河南省南阳市唐河县2023-2024学年九年级上学期期末考试英语模拟试题（含答案）

这是一份河南省南阳市唐河县2023-2024学年九年级上学期期末考试英语模拟试题（含答案），共11页。试卷主要包含了听力理解， 阅读理解，完形填空，语篇填空，补全对话，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、听力理解 (20 小题, 每小题1分, 共20分)
第一节 听下面5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. Where will Judy g this summer?
A. Canada. B. Australia. C. England.
2. What time is the flight?
A.5:00. B.5:30. C.6:00.
3. What are they talking abut?
A. Hw t learn English well.
B. Hw t learn Chinese well.
C. Hw t write a gd diary.
4. Wh made the mdel ship?
A. Tm. B. Tina's cusin. C. Tm's cusin.
5. When was the air cnditin er invented?
A. In 1902. B. In 1952. C. In 1982.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. What are the flwers used fr?
A. T decrate the living rm.
B. T decrate the classrm.
C. T decrate the bedrm.
7. Hw lng were the flwers made?
A. Tw days. B. Five days. C. Six days.
听下面一段对话， 回答第8至第9两个小题。
8. Why d Jack and Mary g t the Science Museum?
A. Because they are interested in ceships.
B. Because they want t learn abut sme new inventins.
C. Because they are interested in the ancient inventins.
9. What time will they g t the Science Museum?
A. At 8:00 a. m. B. At 8:30 a. m. C. At 9:00 a. m.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第 12 三个小题。
10. What is the speaker perfrming a play fr?
A. T shw his acting skills.
B. T imprve his acting skills.
C. T imprve language skills.
11. Wh reads the play with the speaker?
A. His friend. B. His teacher. C. His grup members.
12. Hw many plays have the speaker perfrmed?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur.
听下面一段对话，回答第13 至第15 三个小题。
13. What is the relatinship between tw speakers?
A. Mther and sn. B. Brther and sister. C. Father and daughter.
14. Where will they g in this hliday?
A. Shanghai. B. Hng Kng. C. Paris.
15. Hw will they g t Disneyland?
A. By ship. B. By plane. C. By train.
第三节 听下面一篇短文，按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
16 17 1 8 19 20
二、 阅读理解 (20 小题, 每小题2分, 共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
A
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21. What shuld we try t use every day?
A. Fd prducts. B. Green prducts.
C. Plant prducts. D. Plastic prducts.
22. What d we knw abut plant-based meals?
A. They taste really delicius. B. They're bad fr ur bdy.
C. They're gd fr the envirnment. D. They need a lt f time t prepare.
23. What des the Glbal Earth Challenge app allw peple t d?
A. T take cking lessns fr free.
B. T learn t use recycled materials.
C. T search fr fun ideas f making tys.
D. T knw abut envirnmental prblems nearby.
24. What is the last actin calling n us t d?
A. T use recycled materials creatively.
B. T develp health y eating habits.
C. T use the Glbal Earth Challenge app.
D. T stp using plastic prducts at hme.
25. What's the passage mainly abut?
A. Why the Earth Day becmes ppular.
B. Why we shuld care fr ur planet.
C. Hw t make the Earth Day ppular.
D. Hw t help build a healthier planet.
B
My father is a ck. He makes delicius fd fr the wrkers in a factry. The wrkers lve him very much. I als lve him, but smetimes he can be“stupid”.
One mrning, my father and I went shpping at the market tgether. When we gt hme, he wanted t knw hw much mney we had spent in the shp. Suddenly, he tld me smething was wrng ▲ “That's great! Yu can buy me a cartn bk,”I said. My father said nthing but asked me t g back t the shp tgether. I didn't want t g back because nbdy knew it It was “stupid”t g back
“It will nt be stupid! Bein g hnest is very imprtant,”my father shuted at me angrily. I lked int his eyes and knew he was right.
When we gave back the mney, the salesgirl thanked us a lt. On ur way hme,my father stpped me and asked,“D yu still want that cartn bk?”I lked at my stupid father and replied ludly,“Dad, yu’re the greatest!”
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. Where des the writer's father wrk?
A. In a factry. B. At a restaurant. C. At,a supermarket. D. On a farm.
27. Wh did the writer g shpping with?
A. His sister. B. His brther. C. His mther. D. His father.
28 Which f the fllwing can be put in the ▲ ?
A. We returned hme safely.
B. We bught tw bttles f milk.
C. We gt 50 yuan mre than we shuld.
D. We cunted the items carefully.
29. What des the underlined wrd“stupid”mean in Chinese?
A. 傻傻的 B. 活着的 C. 睡着的 D. 完整的
30. What is the main idea f the passage?
A. It is imprtant fr us t wrk carefully.
B. It is very imprtant t be hnest.
C. This cartn bk is wrth buying.
D. The writer's father is smart.
C
D yu knw that 93 percent f ur cmmunicatin is thrugh ur bdy? We call it bdy language. This can include the bdy-gesture language, head-neck language, sign language, ‘face language and lks language. In different cultural backgrunds, the same mvement might have quite different meanings, which, as a result, may usually lead t misunderstanding in cmmunicatin. Misuse f bdy language can be an unpleasant r even dangerus experience.
