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河北省保定市唐县2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题
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这是一份河北省保定市唐县2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题，共9页。
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2. 答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡相应位置上。
3. 答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
听力部分
Ⅰ. 听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
1. A. bedB. bagC. dg
2. A. 475-0756B. 475-7056C. 457-0756
3. A. basketballB. baseballC. vlleyball
4. A. The fd is bread.B. I like fd.C. I like bread best.
5. A. Tm has a healthy eating habit.
B. Tm eats a lt f fd.
C. Tm is nt healthy.
Ⅱ. 听句子，选出该句的最佳答语（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
6. A. It’s n Sunday.B. It’s at 10:00.C. It’s On August 8th.
7. A. They are my bks.B. They are n the desk.C. N, they aren’t.
8. A. They are $4.B. They are blue.C. Yes, they are.
9. A. I like math.B. Thank yu.C. Hell, Mrs. Brwn.
10. A. Thank yu.B. Me, t.C. Srry.
Ⅲ. 听对话和问题，选择正确选项（共8小题，每小题1分，计8分）
11. What des the man want t buy?
A.B.C.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12. What is Tim’s favrite sprt?
A.B.C.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13. What’s n Judy’s bed?
A. Her pen.B. Her jacket.C. Her English bk.
14. Where is Judy’s English bk?
A. On the bed.B. On the desk.C. In the bkcase.
15. Wh helps Judy find her jacket and bk?
A. Her mther.B. Her father.C. Her brther.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
16. Hw ld is Rick?
A. 14.B. 12.C. 13.
17. When is Rick’s father’s birthday?
A. On May 15th.B. On May 16th.C. On May 17th.
18. What des Rick want t buy fr his father?
A. A T-shirt.B. A watch.C. A car.
Ⅳ. 听短文和问题，选择正确答案。（共7小题，每小题1分，计7分）
19. Wh is Bill?
A. Jenny’s friend.B. Jenny’s brther.C. Jenny’s cusin.
20. What des Mary like t have fr dinner?
A. Vegetables.B. Ice-cream.C. Fruit salad.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
21. Hw ld is Li Hua?
A. 14.B. 15.C. 16.
22. Li Hua has ________ classes n Friday.
A. 4B. 5C. 6
23. When is the science class?
A. It’s n Mnday.B. It’s n Tuesday.C. It’s n Wednesday.
24. Why des Li Hua like science?
A. Because she thinks it’s interesting.
B. Because she thinks it’s easy.
C. Because she thinks it’s useful.
25. Wh is Li Hua’s English teacher?
A. Mr. Xu.B. Mr. Liu.C. Mrs. Lee.
Ⅴ. 听短文填空（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
笔试部分
Ⅵ. 单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31. Frank is ________ ne year ld, but he can spell his name.
A. reallyB. alwaysC. nlyD. then
32. My father lst his key. He must ________ it.
A. sayB. thankC. niceD. find
33. — I want t buy the bk “the ld man and the sea”. D yu knw its ________?
—Yes, twenty-five Yuan.
A. clrB. numberC. priceD. subject
34. —Des Julia like fruit salad?
—________. She likes vegetables, t.
A. Yes, she desB. N, she desn’tC. Yes, she isD. N, she isn’t
35. — What des Mr. Cl have in his stre?
— He ________ shirts, bags and scks.
A. needsB. sellsC. getsD. takes
36. ________ is yur grandmther? Is she fine?
A. WhatB. HwC. WhereD. Wh
37. — I have a cmputer, ________ I dn’t play cmputer games n it.
—Yu are s great.
A. sB. andC. becauseD. but
38. Cindy likes ________ fr breakfast, she thinks they’re healthy.
A. milkB. appleC. eggsD. hamburgers
39. — Nw sme peple lve brwsing Tiktk (刷抖音).
—Yes, they think it is very ________.
A. difficultB. bringC. easyD. interesting
40. — Let’s have sme bread, Paul.
—________.
A. Yes, I dB. I dn’t like themC. Yu are welcmeD. Sunds great
Ⅶ. 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Dear Li Hua,
Thank yu 41 yur letter. It’s gd that yu 42 yur schl. I g t schl 43 Mnday t Friday. I have fur classes in the mrning 44 tw classes in the afternn. I am 45 after class. On Mnday and Wednesday afternn I play vlleyball fr 46 hurs. On Tuesday afternn 47 f us have a singing class. And n Thursday afternn sme 48 cmputer class. On Friday afternn I learn t speak English 49 my English teacher. On Sundays I dn’t g t schl. I am ften with 50 father and mther.
