52，河北省保定市唐县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题

这是一份52，河北省保定市唐县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题，共9页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

注意事项：1.本试卷共 8页，总分120分，含卷面分5分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡相应位置上。
3.答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
听力部分
Ⅰ.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
1. A. everythingB. anythingC. everyday
2.
3. A. plan a tripB. play a partC. plant a tree
4. A. sitcmsB. cmediesC. actin mvies
5. A. Maybe they are having a class.B. Maybe they are playing a game.
C. Maybe they are shpping.
Ⅱ.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
6. A. Nt at all.B. Thanks a lt.C. Sunds great.
7. A. Sure, with pleasure.B. Yes, yu can.C. N, I dn t.
8. A. I’d like the juice.B. Milk, please.C. Yes, I like milk.
9. A. It’s 8:30 clck.B. Rbert.C. N prblem.
10. A. What shuld I d t pen the dr?B. Wuld yu mind my pening the dr?
C. Hw can I ask thers t pen the dr?
Ⅲ.听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共8 小题，每小题1分，计8分）
11. What des Ben want t be in the future?
A. B. C.
12. When did Mike sing a sng in the party?
A. B. C.
13. What’s Tm ding?
A. He is ding his hmewrk.B. He is watching TV.C. He is drawing.
14. Wh will cme t Tm’s huse this evening?
A. Tm’s grandma.B. Tm’s grandpa.C. Tm’s grandparents.
15. What des Tm’s mther ask him t d at last?
A. T clean the bathrm.B. T clean the car.C. T clean his rm.
16. When will they g t the mvie theater?
A. This Friday evening.B. This Saturday evening.C. This Sunday afternn.
17. Hw many tickets des the man want?
A. Tw.B. Three.C. Fur.
18. Hw much shuld the man pay fr the tickets?
A.50￥B.60￥C.40￥
Ⅳ.听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题，每小题1分，计7分）
19. What did Dave want t be when he grw up?
A. A dctr.B. A teacher.C. A cleaner.
20. Hw many days did cleaners wrk a week?
A. Only ne day.B. Fur days.C. Five days.
21. Hw lng will the students stay in Lndn?
A. Tw weeks.B. Tw mnths.C. Tw years.
22. Why shuld the students wear red shirts?
A. The students’ schl unifrm is red.B. It’s easy fr the family t find them.
C. English peple like red best.
23. What will the students need t take?
A. Fur phts and a schl letter.B. Fur phts and a telephne number.
C. A red shirt and a schl letter.
24. What can the students d if they have any prblems?
A. E-mail Mrs. Green.B. Ask their friends fr help.C. Call Leech Schl ffice.
25. What is the speaker talking abut?
A. Hw t stay with a family in Lndn.
B. Smething imprtant fr everyne t Lndn next mnth.
C. Hw t slve their prblems.
V.听短文填空（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
笔试部分
Ⅵ.单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31.- Culd yu tell me the ______ between the tw pictures?
- Srry, but I think they lk the same.
A. differenceB. clrC. heightD. name
32.-Many peple will lse their jbs in the future. D yu knw why?
-Because rbts will ______ in many places.
A. g t a dctrB. keep a diaryC. play a rleD. take a trip
33.- Jiang Bin, I want t travel t China, can I learn Chinese well?
- Of curse. As lng as yu take it ______.
A. cheaplyB. cmfrtablyC. quietlyD. seriusly
34. Yu wn’t be gd at English ______ yu practice mre.
A. unlessB. thughC. becauseD. if
35. Thank yu, Tm, I culd nt get this gd result ______ yur help.
A. betweenB. withutC. duringD. thrugh
36. Playing TIKTOK（抖音）______ a lt f yur time. It is bad fr yur health.
- I wn’t play it anymre. I prmise that I will imprve my physical health.
A. takes upB. makes upC. stays upD. grws up
37. It may be ______ buy a new cmputer because we really need it in ur wrk.
A. pssible frB. similar tC. necessary tD. ready fr
38.- I am t tired t mve. - It is ______ t feel tired after such a lng trip.
