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吉林省吉林市永吉县2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题
展开——七年级英语试卷——
(笔试总分:90分 答题时间:90分钟)
一、语言知识运用(共35分)
Ⅰ、单项选择 从每小题所给的三个选项中,选出一个正确答案。(10分)
1.—Anna is 11-year-ld girl and she can play guitar well.
A.a ; the B. an; the C. an ; /
2.—Where yur cusin ?
—He’s frm Changchun, China.
A.are ; frm B. is ; frm C. des ; cme
3. I can see ne and lts f in the picture.
A.cw; sheep B. sheep ; cw C. cws ; sheep
4.—When d yu usually get up weekends?
—I usually get up half past eight.
A.in ; at B. at ; in C. n; at
5.The apples are $10, and the bananas are $15. S yu need t $25 fr them.
A.pay B. spendC. take
6.There is n bridge n the river. Let’s crss it .
A.by bat B. by bike C. by schl bus
7.—Wuld yu like tea after lunch, Mr. Green?
—Srry, I dn’t have tea. But I have juice.
A.any ; sme B. any ; any C. sme ; any
8. run in the classrm, bys.
A.Can’t B. Dn’t C. Nt
9.—What are yu ding, Lucy?
— . I’m just washing my shes.
A.By car B. On the phne C. Nt much
10.— is the weather like tday?
—It’s windy. Let’s fly a kite.
A.What B. Hw C. Where
Ⅱ、完成对话,从方框中选择正确选项,其中有一个选项与对话内容无关。(5分)
A: Ben, yur neighbrhd is just like a garden (花园).
B: Yes. There are flwers and trees everywhere.
A:I want t g shpping. 11
B: Yes, there is. It’s nt far frm here.
A: 12
B: Sure, and I’m free nw.
A: 13 I have t get sme mney frm it.
B:It’s next t the supermarket.
A: Great! 14
B: We can walk there.
A:OK. 15
Ⅲ、补全对话 根据所给对话,在空缺处填写适当的内容,使其完整、正确。(10分)
A:D yu knw Liu Xiafei?
B: Liu Xiafei? 16 ?
A: She has lng straight black hair and wears glasses.
B: 17 ?
A: N, she is nt tall. She is f medium height. She ften wears a yellw sweater and white shes.
B: Des she always play ping-png after schl?
A: Yes, that’s her favrite. 18 ?
B: Yes, but I have never talked with her. She’s my deskmate’s cusin.
A: Really? She’s my new friend. D yu want t make friends with her?
B: Yes. 19 . We can play ping-png tgether.
A: Well, I will play ping-png with Liu Xiafei this afternn. 20 ?
B: Sure. That will be great!
Ⅳ、完形填空 根据短文内容,从每小题所给的三个选项中,选出一个正确答案。(5分)
Hell, everyne! My name is Dylan. I have a special friend. He is an ET (外星人).
The ET and I live tgether. I ften exercise with him every day. I enjy running. He 21 with me in the park every evening. I like reading very much. I ften tell him sme funny stries. D yu want t knw mre abut ur 22 ? Here it is.
On weekdays, we usually 23 at 6:50 in the mrning. We have breakfast at 7:20 and get t schl at 8:00. Our first class starts at 9:00. My favrite lessn is math. But 24 is English. At lunchtime, I eat a lt f nice fd with him. In the afternn, I have n classes.
At weekends, we play all day. I like playing with him 25 we can have a gd time.
D yu like the ET? Oh, I nearly frget ne thing. The ET is nly in my dream!But I really want a friend like him.
21. A. swim B. drawing C. runs
22. A. class B. life C. game
23. A. get up B. have dinner C. play sprts
24. A. mine B. her C. his
25. A. but B. because C. r
Ⅴ、短文填空 从方框中选择正确的选项完成短文,其中有两个选项是多余的。(10分)
I’m Jessie. I’m a student in an American schl. I always have a busy nice schl day.
I have classes fr five days every week. Frm 26 t Friday, I usually get up at 7:00 a. m. Then I put n my schl 27 and have breakfast. In my schl, students must 28 schl unifrms. I think it’s a gd rule. After breakfast, I g t schl n ft r take the yellw schl 29 . I always have a great time with my friends n the bus. I usually get t schl at 8:30 a. m.