Lve,
Lin Mei
41. A. fB. tC. nD. fr
42. A. likeB. seeC. lkD. watch
43. A. frB. tC. frmD. n
44. A. rB. andC. butD. als
45. A. busyB. tidyC. funD. difficult
46. A. twB. neC. aD. an
47. A. muchB. smeC. neD. nly
48. A. hasB. playsC. playD. have
49. A. andB. withC. thatD. f
50. A. IB. meC. myD. us
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，计30分）
阅读 A、B、C、D 四篇材料，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Hi, Tm. I’m Jerry. Uncle Ben is cming this evening. I think ur rm must be tidy. Let’s see what we must d.
51. This is ________ rm.
A. Tm’sB. Jerry’sC. Ben’sD. Tm and Jerry’s
52. ________ are everywhere in the rm.
A. Tm’s CDsB. Jerry’s tapesC. Tm’s bksD. Jerry’s cmputer games
53. We can see ________ in the rm.
A. a jacket is n the bedB. sme CDs are n the desk
C. a tape player is in the bkcaseD. sme cmputer games are under the chair
B
In many English hmes, peple have fur meals a day — breakfast, lunch, afternn tea and dinner. Peple have breakfast frm 7:00 t 9:00 in the mrning. They eat eggs r bread. English peple drink tea r milk fr breakfast, t. Lunch cmes at abut 13:00. Afternn tea is frm 16:00 t 17:00, and dinner is at abut 19:30. They ften have sup, and they have sme chicken r fish with vegetables. Then they eat sme bananas, apples, r ranges. But nt all English peple have meals like that. Sme f them dn’t have dinner in the evening.
54. English peple dn’t have ________ fr their breakfast.
A. breadB. chickenC. milkD. eggs
55. English peple have lunch ________.
A. frm 7:00 t 9:00B. at abut 13:00C. at 19:30D. frm 16:00 t 17:30
56. Hw many meals d mst (大多数) English peple have a day?
A. 2B. 3C. 4D. 5
C
D yu buy things in the unmanned (无人的) shp? Nw, an unmanned shp is in Chngqing, China. Let’s g and have a lk.
On the first flr (层), It sells clthes fr girls. They have blue, purple and yellw sweaters fr $30. They have scks in all clrs. They are $2 fr a pair and $3 fr tw pairs. The skirts are $20.
Fr bys, yu can g t the secnd flr. They have sme shrts fr $22. And the baseball hats are $5. D yu like jackets? They have blue jackets fr $35 and black jackets fr $40.
Yu just need t pay (支付) fr these things by scanning a OR cde (扫描二维码). It is very easy. What d yu need? Cme t the unmanned shp nw!
57. Li Mei wants t buy a sweater and tw pairs f scks, Hw much are they?
A. $32.B. $33.C. $35.D. $36.
58. Yu can get a jacket in black fr ______in this stre.
A. $30B. $35C. $40D. $45
59. Yu can NOT find the ______ sweaters in this stre.
A. greenB. blueC. purpleD. yellw
60. Buying things in the unmanned stre is ______.
A. cheapB. busyC. difficultD. easy
D
Elena is a 6-year-ld girl. She likes drawing very much and she draws every day.
One day, after the rain, she ges ut with her father and her dg Cc. “Ww, what’s that?”
“It’s a rainbw. Hw many clrs can yu see, my dear?” asks her father.
“Er... ne, tw, three... seven. Seven clrs. It lks s nice.”
Then they g hme. “I want t draw a rainbw, Dad, but I dn’t have range, green r purple,” Elena says t her father.
“That’s easy. Yu knw what? We have the three clrs. Let me help yu. Red and yellw can make range. Put (放) the clr yellw int the clr blue, and we can get the clr green. Blue and red can make purple.”
“Ww, that’s interesting! I have seven clrs nw. I can draw a rainbw. Thanks, Dad!” With the help f her father, Elena draws a great rainbw. She is s happy!
61. What des Elena like accrding t the passage?
A. Drawing.B. Singing.C. Ging ut.D. Playing.
62. The underlined wrd (划线单词) “rainbw” means (意思是) ________.
A. 彩笔B. 彩虹C. 雨伞D. 雨衣
63. Hw many clrs des Elena see in a rainbw?
A. Three.B. Five.C. Seven.D. Six.
64. ________ can make the clr green.
