安徽省安庆市潜山市十校联考2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中英语试题

这是一份安徽省安庆市潜山市十校联考2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中英语试题，共13页。

注意事项：
1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分为120分，考试时间为 120分钟。
2. 请务必在“答题卷”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题是无效的。
3. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”或“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力 (共四大题，满分20分)
Ⅰ. 短对话理解(共5 小题； 每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What animal des Tina like best?
2. What is Bill's mther ding?
3. What can Jack d?
A. Dance. B. Dra w pictures. C. Play chess.
4. Hw des Mike usually g t wrk?
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By bike.
5. Where is the girl's father?
A. At hme. B. In the supermarket. C. At schl.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解(共5 小题； 每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. What time des Bill usually get up?
A. At 6:00. B. At 6:20. C. At 6:30.
7. What des Bill d at abut 7:00?
A. He eats breakfast. B. He ges t schl. C. He takes a shwer.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至 10小题。
8. Hw far is it frm Tm's hme t schl?
A. Abut 5 kilmeters. B. Abut 15 kilmeters. C. Abut 25 kilmeters.
9. Hw lng des it take Tm t get t schl by subway?
A. 5 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C.25 minutes.
10. Why des Mary walk t schl?
A. Because her hme is nt far frm the schl.
B. Because she likes walking.
C. Because she wants t d exercise.
III. 短文理解 (共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What des Henry d?
A. A student. B. A dctr. C. A teacher.
12. What is Henry's mther ding?
A. Watching TV. B. Reading a newspaper. C. Listening t a CD.
13. What clr is the dg?
A. Black. B. White. C. Brwn.
14. Where is the cat?
A. Under the desk. B. Under the bed. C. On the chair.
15. Hw many peple are there in the pht?
A.5. B.6. C.7.
Ⅳ. 信息转换(共5 小题； 每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 英语知识运用(共三大题，满分 35分)
V. 单项填空 (共10小题; 每小题1分, 满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. Living in places can make peple feel really bad.
A. quiet B. lazy C. nisy D. strict
22. The girl is . Let's g t help her.
A. n weekends B. n time C. kind f D. in danger
23.— Des Mr. Green finish his new wrk?
-- N, he needs mre time.
A. either B. just C. r D. still
24. There's a big in Eric's huse. Every day, he swims in it fr half an hur.
A. clck B. radi C.cmputer D. pl
25.— D yu read English every mrning?
— Yes, but nw I Chinese.
A. read B. reading C. am reading D. is reading
26.— des it take yu t ride t schl every day?
— Abut 40 minutes.
A. Hw far B. Hw lng C. Hw many D. Hw much
27.— Are yu sure this is ur English teacher's red car?
— Yes. I ften see her it t schl.
A. make B. drive C. crss D. write
28.— Excuse me, sir. I . Can yu help me find my way hme?
— Sure.
A. get dressed B. get lst C. get up D. get ut
29. English well, he practices speaking English every day.
A. Learn B. Learning C. T learn D. Learns
30.— . Hw can I get t the pst ffice?
— Just g straight (直走) and yu can find it.
A. Srry B. Yes C. Excuse me D. Yu are welcme
Ⅵ. 完形填空(共20小题; 每小题1分, 满分 20分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Hell, bys and girls! Let me tell yu smething abut the 31 .
Kalas cme frm Australia. They are quiet, friendly and cute. They are kind f lazy. They like 32 in the day. At night, they get up and eat leaves(树叶) n the 33 . Lk ver there, the tall anımals are 34 . They can eat the leaves in the big trees. They are 35 and beautiful animals, t. They cme frm Africa. Lins are als frm 36 . Many peple think they are scary. Many 37 like t have dlphins(海豚) because they are very smart and interesting. They live in the 38 , s they can swim very well. Mst elephants cme frm Thailand r Africa. They are really 39 . Yu can be gd friends with them. But they are in great danger. We must 40 them.