Our class has sme class 30 . We have t put ur schlbags in ur lckers (储物柜) and take nly ne bk, a ntebk and a pencil t each class. We can’t 31 t music in class. And we can’t run in the 32 after class. At nn, we dn’t g hme fr lunch. We usually have lunch in the schl canteen (食堂). We ften have chicken and vegetables fr lunch. We can have a shrt break after lunch. And then we g back t have classes until 3:00 p. m. Then we g hme.
There 33 als sme family rules in my hme. I have t d 34 hmewrk after I get hme. Then I can play r watch TV befre dinner. I have dinner at six in the evening. After dinner, I d the 35 in the kitchen. Smetimes I play r talk with my parents at hme. I like these rules in my family.
二、阅读理解(共40分)
Ⅵ、根据所给材料,完成下列各题。(共40分)
(A)
Our neighbrhd is near the center f the city. It is very big, and it is quiet, clean and nice. Many peple live in the neighbrhd. There are many gardens. They are arund ur huses. S peple here think it’s a gd place t live. In the center f the neighbrhd, there is a big garden. Peple have a walk in it every day. Kids can play in it, t. There are pay phnes, a library, a supermarket, a market and restaurants in ur neighbrhd, t. The library is pen frm 8:00 am t 9:00 pm. Peple can read bks, watch vide tapes and learn new things in it. And peple can buy what they need in the supermarket and the market. If peple are hungry, they can g t the restaurants fr a meal.
D yu like ur neighbrhd?
(B)根据材料内容,选择正确的答案。(5分)
36. Our neighbrhd is .
A. small and dirty B. nice and quiet C. pen at 8:00 a.m. D. near the library
37. The neighbrhd is a gd place because .
A. it has many gardens B. it is a very big place
C. it is near a supermarket D. it is near the center f the city
38. Peple can’t in the library.
A. read bks B. learn new things C. buy things D. watch vide tapes
39. The writer nly tells the pen time f .
A. the library B. the restaurants C. the market D. the supermarket
40. The Chinese mean f the wrd “meal” is .
A.观光 B.休息 C.餐;饭 D.饮料
(B)
Tday many students have interesting weekends. D yu want t knw what they d n weekends? Let’s read sme students’ blgs (博客) and find ut what they did last weekend.
根据材料内容,选择正确的答案。(5分)
41. When did Eric have a basketball game?
A. On June 15th. B. On June 16th. C. On June 22nd. D. On June 23rd.
42. Why didn’t Tny g t the beach n Saturday?
A. Because he wanted t play cmputer games at hme.
B. Because he wanted t watch TV at hme.
C. Because he had t finish his hmewrk.
D. Because it started t rain that mrning.
43. Jenny did the fllwing things n June 23rd EXCEPT(除了) .
A. ging t the stry telling club B. watching a mvie
C. ging shpping D. cking dinner
44. What can we knw frm the material?
A. Eric’s team wn the basketball game in the end.
B. Tny will g t the beach with Dale next weekend.
C. It tk Jenny tw hurs t clean the huse.
D. Jenny’s father’s birthday is n June 24th.
45. The material(材料) is mainly abut .
A. hw sme students use the blg
B. what students can d fr their parents’ birthdays
C. hw sme students spent their weekends
D. what students like t talk abut in their blgs
(C)
I’m Betty. I’m an English girl and I live in Lndn, a great place t live. There are many interesting places here like stres, theaters(剧院), lts f sprts centers and a great library nly five minutes away frm my hme n ft. There are als sme bad things. Fr example, it takes me a lng time t g t schl every day. My hme is near a subway statin, but my schl isn’t. It’s abut thirty minutes’ walk frm the subway statin t my schl. And there is much pllutin (污染) here because there are t many cars and peple in streets. I lve meeting my friends n the weekend at skating rinks (滑冰场). We can have a gd time there.
This summer, I g t a small village t visit my cusin. I live there fr 50 days. At first, I dn’t like it. There is nly a stre and it is clsed in summer. But things get better and better (越来越好). I make many new friends every day. And the air is always gd. S I like the small village very much nw.