A. Red and yellwB. Blue and red
C. Yellw and blueD. Red and brwn
65. Which is TRUE (正确的) accrding t the passage?
A. Elena ges ut with her father and sister Cc after the rain.
B. Elena can’t draw a rainbw withut (没有) range, green r purple.
C. Elena’s father draws a great rainbw fr her.
D. Elena desn’t get the clrs she wants.
Ⅸ. 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
阅读下面短文。按要求完成66至70题。
Bill is a middle schl student. He’s very careless (粗心的). Why d I say s? Let’s see.
At hme
“Bill, this new green jacket is fr yu. Take it with yu,” Mm says.
“OK, Mm. Thank yu. The clr lks nice, I like it.” It’s 7:20. Bill ges t schl with a black jacket.”
“Oh, n, Bill! The black ne is yur six-year-ld brther’s. It’s t small fr yu.”
At schl
“Bill, can I use yur basketball in the P.E. class? Mine is at hme.” Cindy, ne f Bill’s classmates , asks him. “OK, but we dn’t have P.E. class tday. It’s Wednesday,” Bill says.
“Oh, n, Bill! Tday is Thursday. And the next class is P.E.”
S, yu see, Bill is really careless. Being careless is nt a gd habit. We must be careful.
66题完成句子；67、68题简略回答问题；69题找出并写下本文的主题句；70题将文中画线句子译成汉语。
66. Being careless is nt a gd _______________.
67. What clr is Bill’s jacket?
______________________________________________________________________________________
68. When is the P.E class?
______________________________________________________________________________________
69. ___________________________________________________________________________________
70. ___________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅹ. 词语运用（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词（有提示词的，填入所给单词的正确形式）
Tu Yuyu is the 71.____________ (ne) Chinese wman scientist (科学家) t get the Nbel Prize (诺贝尔奖). She finds the artemisinin (青蒿素). She wants 72.____________ (help) peple arund the wrld. She says: “The prize isn’t 73.____________ (I). It belngs t (属于) all the 74.________________ (China) scientists.”
Tu Yuyu is 91 years ld, but she is very 75.____________ (health). Her birthday is 76.____________ December 30th. She has gd 77.____________ (eat) habits. She als likes 78.____________ (play) sprts. She ften plays sprts 79.____________her friends. She is a great scientist. Let’s learn frm (向...学习) 80.____________ (she).
Ⅺ. 基础写作（包括A、B两部分，A部分5分，B部分15分，共计20分）
A) 连词成句（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
将所给词语连成句子，要求符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用。句末标点已给出。
81. this, pht, f, is, family, my, a
______________________________________________________________________.
82. wh, girl, this, is,
______________________________________________________________________?
83. she, yur, is, sister
______________________________________________________________________?
84. my, mther, sells, at , clthes, stre, a,
______________________________________________________________________.
85. I, family, have, happy, a
______________________________________________________________________.
B) 书面表达（15分）
86. 习主席在 2023 年新年贺辞中说到：“明天的中国，希望寄予青年。青年兴则国家兴。”作为未来一代青年的我们，在生活中，需要展示自我，与人和谐相处，健康成长。假如你是李雷，请你根据图示信息，展示自我，将自己介绍给其他人。
注意：(1) 短文须包括信息图所有提示内容，可适当发挥。
(2) 文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名。
(3) 词数 80 个左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。
My name is Li Lei. I’m happy t make friends with yu._____________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023学年第一学期期末调研考试
