnday, all the students brught tmates. Sme had tw, sme had six, and sme 45 had twenty in their bags.
The teacher said, “This week, all f yu have t 46 these bags with yu, anywhere yu g fr the whle week. “The students 47 happily. Then it was Friday again. The tmates smelt 48 as they already lst their freshness. “Hw did yu 49 this week?” the teacher asked. All the students cmplained abut (抱怨) the smell. Sme als talked abut the heavy weight (重量) f their bags because they carried 50 tmates.
The teacher smiled and said, “These tmates are similar (相似的) t what yu carry in yur 51 . When yu dn’t like smene, yu carry that hatred (厌恶) everywhere and it makes yur heart 52 . Yu can’t stand the 53 and weight f these tmates fr a week. Then hw can yur heart stand 54 feelings when yu carry them every day?”
The students lked at their tmates and 55 the teacher’s wrds. They decided t frgive (原谅) thse wh had hurt them and nly keep gd things in mind.
41. A. talk B. game C. lessn D. test
42. A. asked B. helped C. shwed D. ffered
43. A. price B. name C. call D. date
44. A. f B. when C. because D. befre
45. A. als B. never C. ften D. even
46. A. clean B. pen C. fill D. carry
47. A. left B. agreed C. played D. waited
48. A. terrible B. dangerus C. sweet D. cld
49. A. stay B. feel C. make D. lk
50. A. better B. smaller C. mre D. cheaper
51. A. heart B. rm C. bag D. vice
52. A. helpful B. exciting C. useless D. unhealthy
53. A. smell B. change C. sense D. taste
54. A. happy B. bad C. new D. ld
55. A. spelt B. wrte C. understd D. faced
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每篇材料后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出最佳答案。
A
56. All the news abve have smething t d with __________.
A. magical wrld B. cultural differences
C. useful inventins D. envirnmental prtectin
57. Hw shuld peple with reading difficulties use OrCam Read?
A. Use it t scan the text they need t read. B. Use it t scan images they can’t see.
C. Cnnect it t a small camera. D. Cnnect it t the internet.
58. What des the underlined wrd “bee-free” mean?
A. Bees can d what they want. B. Spend less mney feeding bees.
C. N bees are needed. D. Bees can be set free after wrking.
59. The best heading fr the third news culd be __________.
A. Purr Like A Cat B. Slw Yur HeartbeatC. Play With A Pet D. Keep Yu Calm
60. Frm the news abve, we knw that __________.
A. the new kind f hney can help make mre mney
B. Purrble can help yu knw abut yur feelings
C. the new kind f hney is made frm real hney
D. Purrble’s sensrs can make yu angry
B
A few weeks ag, I went int Chase’s class fr help. I e-mailed Chase’s teacher ne evening and said, “My sn keeps telling me that his hmewrk is maths, but I’m nt sure whether I shuld believe him. Help, please.” She e-mailed right back and said, “N prblem! I can help Chase after schl anytime.” And I said, “N, nt him. Me. He gets it Help me.”
And that’s why I stayed with Chase’s maths teacher. We talked abut teaching children. We agreed that subjects like maths and reading are nt the mst imprtant things that are learned in a classrm. We als talked abut smething else--kindness and bravery.
And then she tld me this.
Every Friday afternn Chase’s teacher asks her students t take ut a piece f paper and write dwn whm they’d like t sit with the fllwing week. She als asks the students t nminate (推荐) wh is the mst ppular student that week. They needn’t write dwn their names n the paper.
After the students g hme, she takes ut thse pieces f paper and studies them. In fact, Chase’s teacher is nt lking fr a new seating chart (表) r “ppular students”. She is lking fr lnely children. She’s lking fr the nes wh dn’t want t talk with thers. She is finding ut whse names are nt nticed by their classmates. ★
After watching Clumbine, the wise wman knew that all vilence (暴力) cmes um lneliness. S she decided t start fighting vilence early and ften, and what she is ding is SAVING LIVES.
And she finds the lnely kids frm thse lists and tries t help them. It’s maths t her. All is lve--even Maths.