31. A. peple B. fd C. animals D. places
32. A. running B. sleeping C. walking D. swimming
33. A. flags B. bridges C. trees D. phnes
34. A. giraffes B. elephants C. pandas D. lins
35. A. shrt B. scary C. dangerus D. cute
36. A. China B. Africa C. Australia D. Canada
37. A. schls B. libraries C. huses D. zs
38. A. water B. village C. hall D. club
39. A. shy B. afraid C. friendly D. lazy
40. A. wash B. save C. cut D. frget
B
There are lts f rules at Selina's schl. She likes sme f them. Fr example(例如), they can't arrive 41 fr schl. They can't run in the hallways, and they can't 42 in class. They must g t the dining hall. All these 43 are kay because they' re reasnable(合理的).
But there are sme rules Selina desn't like. Fr example, at her schl they have t 44 unifrms and they can't wear jeans( 牛仔 裤). She thinks jeans are gd 45 they' re cmfrtable(舒适的). At schl, they can't listen t music in art class. Selina desn't like this rule. She 46 listening t music in art class is kay.
Selina als has t 47 sme rules at hme. Fr example, if(如果) she wants t watch TV, she has t finish her 48 first. And she can't 49 with her friends n schl nights. She has t clean her rm every week because it is 50 .
41. A. busy B. late C. early D. happy
42. A. eat B. take C. buy D. bring
43. A. bks B. rivers C. rules D. dictinaries
44. A. sell B. take C. relax D. wear
45. A. because B. and C. but D. r
46. A. reads B. thinks C. arrives D. leaves
47. A. remember B. practice C. fllw D. feel
48. A. race B. bridge C. kitchen D. hmewrk
49. A. cut dwn B. get t C. talk t D. g ut
50. A. relaxing B. funny C. dirty D. strict
Ⅶ. 补全对话(共5小题； 每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hell, this is Jane.
B: Hi, Jane. This is Peter.
A: Oh, Peter. 51
B: I'm watching a TV shw.
A: 52
B: N, it's kind f bring. 53
A:I'm ding my hmewrk.
B: 54
A: N, nt t much.
B: 55
A: That sunds gd. See yu.
B: See yu then.
A. D yu have lts f hmewrk t d?
B. What is yur brther ding?
C. Let's g t the z after yu finish yur hmewrk.
D. What are yu ding nw?
E. What abut yu?
F. Is it interesting?
G. Let's meet at three ' clck.
第三部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
Ⅷ. 阅读理解(共20小题； 每小题2分，满分40分)
第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Welcme t ur schl clubs
56. What place is fr students t learn English?
A. Art rm. B. Classrm 301.
C. Dancing club. D. Swimming pl.
57. Wh may(可能) be gd at drawing?
A. Dennis. B. Mr. Zhang. C. Miss Li. D. Miss Pan.
58. What can students learn t g t schl clubs n Friday?
A. Swimming and art. B. English and swimming.
C. Art and dancing. D. English and art.
B
We have fur classes in the mrning. Between the secnd class and the third class, we have twenty minutes’ rest(休息). Nw it's the rest time. Lk! Many f us are playing. Sme bys are n the playgrund(操场). They are playing basketball. Oh! A by is running with the ball. And anther is trying(尽力) t stp him. They lk s cl. And there are sme girls watching the game. Sme students are in the classrm. Mst f them are talking. Fur are reading and ding their hmewrk. There's a tree nt far frm the classrm. Lk! A girl is lking at the birds in the tree. She must think the birds are interesting because she is smiling(微笑).
What are the teachers ding? Sme f them are wrking in the ffice. And sme are talking with students. Everyne is ding his r her things, busy but happy!
59. Hw lng d the students rest between the secnd class and the third class?
A. Fr 10 minutes. B. Fr 15 minutes. C. Fr 20 minutes. D. Fr an hur.
60. What are sme bys ding n the playgrund?
A. Playing basketball. B. Playing sccer. C. Playing vlleyball. D. Playing baseball.
61. What are the teachers ding?
A. Wrking r talking with students. B. Having a basketball game.
C. Playing with the students. D. Lking at the birds.
62. Where are sme students talking?
A. In the library. B. In the classrm.
C. In the supermarket. D. In the z.
C
Jane Brwning wrks in a busy hspital in Bstn, USA. On weekdays, she usually gets up at six ’ clck in the mrning and has a shwer. Then she ges t wrk at seven ’ clck.