七年级英语试卷参考答案
注：阅卷前，阅卷老师务必统一评分标准，认真核对答案，再评卷！
此答案仅供参考！
1-5 BAACA 6-10 CBACA 11-15 BCBCB 16-18 BCB 19-20AC
21-25 AAACB 31-35 CDCAB 36-40 BDCDD 41-45 DACBA 46-50 ABDBC
51-53 DCD 54-56 BBC 57-60 BCAD 61-65 ABCCB
评分标准：1. 1-50小题，每小题1分，计50分； 51-65小题，每小题2分，计30分。
2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅴ. 听短文填空
26. 12\twelve 27. chicken 28. art 29. vlleyball 30. Saturday
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，计5分。
2. 凡与答案不符，但所填信息与答案意思相同且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。
Ⅸ. 任务型阅读
66. habit
67. It’s green.
68. It’s n Thursday.
69. He\ Bill is very careless.
70. Bill穿着一件黑色的夹克去上学了。
评分标准：1. 每小题2分，计10分。
2. 凡与答案不符，但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。有关语法及拼写（包括大小写）等错误酌情减分。
Ⅹ．词语运用
71. first 72. t help 73. mine 74. Chinese 75. Healthy 76.n 77. eating 78. playing\t play
79. with 80. her
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，计5分。
2.凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅺ. 连词成句
A) 81. This is a pht f my family
82. Wh is this girl
83. Is she yur sister
84. My mther sells clthes at a stre
85. I have a happy family
评分标准： 1. 每小题1分，计5分。
2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
B) 书面表达
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据短文的内容要点初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的语言要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名，酌情减分。
二、内容要点
三、评分标准
四、说明
1. 内容要点可以用不同方式表达。
2. 相同的错误不重复计算。
Infrmatin Abut Sally
Age (年龄)
26. _____________________.
Favrite Fd
27. _____________________.
Favrite Subject
28. _____________________.
Activity After Schl
29. play __________________ with her classmates.
Favrite Day
30. _____________________.
Yur Things
My Things
A dictinary: under the desk
A jacket: n the chair
A tape player: n the bed
A mdel plane: under the bed
CDs: n the sfa
Tapes: in the bkcase
Bks: n the bed, n the sfa , under the chair...
Cmputer games: under the chair
一档
13-15分
包含了所有要点，能围绕内容要点适当发挥，内容具体、丰富；应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确，句子通顺，行文连贯，表达清楚；没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，达到了预期的写作目的。
二档
10-12分
基本包含了所有要点，并有一定发挥，内容比较丰富；应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚；有少量语言错误，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档
7-9分
包含了多数要点，并有所发挥，内容不够丰富、具体，字数较少；句子不够通顺，语言表达过于简单，行文不够连贯；有部分语言错误。
四档
4-6分
只包含了少数要点，内容过少；句子无条理，语言不规范，行文不连贯；语言错误较多。
五档
0-3分
只包含了一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关，内容杂乱，不知所云；语言很不通顺，用词很不准确；错误过多，几乎难以读懂。
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2. 答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡相应位置上。
3. 答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
听力部分
Ⅰ. 听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
1. A. bedB. bagC. dg
2. A. 475-0756B. 475-7056C. 457-0756
3. A. basketballB. baseballC. vlleyball
4. A. The fd is bread.B. I like fd.C. I like bread best.
5. A. Tm has a healthy eating habit.
B. Tm eats a lt f fd.
C. Tm is nt healthy.
Ⅱ. 听句子，选出该句的最佳答语（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
6. A. It’s n Sunday.B. It’s at 10:00.C. It’s On August 8th.
7. A. They are my bks.B. They are n the desk.C. N, they aren’t.
8. A. They are $4.B. They are blue.C. Yes, they are.
9. A. I like math.B. Thank yu.C. Hell, Mrs. Brwn.
10. A. Thank yu.B. Me, t.C. Srry.
Ⅲ. 听对话和问题，选择正确选项（共8小题，每小题1分，计8分）
11. What des the man want t buy?
A.B.C.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
12. What is Tim’s favrite sprt?
A.B.C.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
13. What’s n Judy’s bed?
A. Her pen.B. Her jacket.C. Her English bk.
14. Where is Judy’s English bk?
A. On the bed.B. On the desk.C. In the bkcase.
15. Wh helps Judy find her jacket and bk?
A. Her mther.B. Her father.C. Her brther.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
16. Hw ld is Rick?
A. 14.B. 12.C. 13.
17. When is Rick’s father’s birthday?
A. On May 15th.B. On May 16th.C. On May 17th.
18. What des Rick want t buy fr his father?
A. A T-shirt.B. A watch.C. A car.
Ⅳ. 听短文和问题，选择正确答案。（共7小题，每小题1分，计7分）
19. Wh is Bill?
A. Jenny’s friend.B. Jenny’s brther.C. Jenny’s cusin.
20. What des Mary like t have fr dinner?
A. Vegetables.B. Ice-cream.C. Fruit salad.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
21. Hw ld is Li Hua?
A. 14.B. 15.C. 16.
22. Li Hua has ________ classes n Friday.
A. 4B. 5C. 6
23. When is the science class?
A. It’s n Mnday.B. It’s n Tuesday.C. It’s n Wednesday.
24. Why des Li Hua like science?
A. Because she thinks it’s interesting.
B. Because she thinks it’s easy.
C. Because she thinks it’s useful.
25. Wh is Li Hua’s English teacher?
A. Mr. Xu.B. Mr. Liu.C. Mrs. Lee.
Ⅴ. 听短文填空（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
笔试部分
Ⅵ. 单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31. Frank is ________ ne year ld, but he can spell his name.