根据材料内容,判断下列句子正(T)误(F)。(5分)
46. Betty thinks Lndn is a great place t live.
47. Betty usually ges t schl by schl bus.
48. There is much pllutin in Lndn because there are many cars and peple.
49. Betty likes the small village nw because she lives there fr a lng time.
50. Betty’s cusin lives in Lndn,t.
(D)
Hell, everyne! Welcme t ur schl. Nw yu are students f a middle schl. 51 The life here is a little different. I think yu must knw what yu can d and what yu can’t d. It can help yu study well and live happily. 52 Yu have t cme t schl frm Mnday t Friday. Yu have t wear ur schl unifrms n schl days. Yu will learn sme imprtant subjects, such as Chinese, math, English, gegraphy and histry. Classes begin at 7: 30. 53 Then yu have t have lunch in the schl dining hall. 54 Classes are ver at 4: 30 in the afternn and then yu can jin yur favrite clubs t have fun. There are a lt f clubs in ur schl like the sprts club. Yu can d sprts n the playgrund, but yu can’t play with balls r run in the classrm and hallways. Yu must fllw these rules. 55 Thank yu.
根据短文内容,将下面方框内的选项还原到文中空缺处,使短文内容完整、通顺,每个选项只能用一次,其中有一个选项是多余的。(5分)
( E )
The weekend is the time t relax. It’s a mini-hliday frm wrk. There are nly tw days, but yu can still relax in several different ways.
56 Yu can sit fr a few hurs and watch yur favrite TV shw. Yu can als see a mvie if yu’d like t.
57 On the weekend, climbing a muntain can be a great way t get sme exercise. And yu can als enjy the natural beauty.
58 It can be difficult t see yur friends during the wrk week. A nice way t relax n the weekend is t be with yur friends.
59 Spending time with yur family is a great way t spend yur weekend. Yu can take a trip t the lake r just t the ice-cream shp.
60 Fr sure there are many ther ways, fr example (例如), ging t the museum, ging t the z and sleeping. Yu can d yur favrite t relax.
(a)根据短文内容,从方框中选出每段的主旨大意,有一个选项多余。(5分)
(b)根据短文内容,补全下面的语段,每空一词。(5分)
Hw t Have a 61 Weekend
Spend sme time 62 a TV shw r seeing a mvie. Climbing 63 can be a great way t get sme exercise and enjy the natural beauty. Be with yur 64 . Take a trip with yur 65 . Yu can d yur favrite t relax.
( F )
The weekend schedule
The Smith family is a big family. They always have things t d and they live a happy life. This weekend, they have sme special plans. They will help grandma celebrate her 80th birthday. Let’s lk at what they d!
根据材料内容,回答下列问题。(10分)
66. What d the Smith family plan t d this weekend?
67. Wh wants t wrk n a science prject?
68. Where can we see the family n Sunday evening?
69. What d Jenny and Kelly want t d n Sunday afternn?
70.Will The family feel happy this weekend?
三、写作(15分)
Ⅶ、根据要求,完成写作。(15分)
七年级的学习生活即将结束,在这一年的初中生活中,老师是我们学习路上的指路人,请你以“My Favurite Teacher”为题,根据下面提示信息,写一篇短文介绍一位你印象深刻的老师。
提示:
1. Wh is yur favurite teacher?
2. What des he/she lk like?
3. Why is he/she yur favurite teacher?
参考词汇:tall, kind, warm-hearted, help… (t) d…
要求:
1. 内容包含所给提示信息,可适当发挥;
2. 语句通顺,语意连贯,符合逻辑,书写规范,不少于80词。
3. 文章中不得出现任何个人的真实信息(姓名、校名和地名等)
My Favurite Teacher
2023—2024学年度第二学期期末教学质量检测
——七年级英语参考答案——
Ⅰ、1—5:BBACA 6—10:ACBCA
Ⅱ、11—15:EABCD
Ⅲ、16.What des she lk like? 17. Is she tall? 18. D yu knw her?
19.(And) I like playing ping-png, t.
20. D yu want t g with me?/ Wuld yu like t jin us? / D yu want t play with us?
Ⅳ、21—25:CBACB
Ⅴ、26—30:BAJEF 31—35:DHLKC
Ⅵ、(A)36—40:BACAC (B)41—45:CDCAC
(C)46—50:TFTFF (D)51—55:EFADC
( E )56—60:EDCAB 61. Relaxing 62. watching 63. muntains 64. friends 65.family
( F )66. They plan t celebrate grandma’s 80th birthday.
67. Jenny. 68.At the cinema. 69. They want t study (math). 70. Yes, they will.
Ⅶ、One pssible versin:
My Favurite Teacher
My favurite teacher is Mr. Li. His is my English teacher. He cmes frm Changchun. He is tall and kind. Sprts and music are his favurite hbbies. He is very strict with us in English.