Her husband(丈夫), David usually gets up at seven ’ clck. He is a science teacher. They have ne sn. His name is Andy. Andy is thirteen. He ges t schl at seven thirty in the mrning with his father.
After Jane gets t the hspital, she talks t her patients(病人) and asks hw they are. Then she meets the new patients. At abut ne ’ clck in the afternn she has lunch.
Usually Jane ges hme at six ’ clck in the evening and she is very tired. But she lves her jb because she likes helping peple.
63. What subject des David teach?
A. Science. B. Math. C. English. D. Art.
64. Why des Jane lve her jb?
A. Because it is interesting. B. Because she can help peple.
C. Because it helps her make friends. D. Because she desn't need t get up early.
65. Which is TRUE?
A. Jane's sn is 12 years ld.
B. Jane usually desn't have lunch.
C. Jane's husband ges t wrk at 7:00 am.
D. Jane usually cmes back hme frm wrk at 6:00 pm.
D
D yu like reading bks? Sme peple may say yes. Reading is a gd habit. They think reading is interesting. In Beijing, yu can see sme sharing bkstres(共享书店). Yu can read and brrw(借) bks there. But yu can nly get tw bks nce(一次).
Readers can use their mbile phnes t brrw sme bks. Then they can take these bks hme. But they must give a depsit(押金) f 99 yuan. There are many bks in the sharing bkstres. Peple can keep these bks fr 10 days and they dn't need t give the sharing bkstres mney. After they read bks, they must return them t the bkstres n time. Then they can get ne yuan as a reward(奖励).
Nw there are many sharing bkstres in Beijing. The bkstres want peple t read mre bks and give peple lts f fun. Mre and mre peple like reading nw.
66. Hw many bks can yu brrw nce?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three. D. Ten.
67. What des the underlined wrd(划线的单词)“ return” mean(意思是) in Chinese?
A. 归还 B. 拿走 C. 购买 D. 出售
68. What can we knw frm the passage(文章)?
A. Yu can keep the bks fr 99 days.
B. Yu can't take the bks hme.
C. Yu must give sme mney t the bkstre.
D. Yu can get ne yuan after yu return the bks n time.
69. What is the best title(标题) fr the passage?
A. Reading habits B. Beijing bkstres
C. Read mre bks D. The sharing bkstres
E
Eight- year- ld Dieg is playing in the swimming pl. His mther, Anna, is sitting near the t She's reading a bk, r she's trying t read a bk.
“ Hey, Mm! I'm swimming!”
“ Lk, Mm! I'm dancing in the water.”
“ Mm, are yu watching me?”
“ Yes, Dieg!I'm watching yu and als reading a bk. I'm ding the tw things at the same time(同时),” says Anna.
Then Dieg is trying t splash(泼洒) water n her bk. Anna is trying t stp him. The stry in the bk is really interesting. Anna is trying t fllw it.
After sme time, Dieg is quiet. S Anna lks arund fr Dieg. She cannt find him. She's getting wrried(担心的).
“ Dieg! Dieg! Where are yu? I can't see yu,” she cries.
“ B!” Dieg is standing behind(站在后面) her.“I'm playing with yu, Mm!” says Dieg.
“ Dieg, it's nt funny. I'm very wrried abut yu. Dn't d that again!” says Anna. Then. Dieg ges int the pl again. Anna stps reading and watches her sn.
70. What is Dieg's mther ding?
A. Dancing. B. Playing games. C. Swimming. D. Reading.
71. What des the underlined wrd“ it” refer t(指的是)?
A. The water. B. The pl. C. The fd. D. The stry.
72. What des Dieg's mther knw at last(最后)?
A. She knws that Dieg wants t be at hme.
B. She knws that Dieg wants t play in the pl.
C. She knws that Dieg wants t play with her.
D. She knws that Dieg wants t take her bk.
第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
F
D yu like walking? A thirteen- year- ld girl named Jenny likes walking very much. She likes walking because she thinks it is gd fr her health.“ My hme is 6 kilmeters frm schl. I get up at6:00 every mrning. Then I have a gd breakfast. I think breakfast is very imprtant t us. After breakfast, I walk t schl. I can see many interesting things and peple,” says Jenny,“ My father buys a new car and he wants t take me t schl every mrning. But I think I need t exercise and I ask my father t exercise, t. Nw he walks t wrk. After dinner, my parents and I usually take a walk. I have a happy family. And we have a healthy life.”