A. reallyB. alwaysC. nlyD. then
32. My father lst his key. He must ________ it.
A. sayB. thankC. niceD. find
33. — I want t buy the bk “the ld man and the sea”. D yu knw its ________?
—Yes, twenty-five Yuan.
A. clrB. numberC. priceD. subject
34. —Des Julia like fruit salad?
—________. She likes vegetables, t.
A. Yes, she desB. N, she desn’tC. Yes, she isD. N, she isn’t
35. — What des Mr. Cl have in his stre?
— He ________ shirts, bags and scks.
A. needsB. sellsC. getsD. takes
36. ________ is yur grandmther? Is she fine?
A. WhatB. HwC. WhereD. Wh
37. — I have a cmputer, ________ I dn’t play cmputer games n it.
—Yu are s great.
A. sB. andC. becauseD. but
38. Cindy likes ________ fr breakfast, she thinks they’re healthy.
A. milkB. appleC. eggsD. hamburgers
39. — Nw sme peple lve brwsing Tiktk (刷抖音).
—Yes, they think it is very ________.
A. difficultB. bringC. easyD. interesting
40. — Let’s have sme bread, Paul.
—________.
A. Yes, I dB. I dn’t like themC. Yu are welcmeD. Sunds great
Ⅶ. 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Dear Li Hua,
Thank yu 41 yur letter. It’s gd that yu 42 yur schl. I g t schl 43 Mnday t Friday. I have fur classes in the mrning 44 tw classes in the afternn. I am 45 after class. On Mnday and Wednesday afternn I play vlleyball fr 46 hurs. On Tuesday afternn 47 f us have a singing class. And n Thursday afternn sme 48 cmputer class. On Friday afternn I learn t speak English 49 my English teacher. On Sundays I dn’t g t schl. I am ften with 50 father and mther.
Lve,
Lin Mei
41. A. fB. tC. nD. fr
42. A. likeB. seeC. lkD. watch
43. A. frB. tC. frmD. n
44. A. rB. andC. butD. als
45. A. busyB. tidyC. funD. difficult
46. A. twB. neC. aD. an
47. A. muchB. smeC. neD. nly
48. A. hasB. playsC. playD. have
49. A. andB. withC. thatD. f
50. A. IB. meC. myD. us
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，计30分）
阅读 A、B、C、D 四篇材料，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Hi, Tm. I’m Jerry. Uncle Ben is cming this evening. I think ur rm must be tidy. Let’s see what we must d.
51. This is ________ rm.
A. Tm’sB. Jerry’sC. Ben’sD. Tm and Jerry’s
52. ________ are everywhere in the rm.
A. Tm’s CDsB. Jerry’s tapesC. Tm’s bksD. Jerry’s cmputer games
53. We can see ________ in the rm.
A. a jacket is n the bedB. sme CDs are n the desk
C. a tape player is in the bkcaseD. sme cmputer games are under the chair
B
In many English hmes, peple have fur meals a day — breakfast, lunch, afternn tea and dinner. Peple have breakfast frm 7:00 t 9:00 in the mrning. They eat eggs r bread. English peple drink tea r milk fr breakfast, t. Lunch cmes at abut 13:00. Afternn tea is frm 16:00 t 17:00, and dinner is at abut 19:30. They ften have sup, and they have sme chicken r fish with vegetables. Then they eat sme bananas, apples, r ranges. But nt all English peple have meals like that. Sme f them dn’t have dinner in the evening.
54. English peple dn’t have ________ fr their breakfast.
A. breadB. chickenC. milkD. eggs
55. English peple have lunch ________.
A. frm 7:00 t 9:00B. at abut 13:00C. at 19:30D. frm 16:00 t 17:30
56. Hw many meals d mst (大多数) English peple have a day?
A. 2B. 3C. 4D. 5
C
D yu buy things in the unmanned (无人的) shp? Nw, an unmanned shp is in Chngqing, China. Let’s g and have a lk.