61. Chase’s parent asked fr help by __________.
A. ging t the teacher’s hme B. calling the teacher
C. e-mailing Chase’s teacher D. writing a letter
62. Chase’s teacher asks her students t write dwn sme names n paper __________.
A. because she wants t find the lnely children
B. because she is lking fr a new seating cha
C. because she is lking fr the ppular student
D. because she wants t help her students learn Maths
63. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ ?
A. Then she gets t knw wh needs help
B. Then she emails t the students’ parents
C. Then she gives a new seat chart next week
D. Then she finds the mst ppular student in the class
64. What d we knw abut the teacher?
A. She’s ready t help the parents. B. She’s kind and full f lve.
C. She’s gd at teaching Maths. D. She’s a gd mther.
65. The best title fr the passage can be __________.
A. Learning Maths B. Lking fr Help
C. Teaching Children D. Lking fr the Lnely
C
Free time is a gd chance fr teenagers t have fun. What abut free time with parents arund? Sme teenagers want free play withut parents’ supervisin (监管) while parents and experts may think differently.
Lin Ta, a middle schl student, thinks teenagers shuld be free t play. “Last time I played with my parents arund, I was nervus (紧张) and just culdn’t enjy myself t the fullest.” Lin says. “And my friend Chen Xiaxin has similar experiences. Once, he went ut t play with his classmates. Everyne felt uncmfrtable with his mther’s supervisin.”
Wang Min, a mther f a 14-year-ld by, thinks playtime needs supervisin. She explains, “Peple usually say I like t cntrl my kid, but that’s nt true. I am just wrried that he will get int truble. Sme guys may have a bad influence n him and sme games like LARP may mislead him. He might even get indulged in the stries and can’t get back t real life.”
Mr. Ma, a dctr f scial studies, says it’s understandable fr teenagers t wish fr freedm. Free play helps them t be independent. Parents can give them mre space. They dn’t have t supervise them all the time. Hwever, teenagers shuld find ut the exact details (细节) abut the activities befre playtime. Then they can cmmunicate with their parents and decide tgether whether they can g ut t play alne.
66. Fr teenagers, free time is a gd chance t __________.
A. study hard B. mislead parents C. enjy themselves D. get int truble
67. Lin Ta supprts his wn idea by __________.
A. giving examples B. listing numbers
C. raising (提出) questins D. cmparing (比较) facts
68. The underlined wrds “get indulged in” prbably mean __________.
A. get interested in B. get lst in C. get wrried abut D. get tired f
69. Mr. Ma may agree with the idea that __________.
A. He Kai’s parents are arund every time he plays with his friends
B. Liu Xiang ges ut withut knwing anything abut the activities
C. Feng Zhngfan’s parents never ask him abut whm he plays with
D. Xie Ha talks t his parents abut the exact details befre playtime
70. This passage mainly wants t tell us __________.
A. why teenagers need free time t get relaxed
B. hw teenagers can make full use f their free time
C. what teenagers can d t make their free time meaningful
D. whether teenagers need parents’ supervisin t enjy free time
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共35分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
仔细阅读下面5个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构，句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
impssible / make up / mistakes / invite / take up / preparatins / add
71. Chse a day and time t have a party. Then ____________ yur classmates t yur party.
72. Sme peple might say they are ging t ____________ a hbby like taking phts.
73. Laura’s father said he smetimes made careless ____________ himself.
74. Then, ____________ the cabbage, tmates and nin and ck fr anther 10 minutes.
75. This was nt pssible 20 years ag, but cmputers als seemed ____________ 100 years ag.
六、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文、所给首字母或者括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词。每个空只能填一个单词。
June 5 is the Wrld Envirnment (环境) Day. Nw mre and mre peple are trying d____________ (76) kinds f ways t face envirnmental prblems arund the wrld. What are peple ding t prtect (保护) ur hme--the earth?
Mst peple are changing their shpping ____________ (77) (habit). On the ne hand, peple may want t buy the secndhand clthes t wear in special situatins because they nly wear them nce r twice. On the ____________ (78) hand, there are sme cmpanies (公司) fr renting (租) clthes and renting clthes is cheaper than b____________ (79) them. S peple are able t s____________ (80) mney and prtect the envirnment.
Several large cmpanies have used paper bttles (瓶子) t take the place; ____________ (81) glass and plastic nes because there are many custmers wrrying abut the envirnment. They think paper bttles are easy t recycle and weigh ____________ (82) (little) than glass r plastic nes.
