[英语]2024年安徽省中考真题

这是一份[英语]2024年安徽省中考真题，共13页。

你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What des Jhn like?
A. B. C.
2. What are the speakers prbably ging t d?
A. B. C.
3. Wh brke the glass?
A. Tm. B. The cat. C. Tm's mther.
4. Where can the wman get a new student card?
A. At the service center. B. In the dining hall. C. In the ffice building.
5. What is the man?
A. An fficer. B. A waiter. C. A farmer.
II. 长对话理解（共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题, 请在每小题所给的A、 B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话, 回答第 6、7题。
6. When did the man make his first speech?
A. Last week. B. Last mnth. C. Last year.
7. Hw did the man feel at first?
A. Excited. B. Nervus. C. Surprised.
听下面一段对话, 回答第8 至10题。
8. What is the wman's dream?
A. T be an actress. B. T be a writer. C. T be a dctr.
9. Why did the man change his dream?
A. He likes reading bks.
B. Writing makes him happy.
C. He wrks fr a newspaper.
10. What will the man prbably d next mnth?
A. Visit a primary schl.
B. Give a talk abut future.
C. Take part in a cmpetitin.
III. 短文理解（共5 小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题, 请根据短文内容, 在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. Where des the speaker's father prbably wrk?
A. In a car factry. B. In a schl. C. In a bk stre.
12. Hw lng des it take the speaker t g t schl by car?
A. Abut 20 minutes. B. Abut 30 minutes. C. Abut 40 minutes.
13. Why des the speaker like math?
A. Because f the speaker's teacher.
B. Because f the speaker's mther.
C. Because f the speaker's father.
14. What d the speaker and the father usually d at the weekend?
A. Ck dinner. B. G t the library. C. Enjy music.
15. What des the speaker express in the end?
A. Interest. B. Pride. C. Thanks.
IV. 信息转换（共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容, 写出下面表格中所缺的单词, 每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分语言知识运用（共三大题, 满分35分）
V. 单项填空（共 10 小题; 每小题 1分, 满分 10分）
从每小题所给的A、 B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. —Art serves as a_____________ between different natins.
—Yes. It really helps crss-cultural cmmunicatin.
A. river B. wall C. palace D. bridge
22. In summer, the trees we planted in the schl are_____________ with green leaves.
A. thick B. sft C. clear D. light
23. With its famus muntains, lakes, and twns, Anhui has s much t_____________ turists.
A. guard B. ffer C. push D. cst
24. There can be sme truble at the beginning, but things will_____________ well in the end.
A. break up B. give up C. set ut D. tum ut
25. —Culd yu tell us_____________ we can start a cnversatin with a freigner?
—Talking abut weather is a gd chice.
A. hw B. whether C. why D. when
26. —Excuse me, may I use yur dictinary? I_____________ mine behind.
—Sure. Here yu are.
A. leave B. have left C. will leave D. was leaving
27. —Yur grandpa climbed the hill s_____________ that I culdn't keep up with him.
—He takes exercise every day.
A. quickly B. difficultly C. patiently D. differently
28. —There is still a lng way t g_____________ we finish the task.
—Dn't wrry. Let's g n with it tgether.
A. as lng as B. as sn as C. befre D. because
29. The 2024 Paris Olympic Games_____________ this July. Dn't miss it.
A. hlds B. will hld C. is held D. will be held
30. —The Natinal Museum f China is just five minutes' walk away. We dn't have t take a taxi.
—_____________We can g there n ft.
A. My pleasure. B. Take care. C. That's right! D. Gd luck!
VI. 完形填空（共20小题; 每小题1分, 满分20分）
阅读下列短文, 从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Pets aren't just a fun member f the family. They are als gd fr yur health and happiness.
Peple with pets are mre likely（可能的）t be 31 Playing with a cat r taking a dg fr daily 32 arund the garden gets yu mving yur bdy, and ut in the fresh air t.