On the first flr (层), It sells clthes fr girls. They have blue, purple and yellw sweaters fr $30. They have scks in all clrs. They are $2 fr a pair and $3 fr tw pairs. The skirts are $20.
Fr bys, yu can g t the secnd flr. They have sme shrts fr $22. And the baseball hats are $5. D yu like jackets? They have blue jackets fr $35 and black jackets fr $40.
Yu just need t pay (支付) fr these things by scanning a OR cde (扫描二维码). It is very easy. What d yu need? Cme t the unmanned shp nw!
57. Li Mei wants t buy a sweater and tw pairs f scks, Hw much are they?
A. $32.B. $33.C. $35.D. $36.
58. Yu can get a jacket in black fr ______in this stre.
A. $30B. $35C. $40D. $45
59. Yu can NOT find the ______ sweaters in this stre.
A. greenB. blueC. purpleD. yellw
60. Buying things in the unmanned stre is ______.
A. cheapB. busyC. difficultD. easy
D
Elena is a 6-year-ld girl. She likes drawing very much and she draws every day.
One day, after the rain, she ges ut with her father and her dg Cc. “Ww, what’s that?”
“It’s a rainbw. Hw many clrs can yu see, my dear?” asks her father.
“Er... ne, tw, three... seven. Seven clrs. It lks s nice.”
Then they g hme. “I want t draw a rainbw, Dad, but I dn’t have range, green r purple,” Elena says t her father.
“That’s easy. Yu knw what? We have the three clrs. Let me help yu. Red and yellw can make range. Put (放) the clr yellw int the clr blue, and we can get the clr green. Blue and red can make purple.”
“Ww, that’s interesting! I have seven clrs nw. I can draw a rainbw. Thanks, Dad!” With the help f her father, Elena draws a great rainbw. She is s happy!
61. What des Elena like accrding t the passage?
A. Drawing.B. Singing.C. Ging ut.D. Playing.
62. The underlined wrd (划线单词) “rainbw” means (意思是) ________.
A. 彩笔B. 彩虹C. 雨伞D. 雨衣
63. Hw many clrs des Elena see in a rainbw?
A. Three.B. Five.C. Seven.D. Six.
64. ________ can make the clr green.
A. Red and yellwB. Blue and red
C. Yellw and blueD. Red and brwn
65. Which is TRUE (正确的) accrding t the passage?
A. Elena ges ut with her father and sister Cc after the rain.
B. Elena can’t draw a rainbw withut (没有) range, green r purple.
C. Elena’s father draws a great rainbw fr her.
D. Elena desn’t get the clrs she wants.
Ⅸ. 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
阅读下面短文。按要求完成66至70题。
Bill is a middle schl student. He’s very careless (粗心的). Why d I say s? Let’s see.
At hme
“Bill, this new green jacket is fr yu. Take it with yu,” Mm says.
“OK, Mm. Thank yu. The clr lks nice, I like it.” It’s 7:20. Bill ges t schl with a black jacket.”
“Oh, n, Bill! The black ne is yur six-year-ld brther’s. It’s t small fr yu.”
At schl
“Bill, can I use yur basketball in the P.E. class? Mine is at hme.” Cindy, ne f Bill’s classmates , asks him. “OK, but we dn’t have P.E. class tday. It’s Wednesday,” Bill says.
“Oh, n, Bill! Tday is Thursday. And the next class is P.E.”
S, yu see, Bill is really careless. Being careless is nt a gd habit. We must be careful.
66题完成句子；67、68题简略回答问题；69题找出并写下本文的主题句；70题将文中画线句子译成汉语。
66. Being careless is nt a gd _______________.
67. What clr is Bill’s jacket?
______________________________________________________________________________________
68. When is the P.E class?
______________________________________________________________________________________
69. ___________________________________________________________________________________
70. ___________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅹ. 词语运用（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词（有提示词的，填入所给单词的正确形式）
Tu Yuyu is the 71.____________ (ne) Chinese wman scientist (科学家) t get the Nbel Prize (诺贝尔奖). She finds the artemisinin (青蒿素). She wants 72.____________ (help) peple arund the wrld. She says: “The prize isn’t 73.____________ (I). It belngs t (属于) all the 74.________________ (China) scientists.”