A zer-waste life is that peple hardly create any rubbish (垃圾). A zer-waste stre ____________ (83) (prvide) a number f everyday and pleasant zer-waste prducts. The stre helps peple start n a ne-stp, zer-waste life trip. A zer-waste life f____________ (84) the 6R rules---Refuse, Reduce, Reuse, Repair, Recycle and Rt.
All in all, the earth is ur hme and it’s ur d____________ (85) t prtect it.
七、书面表达 (共1大题，满分15分)
初中生活已经过了一半，在过去的一年半里，你在学校度过了愉快的时光，学习很快乐充实，和老师相处得也很融洽。请你根据以下提示写一篇英语短文介绍你的学校生活。
内容要点如下：
1. Wh is yur favurite teacher and why d yu like him/her?
2. What’s yur favurite subject and what can yu learn frm it?
3. What’s yur favurite after-schl activity and hw ften d yu take part in it?
Smething mre abut yur schl life.
注意：
1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称；2. 词数：60-80 (开头已给出，不计入总词数) 3. 内容连贯，不要逐条翻译；
My Schl Life
I am a student f Grade Eight. ________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
青山区2023-2024学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力部分 (每小题 1 分，共 25 分)
1-5 ABCAB 6-10 CAABB 11-15 CBCBA 16-20 CACAB 21-25 AABCC
二、选择填空 (每小题 1 分，共 15 分)
26-30 ABDCC 31-35 ABDCA 36-40 DBBAC
三、完形填空 (每小题 1 分，共 15 分)
41-45 CABCD 46-50 DBABC 51-55 ADABC
四、阅读理解 (每小题 2 分，共 30 分)
56-60 CACDB 61-65 CAABD 66-70 CABDD
五、选词填空 (每小题 2 分，共 10 分)
71. invite 72. take up 73. mistakes 74. add 75. impssible
六、阅读理解填词 (每小题 1 分，共 10 分)
76. different 77. habits 78. ther 79. buying 80. save
81. f 82. less 83. prvides 84. fllws 85. duty
七、书面表达 (15 分)
My Schl Life
I am a student f Grade Eight. I g t schl at 7: 30 every mrning. We have eight classes every day and we have eight subjects in ttal. My favurite subject is histry because I can learn a lt abut the past. My favurite teacher is my English teacher. She is very kind and ften helps me when I am in truble. I have many friends at schl, and I ften play basketball with them after class. Playing basketball is ne f my favurite sprts. In additin, I als enjy playing table tennis very much. My friends and I believe that exercise is gd fr ur health.
书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
评分时，先根据短文的内．容．、语．言．和思．维．逻．辑．以及写．作．规．范．初步判定其所属
档次，然后根据该档次的具体要求来确定或调整档次，最后给分。这一原则也称 之为整体评分或印象评分。
评分时，应关注的短文内．容．为：内容要点表达的清楚程度、完整性及准确性。
评分时，应关注的短文语．言．和思．维．逻．辑．为：运用词汇和语法结构的准确性及上下文语意的流畅性和完整性。
评分时， 应关注的短文写．作．规．范．为：词数不少于 60 词，拼写和标点符号符 合写作规范 (英、美拼写及词汇用法均视为符合要求) ，如书写较差，以致影响交际，建议将分数降低一个档次。
二、档次的判定
英语书面表达题的评判一般把学生写作的短文分为五个档次。
第五档次： (13~15 分)
短文能呈现所有内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚、逻辑合理且基本无错误。
第四档次： (10~12 分)
短文能呈现绝大部分内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚且无严重错误，逻辑比较合理，有少数单词拼写错误。
第三档次： (7~9 分)
短文能呈现大部分内容要点，写出的句子虽然有语法错误但能表达基本信息，逻辑基本合理，有较多的单词拼写错误。
第二档次： (4~6 分)
短文包含部分内容要点，写出的句子有较严重的语法错误，表达的意思也不清楚，有较多的单词拼写错误。
第一档次： (1~3 分)
短文包含少量内容要点，写出的句子有严重语法错误，基本不能表达语意，或只写出几个关键词。
注意： 如表达出现以下情况：未能传递任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。建议判零分。
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Reading can be a big challenge fr tens f millins f peple. They may have pr visin (视力) r reading difficulties. But OrCam Read can help them! It’s the first f its kind reading pen with a smart camera and an AI system. After scanning (扫描) a page f text with the click f a buttn, it can read the text alud t the user. Yu dn’t need t cnnect it t the internet. Yu can use it ffline at hme, wrk, schl, r even in stres when yu need t read a price tag.