Spending time with yur pet helps yu get 33 . Talking t yur pet abut yur wrries can make yu feel cmfrtable and helps yu feel 34 . When yu're with yur pet, yu can let g f prblems 35 yu give them yur full attentin.
Having an animal in the family helps yu learn new 36 , like hw t teach them t understand rders, such as "Sit" r "Lie dwn". 37 games t play with them allws yu t practice being creative. Learning hw t 38 pets, understanding what they want and making sure that they live 39 , teaches yu t understand thers' feelings. Pets can als help yu get t knw ther dg wners n walks, r help yu becme 40 with them when yu tell funny stries abut yur pets.
31. A. active B. careful C. useful D. mdern
32. A. tests B. talks C. shwers D. walks
33. A. tired B. tuched C. relaxed D. bred
34. A. pruder B. better C. wiser D. cuter
35. A. even if B. as C. as if D. unless
36. A. skills B. languages C. cultures D. spirits
37. A. Watching B. Attending C. Inventing D. Winning
38. A. wake up B. search fr C. depend n D. lk after
39. A. quietly B. happily C. lazily D. busily
40. A. friends B. relatives C. trainers D. members
B
Traditinal Chinese medicine（TCM）is magic t me. My interest in it came frm my 41 . Years ag, I ften had headaches, and my life was seriusly influenced. I 42 many different methds. Hwever, nne f them 43 . Luckily, I met with a dctr f TCM during my trip in China. He advised me t take sme Chinese medicine. S I did. T my surprise, my 44 was gne within a week.
Later, I fund that TCM culd be f great help t sme 45 lasting fr a lng time, such as sleeping prblems r physical pains. The 46 methds in TCM als tk my wife's interest. With her 47 . I'm running a website t intrduce TCM. I want t help peple understand that if they have sme 48 prblems, they can try TCM.
All these experiences with TCM led me t 49 ancient Chinese philsphy（哲学）, fr many f TCM ideas, such as yin and yang, and qi, were 50 inspired（启发）by it. Since then, I have stepped nt the rad t learning abut Chinese culture.
41. A. habit B. educatin C. service D. experience
42. A. reprted B. tried C. kept D. taught
43. A. wrked B. started C. failed D. appeared
44. A. wealth B. curage C. chance D. pain
45. A. illnesses B. hbbies C. prjects D. abilities
46. A. expensive B. helpful C. scial D. blind
47. A. check B. wrry C. supprt D. dubt
48. A. health B. fd C. family D. jb
49. A. drp B. write C. study D. create
50. A. recently B. rapidly C. suddenly D. directly
VII. 补全对话（共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
根据对话内容, 从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项, 其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Gd afternn. Hw can I help yu?
B: Hell. 51
A: Are yu thinking abut a bus tur r a bat tur?
B: A bus tur. 52
A: Outside the htel.
B: Oh, perfect. 53
A: At 6 ' clck in the mrning. The bus leaves every hur.
Here's sme mre infrmatin.
B: Thank yu. 54
A: Yu dn't have t. Yu can just wait utside the htel.
B: Gt it. 55 Thank yu very much.
A: Yu' re welcme. Enjy yur tur!
第三部分阅读（共两节, 满分40分）
VIII. 阅读理解（共20 小题; 每小题2分, 满分40分）
第一节阅读下列短文, 从每小题所给的A、B、C、 D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
※ Ntes: 1. register（登记）2. cntact（联系）
56. When is the Celebratin?
A. On Sunday. B. On Mnday. C. On Wednesday. D. On Friday.
57. At what age can a child jin in Safety Arund Water Prgram?
A. 6. B. 8. C. 10. D. 12.
58. What can we learn abut Gensn DPE?
A. It keeps pen all year rund. B. It teaches life-saving skills.
C. It prvides free prgrams fr all. D. It has tw prgrams every day.
B
It's always a gd thing t have a hbby. Fr Miss Patty, a schl bus driver in Erie Cunty, her hbby f knitting（编织）has made her really tuch the cmmunity.