Tu Yuyu is 91 years ld, but she is very 75.____________ (health). Her birthday is 76.____________ December 30th. She has gd 77.____________ (eat) habits. She als likes 78.____________ (play) sprts. She ften plays sprts 79.____________her friends. She is a great scientist. Let’s learn frm (向...学习) 80.____________ (she).
Ⅺ. 基础写作（包括A、B两部分，A部分5分，B部分15分，共计20分）
A) 连词成句（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
将所给词语连成句子，要求符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用。句末标点已给出。
81. this, pht, f, is, family, my, a
______________________________________________________________________.
82. wh, girl, this, is,
______________________________________________________________________?
83. she, yur, is, sister
______________________________________________________________________?
84. my, mther, sells, at , clthes, stre, a,
______________________________________________________________________.
85. I, family, have, happy, a
______________________________________________________________________.
B) 书面表达（15分）
86. 习主席在 2023 年新年贺辞中说到：“明天的中国，希望寄予青年。青年兴则国家兴。”作为未来一代青年的我们，在生活中，需要展示自我，与人和谐相处，健康成长。假如你是李雷，请你根据图示信息，展示自我，将自己介绍给其他人。
注意：(1) 短文须包括信息图所有提示内容，可适当发挥。
(2) 文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名。
(3) 词数 80 个左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。
My name is Li Lei. I’m happy t make friends with yu._____________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023学年第一学期期末调研考试
七年级英语试卷参考答案
注：阅卷前，阅卷老师务必统一评分标准，认真核对答案，再评卷！
此答案仅供参考！
1-5 BAACA 6-10 CBACA 11-15 BCBCB 16-18 BCB 19-20AC
21-25 AAACB 31-35 CDCAB 36-40 BDCDD 41-45 DACBA 46-50 ABDBC
51-53 DCD 54-56 BBC 57-60 BCAD 61-65 ABCCB
评分标准：1. 1-50小题，每小题1分，计50分； 51-65小题，每小题2分，计30分。
2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅴ. 听短文填空
26. 12\twelve 27. chicken 28. art 29. vlleyball 30. Saturday
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，计5分。
2. 凡与答案不符，但所填信息与答案意思相同且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。
Ⅸ. 任务型阅读
66. habit
67. It’s green.
68. It’s n Thursday.
69. He\ Bill is very careless.
70. Bill穿着一件黑色的夹克去上学了。
评分标准：1. 每小题2分，计10分。
2. 凡与答案不符，但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。有关语法及拼写（包括大小写）等错误酌情减分。
Ⅹ．词语运用
71. first 72. t help 73. mine 74. Chinese 75. Healthy 76.n 77. eating 78. playing\t play
79. with 80. her
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，计5分。
2.凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅺ. 连词成句
A) 81. This is a pht f my family
82. Wh is this girl
83. Is she yur sister
84. My mther sells clthes at a stre
85. I have a happy family
评分标准： 1. 每小题1分，计5分。
2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
B) 书面表达
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据短文的内容要点初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的语言要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名，酌情减分。
二、内容要点
三、评分标准
四、说明
1. 内容要点可以用不同方式表达。
2. 相同的错误不重复计算。
Infrmatin Abut Sally
Age (年龄)
26. _____________________.
Favrite Fd
27. _____________________.
Favrite Subject
28. _____________________.
Activity After Schl
29. play __________________ with her classmates.
Favrite Day
30. _____________________.
Yur Things
My Things
A dictinary: under the desk
A jacket: n the chair
A tape player: n the bed
A mdel plane: under the bed
CDs: n the sfa
Tapes: in the bkcase
Bks: n the bed, n the sfa , under the chair...
Cmputer games: under the chair
一档
13-15分
包含了所有要点，能围绕内容要点适当发挥，内容具体、丰富；应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确，句子通顺，行文连贯，表达清楚；没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，达到了预期的写作目的。
二档
10-12分
基本包含了所有要点，并有一定发挥，内容比较丰富；应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚；有少量语言错误，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档
7-9分
包含了多数要点，并有所发挥，内容不够丰富、具体，字数较少；句子不够通顺，语言表达过于简单，行文不够连贯；有部分语言错误。
四档
4-6分
只包含了少数要点，内容过少；句子无条理，语言不规范，行文不连贯；语言错误较多。
五档
0-3分
只包含了一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关，内容杂乱，不知所云；语言很不通顺，用词很不准确；错误过多，几乎难以读懂。
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