Sweet Idea
Hney is prduced by bees (蜜蜂). But tday’s beekeeping business is nt gd fr these hard-wrking insects. Bee farmers may kill them after harvesting hney because it’s cheaper than feeding the bees thrugh the winter. T save bees, US cmpany MeliBi has fund a way t make the wrld’s first bee-free hney. They used synthetic bilgy (合成生物学) t create hney directly frm plants.
________________
When yu feel angry r unhappy, what d yu d abut it? Scientists say yu can try t calm yurself. This can help yu calm dwn. That’s why Purrble was invented. This furry (毛茸茸的) bear--like ty has9 sensrs (感应器). It has a quick “heartbeat” and can respnd t yur tuch. As yu hld and pet it, its heartbeat slws. And it purrs (发出咕噜声) like a cat. It sunds like it really enjys yur tuch! Thrugh petting Purrble, yu will easily ntice yur wn feelings and learn t calm yurselves.
青山区教育局教研室命制 2024年1月
本试卷满分为120分考试用时120分钟
第I卷 (选择题共85分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试部分 (共三小节，满分25分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Peking University. B. In Beijing C. I’m eighteen.
2. A. It’s interesting B. In the classrm. C. She had a gd time.
3. A. With his dad. B. At six ’clck. C. By undergrund.
4. A. T be an artist. B. He is a student. C. It’s great.
5. A. Alice. B. Alan. C. Clse the dr.
第二节 (共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. When will the class begin?
A. At 12: 15. B. At 12: 45 C. At 13: 00.
7. What’s the relatinship between the speakers prbably?
A. Brther and sister. B. Mther and sn. C. Father and daughter.
8. What’s the weather like nw?
A. Windy. B. Sunny. C. Snwy.
9. What des Grace’s mm want her t be?
A. B. C.
10. What will the man d?
A. Brrw a magazineB. Give a hand t the wman. C. G t the library with the wman.
11. Hw des the wman like the mvie?
A. It is just s-s. B. It is the best. C. It is the wrst.
12. What des the wman mean?
A. She needs a map. B. Nrth Star is helpful. C. She never gets lst.
第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、 C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
13. What are the tw speakers talking abut?
A. A cncert. B. A schl trip. C. A talent shw.
14. What is Vera gd at playing?
A. The pian. B. The guitar. C. The vilin
15. Wh did the man think was the funniest?
A. Steve and his dg. B. Eliza. C. Dennis.
听下面一段对话，回答16至18三个小题。
16. When did Tny cme back frm his vacatin?
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
17. Which is TRUE accrding t the cnversatin?
A. Tny’s father played glf. B. Tny’s brther played tennis.
C. Tny went swimming with his mther.
18. Hw was Tny’s vacatin?
A. It was terrible. B. It was bring. C. It was great.
听下面一段对话，回答19至22四个小题。
19. Where are the tw speakers prbably?
A. At the schl. B. At hme. C. On a bus.
20. Wh is ging t N. 1 High Schl?
A. Peter. B. Helen. C. Linda
21. What can we knw abut N. 1 High Schl?
A. It’s very beautiful. B. It’s the best ne in their city.
C. The teachers there are the mst experienced
22. Why des Linda NOT want t g t NO. 15 High Schl?
A. Because it’s t far frm her hme. B. Because Mr. Black dislikes that schl
C. Because she desn’t want t leave her friends
听下面一段独白，回答23至25三个小题。
23. Where des strng black tea cme frm?
A. China. B. India. C. England.
24. What d peple in Britain always have after the main meal?
A. Smething delicius. B. Smething salty. C. Smething sweet.
25. What eating habits d peple in Britain have?
A. They eat rice every day. B. They have bread with milk.
C. They put milk and sugar in their tea.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. —D I have t add mre hney, Mm?
— __________. Or it will be t sweet.
A. N, that’s it B. That’s fr sureC. I guess s D. I hpe s
27. —Can yu cme t my birthday party n Saturday afternn?