Miss Patty always wanted t d smething with her spare time t help the students. After a cnversatin with ne f the students, things tk a turn frm knitting ne hat t knitting mre hats.
"The ne by gets n the bus, and he ges ‘what are yu ding? I said,’ I'm making a hat. He said, ‘That wuld be great having such a warm hat in icy winter.’ S I said, ‘What clr wuld yu like?’ That started everything," Miss Patty tld the lcal newspaper.
Several years have passed since that day, and Miss Patty has already knitted 7, 083 hats fr students in her spare time. Smetimes she will get the student's favrite clr befre she begins the prject.
What is mre mving is that Miss Patty buys all the materials（材料）using her wn mney. Sme peple d give her gift cards arund the hlidays t help, but she still puts ut a lt f her wn mney.
Alng with making hats fr the students that will keep them warm, Miss Patty als gets praise fr being a trusted friend t the students.
59. What made Miss Patty decide t knit mre hats?
A. A drive t Erie Cunty. B. A shw f clrful hats.
C. A letter in the newspaper. D. A cnversatin with a by.
60. Why des Miss Patty knit s many hats in her spare time?
A. T practice her skill. B. T better her business.
C. T make mre friends. D. T gift students fr winter.
61. What makes Miss Patty's act mre mving?
A. She refuses thers' help.
B. She buys materials with her wn mney.
C. She wrks during hlidays.
D. She knits hats f different clrs fr kids.
62. Which f the fllwing best describes Miss Patty?
A. Humrus. B. Hnest. C. Caring. D. Shy.
C
During their busy lives, peple d nt pay much attentin t the expiry dates（有效期）n the fd in their fridges. As a result, a lt f fd is frgtten abut and wasted. Hwever, accrding t a recent research, being aware f（意识到）what yu thrw away can help yu waste less.
The researchers measured（计量）fd waste frm 154 families acrss the UK. Half f these families in the research were asked t list the fruits and vegetables they had bught and their expiry dates. The families stuck the list n the fridge dr and received a text message every day telling them t check it. The ther half did nt have t make a list and did nt receive text messages. Over a six-week perid, all the families were asked t measure their fd waste at the end f each week.
The researchers were surprised t find that making lists and getting texts made little difference t hw much fd was wasted. Hwever, each family in the research wasted less fd—abut 0.1 kil a week.
The researchers carried n the research fr six mnths, and fund that all the families cntinued t waste less fd. This shws that just measuring fd waste encurages peple t pay clser attentin t it and thrw less away.
63. What des the underlined wrd "it" in paragraph 2 refer t（指的是）?
A. The research. B. The list. C. The dr. D. The message.
64. What is intrduced in paragraph 3 abut the six-week research?
A. Its purpse. B. Its methd. C. Its steps. D. Its results.
65. Which f the fllwing is the best title（标题）fr the text?
A. Measure Fd Waste t Stp It B. Pay Attentin t What Yu Buy
C. Check the Fd Befre String It D. Give Thught t Yur Busy Life
D
If yu get angry many times in a day, it is time fr yu t think abut hw t deal with it. Here are sme f my suggestins.
When yu are angry, try t tell yurself thrugh anther vice that yu are angry and that it is nt a bad thing. It just shws that yu have different ideas. Accept that many things are nt 100% right r wrng. In ur cmmunicatin with thers, the final purpse is nt t decide wh is right and wh is wrng, but t lk fr smething in cmmn.
If yu still feel strng anger, try taking a deep breath（呼吸）and let anger ut f yur bdy alng with the breath. Dn't say angry wrds when yu are very angry, fr yu will regret saying them when yu cl dwn.
Discussing with a third party is helpful. It is hard fr the tw parties in anger t understand each ther, but the idea f an utsider can help bth parties t get mutual（相互的）understanding.
Anger is just ne f the many emtins（情绪）that make us human, and t well manage it adds t ur ability t truly understand the wrld.