Here are sme reasns that I like him. Fr me, he is warm-hearted. Abut tw years ag, Mr. Li g nticed that I was wrried abut my pr prnunciatin. S he ffered me many suggestins t imprve it, and he als gave me every pssible chance t speak in class. With his help, my prnunciatin has greatly imprved. Nw, he is nt nly my teacher but als my best friend.
In a wrd, I will never frget my English teacher.
评分档次及标准:
第五档:圆满地完成了规定的写作任务,包含所有要求的内容要点,结构完整,语言流畅,思路清晰,逻辑性强。使用较为丰富的句子结构和词汇,没有语法、词汇、大小写和标点错误,格式正确,书写规范工整。(14-15分)。
第四档:很好地完成了规定的写作任务,基本包含要求的内容要点,结构较为完整,语言较为流畅,意思清楚。语法、词汇、大小写和标点错误控制在3个以内,格式基本正确,书写较为规范工整。(11—13分)
第三档:基本完成了规定的写作任务,包含主要内容要点,但结构欠完整,少数语句不通顺,意思表达基本清楚。语法、词汇、大小写和标点错误控制在6个以内,格式基本正确,书写基本规范。(8—10分)
第二档:未能按要求完成规定的写作任务,只包含少数内容要点,结构不完整,多数语句欠完整,意思不够清楚。语法、词汇、大小写和标点错误较多,影响理解,格式不够正确,书写欠规范。(5—7分)
第一档:未能按要求完成规定的写作任务,只写出个别要点,结构不完整,多数语句不完整或意思不明,语法、词汇、大小写和标点错误很多,书写混乱。(0—4分)
说明:1.不足80词数酌情扣分(原则每少7个词扣1分);
2.文中出现的语法、词汇、标点、大小写等错误,每处扣0.5分。
A. D yu want t g with me?
B. By the way, where is the bank?
C. Hw can we get there?
D. We can enjy the beautiful flwers and trees n the way.
E. Is there a supermarket arund here?
F. That sunds gd.
A.unifrms B.Mnday C.dishes D.listen E.bus F.rules
G.Saturday H.hallways I.subway J.wear K.my L.are
Eric
June 22nd, Saturday Cludy
What an exciting Saturday I had! I had a basketball game with the team Center City. The players n the team are all tall and strng. And they are really gd at playing basket- ball. But we als did a great jb. At last, we wn (赢得) the game.
Tny
June 15th, Saturday Rainy
My classmate Dale asked me t g t the beach this mrning. But it started t rain after breakfast. I just watched a bring TV shw at hme. Luckily, I played cmputer games with my brther. In fact (事实上), I wanted t play utside. S I plan t g t the beach tmrrw and I wish that it will nt rain tmrrw.
Jenny
June 23rd, Sunday Sunny
I had a busy Sunday. In the mrning, I went t the stry telling club t learn hw t write stries fr tw hurs. Then I came hme and helped my mm clean the huse. In the late afternn, I cked dinner with my mm fr my father. D yu knw why? It was my father’s birthday. In the evening, my parents and I went t the mvies after dinner.
A. Yu have fur classes in the mrning.
B. Yu can listen t music everywhere.
C. I really hpe (希望) yu will have a happy life here.
D. And yu can’t eat in the classrm.
E. All the things here are new.
F. Here are sme rules f ur schl.
A. Family time B. Other ways t relax C. Visit yur friends
D. G t the muntains E. Start a new TV shw r a new mvie F. Have a picnic
FRIDAY
SATURDAY
SUNDAY
Mrning:
◆Mm—pick up gifts and cards fr grandma
Mrning:
◆Mm—make breakfast
◆Dad—clean the kitchen and bedrms
◆Mm and Dad—buy grceries (食品杂货) at a supermarket
◆Jenny—wrk n a science prject
◆Kelly—d English hmewrk
Mrning:
◆Sign grandma’s cards
◆Jenny and Kelly— wrap grandma’s gifts
◆Birthday brunch with grandma
Afternn:
◆Dad—mail letters
Afternn:
◆Watch a basketball match
Afternn:
◆Jenny and Kelly— study math
Evening:
◆Jenny—swimming lessns
◆Kelly—dance lessns
Evening:
◆Jenny and Kelly—g ut with friends (at Sarah’s huse)
Evening:
◆g t the mvies
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