Hw d yu g t schl every day? Walk t schl nw. It's gd exercise. It's als gd fr the envirnment(环境). D yu think s?
73. Hw ld is Jenny?(不超过 5 个词)
74. Hw far is it frm Jenny’s hme t schl?(不超过 5个词)
75. Hw des Jenny’s father g t wrk nw?(不超过 10 个词)
第四部分 写 (共两大题，满分 25分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5小题； 每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
76. Uncle Wang's hme is in the c (中心) f ur village.
77.—— Hw is yur English test?
— It's t (糟糕的).
78. I can see many b (船) n the river.
79. These bys all w (希望) they can jin the sprts club.
80. Animals are ur friends, s we can't k (杀死) them.
X. 书面表达 (共1 小题; 满分20分)
请根据下面提示写一篇英语短文，介绍一下北京动物园。
提示：
1. 北京动物园在北京西城区 ( Xicheng District), 每天 7:30 开馆;
2. 园内大约有 15，000 只动物，有来自南非的狮子、澳大利亚的树袋熊、中国的大熊猫等；
3. 每年有很多人到此参观。
要求：
1. 语句通顺，语意连贯，可适当增加细节；
2. 70 词左右。



七年级英语 (人教版) 参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力
Ⅰ.1—5BCBCA
Ⅱ.6—10 BACBA
Ⅲ.11—15CBABB
Ⅳ.16. Friday 17. hall 18. wear 19. time 20. fight
评分标准：1—20题每小题1分。(16—20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情扣分。)
第二部分 英语知识运用
V.21—25 CDDDC 26—30BBBCC
评分标准：21—30题每小题1分。
Ⅵ.31—35CBCAD 36—40BDACB 41—45BACDA 46—50 BCDDC
评分标准：31—50题每小题1分。
Ⅶ.51—55 DFEAC
评分标准：51—55题每小题1分。
第三部分 阅读理解
Ⅷ.56—58 BCA 59—62CAAB 63—65ABD 66—69 BADD 70—72 DDC
73. She is thirteen/13 years ld.
74. It's 6 kilmeters.
75. He walks t wrk nw.
评分标准：56—75题每小题2分。(73—75题答对要点即可酌情给分。)
第四部分 写
.76. center 77. terrible 78. bats 79. wish 80. kill
评分标准：76—80题每小题1分。
X. One pssible versin:
Beijing Z is a very big z. It's in the Xicheng District. It is pen at 7:30 every mrning. The tickets sell at a gd price. There are abut 15,000 animals in the z. There are lins frm Suth Africa, kalas frm Australia, pandas frm China and s n. They are very cute. Every year many peple visit the z. If yu have time, please cme and visit it.