66. What is the final purpse f cmmunicatin with ther peple?
A. T shw different ideas. B. T lk fr smething in cmmn.
C. T accept useful suggestins. D. T decide whether ne is right r nt.
67. What des the writer advise us t d when we can't cl dwn?
A. Say angry wrds. B. Try taking a deep breath.
C. Cntrl ur vices. D. Stp talking with thers.
68. What des the underlined wrd "party" in paragraph 4 mean?
A. An activity. B. A visitr. C. A persn. D. A meeting.
69. What is the text mainly abut?
A. Hw t manage anger. B. Hw t shw feelings.
C. Hw t deal with regrets. D. Hw t understand the wrld.
E
Dennis Hng and his students design（设计）human-like rbts. This includes a cking rbt called Prject YORI. YORI is nly the latest f Hng's rbt inventins. There's DAVID, the wrld's first and nly car that can be driven by the blind. And SAFFiR, a tw-legged rbt that can d dangerus wrk that humans are ften unable t d. Hng is finding plenty f wrk fr his rbts.
When he was asked abut his biggest success, Hng chse the rbt called DARwIn-OP. He thught it was ne f the mst widely used human-like rbts fr research and educatin. Hng's team made DARwIn's design free fr anyne t use. They have seen many prjects using the design. And they cnsider it a gift t the rbtics cmmunity.
"Many peple nly want t see ur successes and nt the failures that came befre thse, but failure is simply a stepping stne in develping new technlgy. If yu're t afraid f failure, then yu nly get t walk n the safer side, and then there's n innvatin（创新）," said Hng. "I tell my students t try breaking the rbt. If the rbt desn't fall and desn't break, we dn't get t learn anything."
70. Which rbt is the mst recent inventin by Dennis Hng's team?
A. YORI. B. DAVI D. C. SAFFiR. D. DARwIn-OP.
71. What is special abut DARwin accrding t the text?
A. Its technlgy is the latest. B. It is a ppular rbt fr the blind.
C. It is the first human-like rbt. D. Its design is free fr anyne t use.
72. What des Dennis Hng encurage his students t d?
A. Walk n the safer side. B. D mre fr educatin.
C. Keep trying and learning. D. Avid making mistakes.
第二节 阅读下面短文, 并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）.
F
My family has always had family dinners, as far as I can remember. Since I was a little by, my mther has insisted（坚持）that we attend family dinners at least nce a week. Every Sunday, my mther wuld prepare a lt f fd and bring it t my grandma's huse. We wuld wait fr mre family members t cme befre eating tgether at the table, my grandma's dinner table.
I used t feel that was a silly little traditin. But nw I find it's fantastic t get tgether as a family t talk abut anything and everything after a lng week f schl and wrk. Every time I sit at the dinner table, my grandma's dinner table, I lk arund and find s many peple wh truly lve me. It's a lve that feels s gd. Fr me, dinner is nt just a meal, but a chance t recnnect with each ther.
I finally realize the true meaning f this traditin. It's nt abut the dinners r activities. It's abut family, a grup f peple wh care abut each ther. All the memries（记忆）arund my grandma's dinner table will last frever.
Nw, I'm always expecting Sunday t arrive.