— __________. I have t prepare fr an exam.
A. Sure, I’d lve t B. Srry, I can’tC. Have a gd time D. With pleasure
28. —What d yu think f the talk shws?
— __________. They’re bring.
A. I lve them B. N prblemC. I’m nt sure D. I can’t stand them
29. —Why are yu in such a hurry, Mike?
—There __________ an NBA basketball game in ten minutes.
A. is B. will have C. is ging t beD. is ging t have
30. —Hw abut camping in the park this weekend?
—Gd idea. But if it __________, yu can cme t my hme t enjy delicius fd.
A. rained B. will rain C. rains D. is raining
31. —The air is getting dirtier and we can plant mre trees.
—Yes. Everyne shuld play a part __________ saving the earth.
A. in B. by C. with D. thrugh
32. —I’ll buy yu a new bike if yu can learn hw t ski this winter.
—Is that a (an) __________? I’m sure I’ll get it.
A. chance B. prmise C. idea D. jke
33. —What d Americans d n Thanksgiving Day?
—It’s __________ in America t eat turkey n that day.
A. envirnmental B. classical C. educatinal D. traditinal
34. —Mary lks wrried these days. What’s wrng?
—Her reprt is nt gd enugh but she desn’t knw hw t __________ it.
A. prepare B. guide C. imprve D. chse
35. —As teachers, we shuld help ur students develp bth mentally and __________.
—But mst parents nly care abut grades.
A. physically B. actively C. hardly D. nrmally
36. —Culd I brrw yur dictinary?
—Of curse yu __________.
A. culd B. will C. shuld D. can
37. —Ww! These ty planes lk s cl!
—Why nt buy __________ fr ur sn? He will like __________.
A. it; it B. ne; it C. it; ne D. ne; ne
38. —David, where is my ring? I can’t find it anywhere.
—I dn’t knw. It will __________ if it is in the rm.
A. turn n B. turn up C. turn ff D. turn dwn
39. —It’s useless t __________ with him abut his mistakes. He wn’t listen t yu
—But I still want t have a try.
A. reasn B. fight C. share D. agree
40. —Excuse me, d yu knw __________?
—Yes, there is ne in 15 minutes.
A. when will the bus t Tianhe Airprt leaveB. where can I get n the bus t Tianhe Airprt
C. if there is anther bus t Tianhe Airprt laterD. hw lng I will spend n the bus t Tianhe Airprt
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
It was Friday afternn. The students were having the last 41 f this week. At the end f the class, the teacher 42 the students t bring sme tmates in a bag t schl the next Mnday. “And yu shuld give each tmat a 43 f the persn yu dn’t like. If yu dn’t like five persns, yu shuld bring five tmates. “the teacher said.
The students didn’t knw why, but they felt glad 44 they didn’t need t d hmewrk at the weekend. On Mnday, all the students brught tmates. Sme had tw, sme had six, and sme 45 had twenty in their bags.
The teacher said, “This week, all f yu have t 46 these bags with yu, anywhere yu g fr the whle week. “The students 47 happily. Then it was Friday again. The tmates smelt 48 as they already lst their freshness. “Hw did yu 49 this week?” the teacher asked. All the students cmplained abut (抱怨) the smell. Sme als talked abut the heavy weight (重量) f their bags because they carried 50 tmates.
The teacher smiled and said, “These tmates are similar (相似的) t what yu carry in yur 51 . When yu dn’t like smene, yu carry that hatred (厌恶) everywhere and it makes yur heart 52 . Yu can’t stand the 53 and weight f these tmates fr a week. Then hw can yur heart stand 54 feelings when yu carry them every day?”
The students lked at their tmates and 55 the teacher’s wrds. They decided t frgive (原谅) thse wh had hurt them and nly keep gd things in mind.