A. nrmalB. rightC. gdD. crazy
39. Ms. Miller is an English teacher with 30 years’ teaching ______, s she teaches English very well.
A. adviceB. experienceC. discussinD. reslutin
40.- Will there be wrld peace? - ______
A. Yes, I hpe s.B. Really? Hw cme?C. Oh, it is fantastic.D. Yes, there are.
Ⅶ.完型填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Quan Hngchan cmes frm a pr village in Guangdng prvince. 41 she is nly 15, she is a fantastic diver. Her parents are bth farmers. She was 42 swimming when she was a child. Why did Quan Hngchan want t be a player? Because she wanted t win prizes as 43 as pssible t help her seriusly sick mther. At the Tky Olympics, she 44 a gld（金的）medal in the wmen’s 10m platfrm cmpetitin. Nw she’s my favrite 45 star. In fact, she is shrter and 46 than ther kids. But she is always mre hard-wrking. She 47 her health, s she has gd 48 . She ften has sme milk and an egg fr breakfast. Fr lunch, she usually eats rice with beef. She als eats sme fruit. Fr dinner, she enjys eating ndles and carrts. She 49 eats junk fd because it’s bad fr her health. All in all, tday’s Quan Hngchan is a gd 50 fr children t fllw.
41. A. ButB. WhenC. BefreD. Althugh
42. A. different frmB. similar tC. talented inD. gd with
43. A. earlierB. earlyC. laterD. late
44. A. wnB. brughtC. reachedD. shared
45. A. singingB. mvieC. sprtsD. dancing
46. A. lazyB. lazierC. thinD. thinner
47. A. writes dwnB. takes upC. cares abutD. feels like
48. A. eating habitsB. exerciseC. gradesD. shws
49. A. smetimesB. hardly everC. alwaysD. ften
50. A. exampleB. instructinC. resultD. grade
Ⅷ.阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，计30分）
阅读A、B、C、D 四篇材料， 然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Sarah, aged 10: I think we will find life n ther planets.
Lisa, aged 11: There is life n ther planets. I’d like t take my three cats with me and travel t space by spaceship（宇宙飞船）.
Ricky, aged 9: I think if we all ride bikes, we will help fight pllutin in the wrld. And maybe we can build a mnrail（单轨铁路）t g arund the city.
Carls, aged 11: If New Yrk City keeps ging the way it is, things will be wrse. The city will be mre crwded, with mre cars, wrse air, mre litter（垃圾）, fewer pen and green spaces. We need t take care f ur city and make it better and cleaner.
Sabrina, aged 12: In the year 2050, my city, New Yrk City, will be the best living place. Peple will keep their hmes warm in a different but green way. Fr example, they will make use f slar pwer（太阳能）. Many peple will g t space camps t get ready fr space living.
51. What des Carls care abut in New Yrk City?
A. The educatin.B. The culture.C. The space.D. The envirnment.
52. Sabrina is ______ the future f New Yrk City.
A. wrried abutB. hpeful abutC. afraid fD. interested in
53. What is the passage mainly abut?
A. Hw t prtect the envirnment.B. Hw t fight pllutin.
C. What the life in the future will be like.D. What life in New Yrk City is like.
B
Mr. Rbin（知更鸟）had his huse in a tree.
His fur baby rbins lived in it. They grew very fast. Sn the huse was t small fr them.
“It is time fr yu t fly,” said Mr. Rbin.
“Oh, we can nt fly”, said the baby rbins. “Yu can, if yu try,” said Mr. Rbin. A rbin tried. He flew int a tree.
“Oh, hw interesting!” said the little rbin. “I like t fly. See me g.”
Then the ther rbins tried.
In a little while they culd all fly.
The rbins culd fly, but they culd nt sing.
Mr. Rbin said t them, “Cme, little rbins, it is time fr yu t sing.”
“N, Dad, we can nt sing.”
“Yu can, if yu try. Hear the ther birds sing. Lk at the pretty flwers and the blue sky. Then yu will want t sing. Hear me sing t yu. Nw sing fr me.”
One little rbin sang.
Then they all sang.
A little girl came by. “Ww, hear the birds sing!” she said. “Hw happy they are!”
54. ______ baby rbins lived in the huse.
A. ThreeB. FurC. FiveD. Six
55. The little rbin fund it ______ when he flew int a tree.
A. interestingB. bredC. wrriedD. tired
56. What did the girl think f the birds?
A. They were pr.B. They were angry.C. They were happy.D. They were sad.
C
①D yu knw hw t make friends with a grup f peple? Let me tell yu the steps abut making friends with the grup. Maybe it’s helpful t yu.
②First, yu need t knw what kind f grup they are. If peple f the grup are shy, never ask them “Why dn’t yu talk?” “Why are yu quiet? Or “Why d yu lk shy?” They dn’t like such questins.
③Next, remember that each grup is different. They may use different wrds, like different things r have different ways f “hanging ut”.
④Then, the imprtant thing is that yu shuld try t be utging. If yu are utging, yu wuld becme very ppular.
⑤Finally, find a right tpic（话题）t talk abut with the grup. Fr example, Yu can talk with them abut the weather, the news , their hbbies r their schl life.