73. Hw ften d the writer's family members get tgether fr dinner?（不超过5个词）
_______________________________________________________________________________
74. What des dinner mean t the writer?（不超过10个词）
_______________________________________________________________________________
75. Why is "my grandma's dinner table" mentined several times in the text?（不超过10个词）
_______________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写（共两大题, 满分25分）
IX. 单词拼写（共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示, 完成下列单词的拼写, 使句意明确, 语言通顺。
76. The lake area is r_______________（丰富）in wildlife and draws lts f peple.
77. My teacher's wrds in the last lessn filled my h_______________（心）with warmth.
78. Every t_______________（学期）is a new beginning fr all the students and teachers.
79. J had her first t_______________（品尝）f Anhui cuisine（Huicai）during her travel in Huangshan.
80. The Shenzhu-17 team h_______________（交）ver their wrk t the Shenzhu—18 team n April 30th.
X. 书面表达（共1小题; 满分20分）
假设你是李辉, 上周你在学校举行的“消防安全日”活动中学会了灭火器的使用方法。请结合下图信息, 写一篇英语短文, 给校英文报投稿。
要点:
1. 活动目的:
2. 灭火器的使用方法;
3. 你的体会。
注意:
1. 短文须包含上述要点, 可适当增加细节,
以使行文连贯:
2. 文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称;
3. 词数80~100（首句已为你写好, 不计入总词数）。
Last week, ur schl carried ut Fire Safety Day activities. _______________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
【参考答案】
第一部分 听力
I—II. 1~5 CCAAB 6~10 BAABC 11~15 BACBC
IV. 16. share 17. kind 18. needs 19. sense 20. urselves
评分标准: 1~20 题每小题1分。16~20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情给分。
第二部分 语言知识运用
V. 21~25 DABDA 26~30 BACDC
评分标准: 21～30 题每小题 1分。
VI. 31~35 ADCBB 36~40 ACDBA 41~45 DBADA 46~50 BCACD
评分标准: 31~50 题每小题1分。
VII. 51~55 GEDCA
评分标准: 51~55 题每小题 1分。
第三部分 阅读
VIII. 56~58 ADB 59~62 DDBC 63~65 BDA 66~69 BBCA 70~72 ADC
73. At least nce a week. /Every Sunday.
74. It is a chance t recnnect with each ther.
75. Because it is the place full f family lve.
评分标准: 56~75题每小题2分。
73~75题的答案使用完整或简略形式均可。能答出关键词语即可给分。所提供的答案仅供参考, 其它不同答案由各市酌情处理。其中第75题具有一定的开放性, 考生可从主题意义或写作手法等方面作答。
第四部分
IX. 76. rich 77. heart 78. term7 9. taste 80. handed
评分标准: 76~80题每小题1分。单词的首字母已在答题卡上给出, 如考生从单词书写的完整性考虑, 重新书写了首字母, 不扣分。
X. One pssible versin
Last week, ur schl carried ut Fire Safety Day activities. The purpse was t draw ur attentin t fire safety. Amng the activities, hw t use a fire extinguisher interested me mst.
When we use a fire extinguisher, we shuld first shake it after picking it up, and then pull ff the safety pin quickly. As sn as we pint the tube at the rt f the fire, we are expected t press dwn n the handle until we put ut the fire. During the perid, we shuld be careful enugh nt t get hurt.
Frm the activities I've learned a lt and realized the imprtance f fire safety.
It's imprtant t learn hw t 16
Reasns
It helps us t make friends.
●t help thers t feel cared abut
●t shw that we are 17 and friendly
It teaches us hw t be fair.
●t think abut the 18 f ther peple and yur wn
It gives us a 19 f purpse.
●t d smething meaningful fr thers
●t make us feel gd abut 20
A. I'll just wait there.
B. Hw abut the price?
C. D I have t bk a seat?
D. When is the earliest bus?
E. Where shall I get n the bus?
F. I've enjyed the city very much.
G. I'd like t g n a tur f the city.
WATER SAFETY FOR ALL
Gensn DPE teaches life-saving skills FOR ALL. Jin us in July fr Family Water Safety Educatin and ur yearly Safety Arund Water Prgram.
Family Water Safety Educatin
Time: 5:30~7:30 p. m. FREE fr DPE members
Mnday, July 8: Reach r Thrw, Dn't G Cmmunity: $10 a day fr a family
Wednesday, July 10: Life Jackets and Bating
Friday, July 12: Open Swim Parent MUST be in the pl!
Sunday, July 14: Celebratin!
Safety Arund Water Prgram
Time: 4:45~5:15 p. m. Fr children aged 11~14
5:30~6:00 p. m. REGISTER NOW
6:15~6:45 p. m. GensnDPE. cm
July 22~25, 2024 Cntact: Andy Markham
Email: andy@gensndpe.cm