41. A. talk B. game C. lessn D. test
42. A. asked B. helped C. shwed D. ffered
43. A. price B. name C. call D. date
44. A. f B. when C. because D. befre
45. A. als B. never C. ften D. even
46. A. clean B. pen C. fill D. carry
47. A. left B. agreed C. played D. waited
48. A. terrible B. dangerus C. sweet D. cld
49. A. stay B. feel C. make D. lk
50. A. better B. smaller C. mre D. cheaper
51. A. heart B. rm C. bag D. vice
52. A. helpful B. exciting C. useless D. unhealthy
53. A. smell B. change C. sense D. taste
54. A. happy B. bad C. new D. ld
55. A. spelt B. wrte C. understd D. faced
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每篇材料后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出最佳答案。
A
56. All the news abve have smething t d with __________.
A. magical wrld B. cultural differences
C. useful inventins D. envirnmental prtectin
57. Hw shuld peple with reading difficulties use OrCam Read?
A. Use it t scan the text they need t read. B. Use it t scan images they can’t see.
C. Cnnect it t a small camera. D. Cnnect it t the internet.
58. What des the underlined wrd “bee-free” mean?
A. Bees can d what they want. B. Spend less mney feeding bees.
C. N bees are needed. D. Bees can be set free after wrking.
59. The best heading fr the third news culd be __________.
A. Purr Like A Cat B. Slw Yur HeartbeatC. Play With A Pet D. Keep Yu Calm
60. Frm the news abve, we knw that __________.
A. the new kind f hney can help make mre mney
B. Purrble can help yu knw abut yur feelings
C. the new kind f hney is made frm real hney
D. Purrble’s sensrs can make yu angry
B
A few weeks ag, I went int Chase’s class fr help. I e-mailed Chase’s teacher ne evening and said, “My sn keeps telling me that his hmewrk is maths, but I’m nt sure whether I shuld believe him. Help, please.” She e-mailed right back and said, “N prblem! I can help Chase after schl anytime.” And I said, “N, nt him. Me. He gets it Help me.”
And that’s why I stayed with Chase’s maths teacher. We talked abut teaching children. We agreed that subjects like maths and reading are nt the mst imprtant things that are learned in a classrm. We als talked abut smething else--kindness and bravery.
And then she tld me this.
Every Friday afternn Chase’s teacher asks her students t take ut a piece f paper and write dwn whm they’d like t sit with the fllwing week. She als asks the students t nminate (推荐) wh is the mst ppular student that week. They needn’t write dwn their names n the paper.
After the students g hme, she takes ut thse pieces f paper and studies them. In fact, Chase’s teacher is nt lking fr a new seating chart (表) r “ppular students”. She is lking fr lnely children. She’s lking fr the nes wh dn’t want t talk with thers. She is finding ut whse names are nt nticed by their classmates. ★
After watching Clumbine, the wise wman knew that all vilence (暴力) cmes um lneliness. S she decided t start fighting vilence early and ften, and what she is ding is SAVING LIVES.
And she finds the lnely kids frm thse lists and tries t help them. It’s maths t her. All is lve--even Maths.
61. Chase’s parent asked fr help by __________.
A. ging t the teacher’s hme B. calling the teacher
C. e-mailing Chase’s teacher D. writing a letter
62. Chase’s teacher asks her students t write dwn sme names n paper __________.
A. because she wants t find the lnely children
B. because she is lking fr a new seating cha
C. because she is lking fr the ppular student
D. because she wants t help her students learn Maths
63. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ ?
A. Then she gets t knw wh needs help
B. Then she emails t the students’ parents
C. Then she gives a new seat chart next week
D. Then she finds the mst ppular student in the class
64. What d we knw abut the teacher?
A. She’s ready t help the parents. B. She’s kind and full f lve.
C. She’s gd at teaching Maths. D. She’s a gd mther.
65. The best title fr the passage can be __________.
A. Learning Maths B. Lking fr Help
C. Teaching Children D. Lking fr the Lnely
C
Free time is a gd chance fr teenagers t have fun. What abut free time with parents arund? Sme teenagers want free play withut parents’ supervisin (监管) while parents and experts may think differently.
Lin Ta, a middle schl student, thinks teenagers shuld be free t play. “Last time I played with my parents arund, I was nervus (紧张) and just culdn’t enjy myself t the fullest.” Lin says. “And my friend Chen Xiaxin has similar experiences. Once, he went ut t play with his classmates. Everyne felt uncmfrtable with his mther’s supervisin.”
Wang Min, a mther f a 14-year-ld by, thinks playtime needs supervisin. She explains, “Peple usually say I like t cntrl my kid, but that’s nt true. I am just wrried that he will get int truble. Sme guys may have a bad influence n him and sme games like LARP may mislead him. He might even get indulged in the stries and can’t get back t real life.”