57. Yu can ask the questins like “______” when yu want t talk with a shy persn.
A. Why dn’t yu talk?B. Why are yu quiet?
C. Why d yu lk shy?D. It’s a nice day, isn’t it?
58. Yu can talk with the grup abut the tpic EXCEPT（除了）______.
A. the weatherB. the newsC. their hbbiesD. their ages
59. The writer wants t tell us ______.
A. the different ways t make friendsB. the imprtant thing t make friends
C. the steps abut making friends with the grup
D. a right tpic t talk abut with the grup happily
60. Which f the fllwing best shws the structure（结构）f the passage?
A .①→②③→④⑤B.①→②③④→⑤C.①→②③④⑤D.①②③④→⑤
D
My name is Rbinsn Cruse and I was brn in 1632 in the city f Yrk. My father was a successful businessman. I had tw lder brthers. One f them was killed in the war. My ther brther disappeared ne day. My father wanted me t be a lawyer（律师）.
Hwever, I wanted t g t sea t be a sailr instead. My father was very angry with me. He asked me why I wanted t leave his huse, where I wuld have an easy and cmfrtable life.
“Peple wh g t sea are nt like yu.” he said. “The pr g because they have n mney and n ther way t live, while the very rich want an adventure. Mst f the bad things in the wrld happen t the very rich r the very pr. It is safer and easier fr yu t be in the middle! Yur lder brther wuld nt listen t me, and nw he is dead. I guess yu may live a hard life if yu d nt listen t me.”
One day, I spke t my mther. “Please ask father if he will let me have ne vyage n the sea,” I asked her. “When I cme back, I will live the life he wants me t live.” She was angry. “Dn’t be a fl! I agree with him. I d nt want yu t g t sea. It is dangerus.”
A year went by, and my parents wuld still nt let me g t sea. Then ne day I met a friend. His father wned a ship which was sailing t Lndn, and I decided t g with them, withut even telling my mther r father. I just went. That was hw all my bad luck began.
61. What did Rbinsn really want accrding t the passage?
A. T be in the middle.B. T stay at hme.C. T be a rich man.D. T g t sea.
62. Accrding t Paragraph 3, we can knw that Rbinsn’s father _.
A. didn’t agree Rbinsn t g t seaB. had n mney and n ther way t live
C. wanted an adventure like the rich pepleD. liked Rbinsn mre than his ther children
63. We can put the sentence “I tried t d as he said, but I culdn’t.” ______.
A. Between Paragraph 1 and Paragraph 2B. Between Paragraph 2 and Paragraph 3
C. Between Paragraph 3 and Paragraph 4D. Between Paragraph 4 and Paragraph 5
64. Frm the passage, we can find Rbinsn ______.
A. hlds n（坚持）t his dreamB. ften lies t his parents
C. is a dangerus manD. is friendly t his friends
65. Which f the fllwing can be the best title fr the passage?
A. Rbinsn Cruse and his FamilyB. The Dangerus Sea
C. Hw t Have an Easy and Cmfrtable LifeD. Rbinsn Cruse’s Dream t Be a Sailr
IX.任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，按要求完成66至70题。66题完成句子，67，68题简略回答问题，69找题出并写出全文的主题句，70题将划线句子翻译成汉语。
Different peple have different hbbies. Reading is a gd hbby fr all kinds f peple. There are sme reasns fr reading.
First, reading is fun. Yu can always keep yurself happy. If yu like reading, yu will never feel bred r tired.
Next, yu can read the bk almst anywhere, in a car, n the plane r even in the bathrm. All yu need is a bk! Reading is a cnvenient hbby, because it is easy t stp and then start again.
Anther gd reasn fr reading is that it is useful. If yu read as a hbby, yu will get better and better at it and yu will read faster. Yu’ll als find it easier t understand what yu read. When yur reading skills imprve, yu will find yur schl wrk becmes much better.
Finally, gd readers may becme writers, t. They always have mre things t write abut.
Why dn’t yu start reading right nw?
66. Yu will never feel ______ if yu like reading.
67. Hw many reasns fr reading are mentined（提及）in this passage?
____________________________________
68. D yu like reading? Why r why nt?
____________________________________
69. ____________________________________
70. ____________________________________
X.词语运用（计10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
阅读短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词（有提示词的，填入所给单词的正确形式）
My name is Tia. I had a great time last Wednesday, because I went t a summer camp and celebrated my 71. ______ (thirteen) birthday.
At first, I truly wanted t celebrate my birthday with my family, 72. ______ my mther said I wuld have my birthday 73. ______ new friends. She tld me that I wuldn’t have t lk after my brther. And all I needed t d was t take care f 74. ______ (my). I was thankful t my mther, and lts f ideas came int my head. I hped there wuld be many interesting 75. ______ (activity).