一、评分原则：
1. 本题总分20分，分五个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次，然后以档次的要求来衡量，结合内容和语言表达，综合给定分数。
3. 考生可根据要点适当发挥，加入自己的观点。
4. 词数少于60个单词，在总分当中扣除一分。
5. 拼写错误多以及书写差，影响表达，在所确定档次内扣除一分。
二、各档次的划分以及给分要求：
第五档(很好):(20~17分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务，涵盖了所有的内容要点，或在发挥时内容有新意有亮点，语言基本无错误，行文连贯，表达清楚。
第四档(好):(16~13分)
完成了试题规定的任务，涵盖了基本的内容要点，语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚。第三档(一般): (12~9分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务，写出了一些内容，语言有一些错误，行文不够连贯。
第二档 (较差):(8~5分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务，只能写出个别观点，语言错误较多，未能清楚表达信息。
第一档 (差):(4~0分)
未能完成试题规定的任务，只能写出有关内容的一些单词，语法错误很多，未能清楚表达信息。
试题解析
21. C 考查形容词。句意：生活在嘈杂的地方会让人感觉很糟糕。nisy 嘈杂的。
22. D 考查介词短语。句意：这个女孩处于危险中。让我们去帮助她。indanger 处于危险中。
23. D 考查副词。句意：——格林先生完成他的新工作了吗?—没有，他还需要更多的时间。still还，仍然。
24. D 考查名词。句意：艾瑞克家有一个很大的游泳池。他每天在里面游泳半个小时。pl游泳池。
25. C 考查时态。句意：—你每天早上都读英语吗? —是的，但是现在我正在读语文。根据“ nw…”可知此处表示正在进行的动作，用现在进行时。
26. B 考查特殊疑问句。句意：—每天骑自行车上学花费你多长时间? —大约40分钟。hwlng多长时间。
27. B 考查动词。句意：—你确定这是我们英语老师的红色小汽车吗?—是的。我经常看到她开着它去学校。drive 开车。
28. B 考查动词短语。句意：—打扰了，先生。我迷路了。你能帮我找到回家的路吗? —当然可以。get lst迷路。
29. C 考查不定式。句意：为了学好英语，他每天练习说英语。结合句意可知，用动词不定式作目的状语。
30. C 考查情景交际。句意：—打扰了。我怎么去邮局?——一直往前走，你就能找到了。Excuseme 打扰了。
31. C 考查名词。句意：让我告诉你一些关于动物的事。
32. B 考查动词。句意：它们喜欢白天睡觉。
33. C 考查名词。句意：晚上，它们起床吃树上的树叶。
34. A 考查名词。句意：看那边，高大的动物是长颈鹿。
35. D 考查形容词。句意：它们也是可爱美丽的动物。
36. B 考查常识。句意：狮子也来自非洲。
37. D 考查名词。句意：许多动物园喜欢海豚，因为它们非常聪明有趣。
38. A 考查名词。句意：它们生活在水里，所以它们能游得很好。
39. C 考查形容词。句意：它们真的很友好。
40. B 考查动词。句意：我们必须拯救它们。
41. B 考查形容词。句意：例如，他们不能迟到。
42. A 考查动词。句意：他们不能在走廊里跑，不能在课堂上吃东西。
43. C 考查名词。句意：所有这些规则都很好，因为它们是合理的。
44. D 考查动词。句意：例如，在她的学校，他们必须穿校服。
45. A 考查连词。句意：她认为牛仔裤很好，因为它们很舒服。
46. B 考查动词。句意：她认为在美术课上听音乐是可以的。
47 C 考查动词。句意：Selina在家也要遵守一些规则。
48. D 考查名词。句意：她必须先完成作业。
49. D 考查动词短语。句意：在上学的晚上，她不能和她的朋友出去。
50. C 考查形容词。句意：她不得不每周打扫她的房间，因为它很脏。
56. B 细节理解题。根据“ English”一栏的内容可知学习英语的地方是301教室。
57. C 推理判断题。根据“ Art”一栏的内容可知李老师教美术，因此可推测李老师可能擅长绘画。
58. A 细节理解题。根据表格内容可知周五有游泳和美术。
59. C 细节理解题。根据“ Between the secnd class and the third class, we have twenty minutes’ rest(休息).”可知，在第二节课和第三节课之间，我们有二十分钟的休息时间。
60. A 细节理解题。根据“ Sme bys are n the playgrund(操场). They are playing basketball.”可知, 一些男孩在操场上打篮球。
61. A 细节理解题。根据“ What are the teachers ding? Sme f them are wrking in the ffice. And sme are talking with students.”可知, 老师中的一些人在办公室工作, 一些正在和学生交谈。
62. B 细节理解题。根据“ Sme students are in the classrm. Mst f them are talking.”可知, 一些学生在教室里，他们中的大多数人都在说话。
63. A 细节理解题。根据“ Her husband(丈夫), David usually gets up at seven ’ clck. He is a science teacher.”可知，David 是一名科学老师。
64. B 细节理解题。根据“ But she lves her jb because she likes helping peple.”可知,她热爱她的工作,因为她喜欢帮助别人。
65. D 推理判断题。根据“ Usually Jane ges hme at six ’ clck in the evening”可知, Jane 通常在晚上六点钟回家。
66. B 细节理解题。根据第一段中的“ But yu can nly get tw bks nce(一次).”可知一次只能借两本书。
67. A 词义猜测题。结合常识可知，书读完应该归还给书店，故return 应意为“归还”。
68. D 细节理解题。根据第二段中的“ After they read bks, they must return them t the bkstres n time. Then they can get ne yuan as a reward(奖励).”可知按时归还书籍,可以获得一元钱奖励。
69. D 标题归纳题。通读全文可知文中主要介绍共享书店的出现及其运作模式。
70. D 细节理解题。根据第一段中的“ She’s reading a bk”可知, Dieg 的妈妈在看书。
71. D 代词指代题。根据题干前一句“ The stry in the bk is really interesting.”可知,书中的故事很有趣,所以 Anna正设法跟随这个有趣的故事。
72. C 细节理解题。根据短文中 Dieg对他妈妈说的话“I'm playing with yu, Mm!”可判断出, Dieg想与他妈妈一起玩耍。
听力部分录音文字稿
Ⅰ. 短对话理解(共5 小题； 每小题1 分，满分5分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: Is the lin yur favrite animal, Tina?