Mr. Ma, a dctr f scial studies, says it’s understandable fr teenagers t wish fr freedm. Free play helps them t be independent. Parents can give them mre space. They dn’t have t supervise them all the time. Hwever, teenagers shuld find ut the exact details (细节) abut the activities befre playtime. Then they can cmmunicate with their parents and decide tgether whether they can g ut t play alne.
66. Fr teenagers, free time is a gd chance t __________.
A. study hard B. mislead parents C. enjy themselves D. get int truble
67. Lin Ta supprts his wn idea by __________.
A. giving examples B. listing numbers
C. raising (提出) questins D. cmparing (比较) facts
68. The underlined wrds “get indulged in” prbably mean __________.
A. get interested in B. get lst in C. get wrried abut D. get tired f
69. Mr. Ma may agree with the idea that __________.
A. He Kai’s parents are arund every time he plays with his friends
B. Liu Xiang ges ut withut knwing anything abut the activities
C. Feng Zhngfan’s parents never ask him abut whm he plays with
D. Xie Ha talks t his parents abut the exact details befre playtime
70. This passage mainly wants t tell us __________.
A. why teenagers need free time t get relaxed
B. hw teenagers can make full use f their free time
C. what teenagers can d t make their free time meaningful
D. whether teenagers need parents’ supervisin t enjy free time
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共35分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
仔细阅读下面5个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构，句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
impssible / make up / mistakes / invite / take up / preparatins / add
71. Chse a day and time t have a party. Then ____________ yur classmates t yur party.
72. Sme peple might say they are ging t ____________ a hbby like taking phts.
73. Laura’s father said he smetimes made careless ____________ himself.
74. Then, ____________ the cabbage, tmates and nin and ck fr anther 10 minutes.
75. This was nt pssible 20 years ag, but cmputers als seemed ____________ 100 years ag.
六、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文、所给首字母或者括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词。每个空只能填一个单词。
June 5 is the Wrld Envirnment (环境) Day. Nw mre and mre peple are trying d____________ (76) kinds f ways t face envirnmental prblems arund the wrld. What are peple ding t prtect (保护) ur hme--the earth?
Mst peple are changing their shpping ____________ (77) (habit). On the ne hand, peple may want t buy the secndhand clthes t wear in special situatins because they nly wear them nce r twice. On the ____________ (78) hand, there are sme cmpanies (公司) fr renting (租) clthes and renting clthes is cheaper than b____________ (79) them. S peple are able t s____________ (80) mney and prtect the envirnment.
Several large cmpanies have used paper bttles (瓶子) t take the place; ____________ (81) glass and plastic nes because there are many custmers wrrying abut the envirnment. They think paper bttles are easy t recycle and weigh ____________ (82) (little) than glass r plastic nes.
A zer-waste life is that peple hardly create any rubbish (垃圾). A zer-waste stre ____________ (83) (prvide) a number f everyday and pleasant zer-waste prducts. The stre helps peple start n a ne-stp, zer-waste life trip. A zer-waste life f____________ (84) the 6R rules---Refuse, Reduce, Reuse, Repair, Recycle and Rt.
All in all, the earth is ur hme and it’s ur d____________ (85) t prtect it.
七、书面表达 (共1大题，满分15分)
初中生活已经过了一半，在过去的一年半里，你在学校度过了愉快的时光，学习很快乐充实，和老师相处得也很融洽。请你根据以下提示写一篇英语短文介绍你的学校生活。
内容要点如下：
1. Wh is yur favurite teacher and why d yu like him/her?
2. What’s yur favurite subject and what can yu learn frm it?
3. What’s yur favurite after-schl activity and hw ften d yu take part in it?
Smething mre abut yur schl life.