Wednesday came sn, I met many new friends at the camp. We talked abut everything happily. Time passed 76. ______ (quick). My friends and I did many 77. ______ (wnder) things. We made a banana milk shake. We fed wild ducks by the river. We 78______ (ride) bikes in the frest. We even made 79. ______ birdhusefr a bird! Thse were really special t me.
80. ______ (spend) time with friends is surely a gd thing!
XI.基础写作（包括A、B两部分，A部分5分，B部分15分，共计20分）
A）连词成句（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
将所给词语连成句子，要求符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用。句末标点已给出。
81. makes, what, yu, happy
____________________________________?
82. be, tmrrw, will, a, party, there
____________________________________.
83. advice, sme, culd, give, yu, me
____________________________________?
84. arrive, try, five, earlier, t, minutes
____________________________________.
85. useful, what, advice, give, yu, me
____________________________________!
B）书面表达（15分，本试题含卷面分5分，同学们注意书写吆。）
86.劳动教育受到学校和社会的广泛关注。你的学校积极响应，劳动课上老师让大家利用周末时间为家长做一道西红柿牛肉面。请你根据以下提示信息描述一下西红柿牛肉面的做法。
提示信息：1. What d yu need t make it?
2. Hw d yu make it?
3. What d yu think f labr educatin?
要求：（1）短文须包括提示中的三个要点，可适当发挥。
（2）短文中不要出现真实的地名、校名和人名。
（3）词数80个左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。
参考词汇：labr educatin劳动教育，bil煮沸，pt锅
Hw t Make Beef and Tmat Ndles
T make beef and tmat ndles, __________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
2023-2024学年第一学期期末调研试卷
八年级英语试卷参考答案
注：阅卷前，阅卷老师务必统一评分标准，认真核对答案，再评卷！此答案仅供参考！
1-5 BBAAA 6-10 BABBB 11-12 BB 13-15 BCB 16-18 CBA 19-20 CC 21-25 ABACB 31-35 ACDAB 36-40 ACABA 41-45 DCBAC
46-50 DCABA 51-53 DBC 54-56 BAC 57-60DDCC 61-65 DACAD
评分标准：1. 1-50小题，每小题1分，计 50分；51-65小题，每小题2分，计 30分。
凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅴ. 26. ne 27. free 28. twice 29. scientist 30.dreams
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，计5分。
2．凡与答案不符，但所填信息与答案意思相同且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给
分.
Ⅸ.任务型阅读
66. bred r tired
Fur.
言之有理即可得分。
There are sme reasns fr reading.
70. 你也会发现你更容易理解你读的东西。
评分标准：1.每小题2分，计10分。
2. 凡与答案不符，但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。有关语法及拼写（包括大小写）等错误酌情减分。
Ⅹ.词语运用
71. thirteenth 72. but 73. with 74. myself 75. activities
76. quickly 77. wnderful 78. rde 79.a 80. Spending
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，计5分。
2.凡与答案不符者不得分。
XI.基础写作 A)
81.What makes yu happy
82. There will be a party tmrrw
83. Culd yu give me sme advice
84. Try t arrive five minutes earlier
85. What useful advice yu give me
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，计5分。
2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
B） 书面表达
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为 15分（含卷面分五分），按五个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据短文的内容要点初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的语言要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名，酌情减分。
二、内容要点
三、评分标准
四、说明
1.内容要点可以用不同方式表达。
2.相同的错误不重复计算。
Infrmatin Sheet
1. Liu Mei is 26.______ year lder than me.
2. We ften talk with each ther in English in ur 27. ______ time.
3. We g swimming 28. ______ a week.
4. Her father is a 29. ______ and her mther is an actress.
5. She 30. ______ f being a teacher in the future.
一档
9-10分
包含了所有要点，能围绕内容要点适当发挥，内容具体、丰富；应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确，句子通顺，行文连贯，表达清楚；没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，达到了预期的写作目的。
二档
7-8分
基本包含了所有要点，并有一定发挥，内容比较丰富；应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚；有少量语言错误，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档
5-6分
包含了多数要点，并有所发挥，内容不够丰富、具体，字数较少；句子不够通顺，语言表达过于简单，行文不够连贯；有部分语言错误。
四档
3-4分
只包含了少数要点，内容过少；句子无条理，语言不规范，行文不连贯；语言错误较多。
五档
0-2分
只包含了一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关，内容杂乱，不知所云；语言很不通顺，用词很不准确；错误过多，几乎难以读懂。