W: N. I like pandas best.
2. W: Is yur mther cleaning the kitchen, Bill?
M: N. She's making sup there.
3. W: Bb can play chess and Alice can dance. What abut yu, Jack?
M:I can draw pictures.
4. W: Mike, d yu usually g t wrk by bus?
M: N. I usually ride my bike.
5. W: Dad, are yu in the supermarket r at schl nw?
M:I'm watching TV at hme.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解(共5 小题； 每小题1 分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
W: Hell, Bill! What time d yu usually get up?
M: Hell, Sally! I usually get up at six twenty.
W: D yu take a shwer after getting up?
M: Yes, I d. I usually take a shwer at 6:30.
W: When d yu eat breakfast?
M: At abut 7:00.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至 10 小题。
W: Hw d yu get t schl, Tm?
M:I usually take a bus.
W: Hw far is it frm yur hme t schl?
M: It's abut 25 kilmeters.
W: Hw lng des it take yu t get t schl?
M: It takes 25 minutes by bus and 15 minutes by subway. Hw abut yu, Mary? Hw d yu get t schl?
W: My hme is nt far frm the schl. S I walk t schl every day.
Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5 小题； 每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
Hell!I'm Henry. I'm a teacher in a middle schl. I have a big family. Here's a pht f my family. In this pht, my mther is reading a newspaper. My father is listening t a CD. My grandfather and my grandmther are watching TV. My brther is playing with ur black dg. The dg is very smart. My brther likes animals very much. Our cute cat is under the bed. I'm cleaning the rm. My sister takes this pht fr us. What a happy family it is!
Ⅳ. 信息转换(共5 小题； 每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Hi, bys and girls! I have smething gd t tell yu. This Friday afternn, there is a bk sale in ur schl hall. There are many different kinds f bks at the bk sale. It's frm 3:00 pm t 5:00 pm. We can all g t the sale, but there are sme rules fr us t fllw:
All the students must wear a white T- shirt.
It's imprtant t be n time. Please arrive befre 2:30 pm.
There are a lt f students and teachers, s please dn't run r fight.A bk sale
When
3:00 pm~5:00 pm this _16_ afternn.
Where
In the schl _17_.
Rules
All the students must _18_ a white T- shirt.
It's imprtant t be n _19_.
Please dn't run r _20_.
English
Time: Mnday and Wednesday
5:00—6:00 in the afternn
Place: Classrm 301
Teacher: Dennis
Tel: 1895-3421
Swimming
Time: Friday
4:30—5:30 in the afternn
Place: swimming pl
Teacher: Mr. Zhang
Tel:6213-6726
Art
Time: Mnday and Friday
5:00—6:00 in the afternn
Place: art rm
Teacher: Miss Li
Tel:2816-3218
Dancing
Time: Tuesday and Thursday
4:30—5:30 in the afternn
Place: dancing club
Teacher: Miss Pan
Tel:3517-3587