注意：
1. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称；2. 词数：60-80 (开头已给出，不计入总词数) 3. 内容连贯，不要逐条翻译；
My Schl Life
I am a student f Grade Eight. ________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
青山区2023-2024学年度第一学期期末质量检测
八年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力部分 (每小题 1 分，共 25 分)
1-5 ABCAB 6-10 CAABB 11-15 CBCBA 16-20 CACAB 21-25 AABCC
二、选择填空 (每小题 1 分，共 15 分)
26-30 ABDCC 31-35 ABDCA 36-40 DBBAC
三、完形填空 (每小题 1 分，共 15 分)
41-45 CABCD 46-50 DBABC 51-55 ADABC
四、阅读理解 (每小题 2 分，共 30 分)
56-60 CACDB 61-65 CAABD 66-70 CABDD
五、选词填空 (每小题 2 分，共 10 分)
71. invite 72. take up 73. mistakes 74. add 75. impssible
六、阅读理解填词 (每小题 1 分，共 10 分)
76. different 77. habits 78. ther 79. buying 80. save
81. f 82. less 83. prvides 84. fllws 85. duty
七、书面表达 (15 分)
My Schl Life
I am a student f Grade Eight. I g t schl at 7: 30 every mrning. We have eight classes every day and we have eight subjects in ttal. My favurite subject is histry because I can learn a lt abut the past. My favurite teacher is my English teacher. She is very kind and ften helps me when I am in truble. I have many friends at schl, and I ften play basketball with them after class. Playing basketball is ne f my favurite sprts. In additin, I als enjy playing table tennis very much. My friends and I believe that exercise is gd fr ur health.
书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
评分时，先根据短文的内．容．、语．言．和思．维．逻．辑．以及写．作．规．范．初步判定其所属
档次，然后根据该档次的具体要求来确定或调整档次，最后给分。这一原则也称 之为整体评分或印象评分。
评分时，应关注的短文内．容．为：内容要点表达的清楚程度、完整性及准确性。
评分时，应关注的短文语．言．和思．维．逻．辑．为：运用词汇和语法结构的准确性及上下文语意的流畅性和完整性。
评分时， 应关注的短文写．作．规．范．为：词数不少于 60 词，拼写和标点符号符 合写作规范 (英、美拼写及词汇用法均视为符合要求) ，如书写较差，以致影响交际，建议将分数降低一个档次。
二、档次的判定
英语书面表达题的评判一般把学生写作的短文分为五个档次。
第五档次： (13~15 分)
短文能呈现所有内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚、逻辑合理且基本无错误。
第四档次： (10~12 分)
短文能呈现绝大部分内容要点，写出的句子语意表达清楚且无严重错误，逻辑比较合理，有少数单词拼写错误。
第三档次： (7~9 分)
短文能呈现大部分内容要点，写出的句子虽然有语法错误但能表达基本信息，逻辑基本合理，有较多的单词拼写错误。
第二档次： (4~6 分)
短文包含部分内容要点，写出的句子有较严重的语法错误，表达的意思也不清楚，有较多的单词拼写错误。
第一档次： (1~3 分)
短文包含少量内容要点，写出的句子有严重语法错误，基本不能表达语意，或只写出几个关键词。
注意： 如表达出现以下情况：未能传递任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。建议判零分。
Easier t Read
Reading can be a big challenge fr tens f millins f peple. They may have pr visin (视力) r reading difficulties. But OrCam Read can help them! It’s the first f its kind reading pen with a smart camera and an AI system. After scanning (扫描) a page f text with the click f a buttn, it can read the text alud t the user. Yu dn’t need t cnnect it t the internet. Yu can use it ffline at hme, wrk, schl, r even in stres when yu need t read a price tag.
Sweet Idea
Hney is prduced by bees (蜜蜂). But tday’s beekeeping business is nt gd fr these hard-wrking insects. Bee farmers may kill them after harvesting hney because it’s cheaper than feeding the bees thrugh the winter. T save bees, US cmpany MeliBi has fund a way t make the wrld’s first bee-free hney. They used synthetic bilgy (合成生物学) t create hney directly frm plants.
________________
When yu feel angry r unhappy, what d yu d abut it? Scientists say yu can try t calm yurself. This can help yu calm dwn. That’s why Purrble was invented. This furry (毛茸茸的) bear--like ty has9 sensrs (感应器). It has a quick “heartbeat” and can respnd t yur tuch. As yu hld and pet it, its heartbeat slws. And it purrs (发出咕噜声) like a cat. It sunds like it really enjys yur tuch! Thrugh petting Purrble, yu will easily ntice yur wn feelings and learn t calm yurselves.
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