In 1992, the President Gerge H. W. Bush made a state visit t Australia. Peple lined up alng the radside t welcme the American President wh greeted them with raised fingers in the frm f“V”with the back f his hand tward the nlkers. The fllwing mrning a headline in a lcal newper annunced that the American President insulted(侮辱) Australians. In Australia, the “V”sign with the back f the hand equals t the middle finger. But in America it means Victry.
Have yu understand the imprtance f bdy language? Pay attentin t the fllwing and yu will realize that they are very helpful when yu are in Australia.
Men in Australia shake hands instead f kissing when they meet. In China, thumbing up means “Yu are gd”. Hwever, it's rude in Australia. If an Australian laugh at thers, he makes his thumb dwn. If yu want t rder a glass f beer in the bar, just hld up yur frefinger. And in scial situatin, yu shuldn't yawn r stretch yurself.
Keep these in mind and have a nice trip in Australia.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31. Hw many bdy languages did the authr mentin in the first paragraph?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five. D. Six.
32. What did the Australians think f American President Bush after he visited Australia in 1992?
A. He is friendly t Australia. B. He was rude and implite.
C. He was a lvely persn. D. He was a real man.
33. Hw shuld yu act if yu want t have beer in the bar f Australia?
A. Yu can put yur thumb up. B. Yu can shake hands.
C. Yu can raise yur fingers. D. Yu can hld up yur frefinger.
34 After we read the passage, we learn that
A. we nly cmmunicate by using wrds
B. Bush's visit t Australia in 1992 is successful
C. it's implite t thumb dwn in Australia
D. yu can stretch yurself in public in Australia
35. Wh is the passage written fr?
A. Turists. B. Businessmen. C. Officials. D. Players.
D
Many peple believe that , by the year 2100, we will live n the planet Mars . Here is what life culd be like.
First f all, transprt shuld be much better. By 2100, ceship can travel at half f the speed f light. 36
Secndly, humans need fd, water and air t live. Scientists shuld be able t find plants that can grw n Mars. These plants will prvide us with fd and air.
37 We culd easily jump t high and fly slwly away int ce T prevent this, humans n Mars have t wear special shes t make themselves heavier.
Life n Mars will be better in many ways 38 It is pssible t live in a large building with many bedrms. Then , rbts will d mst f the wrk, s we have mre time fr hbbies.
39 Every student can study, d their hmewrk n the cmputer and take exams in nline schls. Each student will als have their wn nline teacher called“E-teacher”.
Hwever, in sme ways, life n Mars may nt be better than that n the earth tday 40 Meals will prbably be in the shape f pills and will nt be as delicius as they are tday. Als, ce travel will make many peple feel ill.
根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺、 内容完整。
A. Fd will nt be the same.
B. First, peple will have mre ce.
C. There will prbably be n schls n Mars.
D. There is a prblem fr us t live n Mars.
E. It might take us tw r three days t get t Mars.
三、完形填空(15 小题, 每小题1分, 共 15分)
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
Meimei is a girl frm a village far away It has been sme mnths 41 she mved t the city She is a girl 42 studies hard 43 she is als an hnest girl, the gvernment sent her t the lcal junir high schl 44 learning.Shes here are warm and friendly, she still has difficulties at schl, especially in English learning.She felt 45 She sat in 46 at the English class She 47 t d grup wrk, nly watching thers withut a wrd. Sn the teacher fund this and asked her reasn Meimei is such an 48 girl and she tld the teacher what she thught She haven't learned 49 language befre She 50 nt speak English because she is afraid f making mistakes English is difficult 51 her ability Besides, she will nt have chances t g t ther cuntries The teacher 52 why we Chinese shuld learn English well. Fr instance, English is a gd tl t knw the utside wrld. The teacher als gave her sme advice n 53 t learn English well, like previewing befre class r singing English sngs. She has studied hard frm then n. Nw Meimei can prnunce the wrds 54 The teacher 55 her change She hpes that Meimei can make great prgress.
41. A. since B. fr C. after D. befre
42. A. whm B. which C. whse D. wh
43. A. After B. Because C. Befre D. S
44. A. Althugh B. If C. Since D. As
45. A. excited B. interested C. active D. sad
46. A. victry B. curage C. silence D. palace
47. A. refused B. achieved C. bre D. created
48. A. sleepy B. hnest C. bred D. silly
49. A. native B. sleepy C. certain D. freign
50. A. dare B. shuld C. need D. must
51. A. inside B. thrugh C. beynd D. including
52. A. divided B. previewed C. mentined D. explained
53. A. why B. hw C. when D. where
54. A. widely B. ttally C. prperly D. wisely
55. A. is pleased with B. is wrried abut C. is similar t D. is famus fr
四、语篇填空(15 小题, 每小题1分, 共15分)
第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、 意思完整。每空限填一词， 每词限用一次。
prbably shrt return relative when with bring little gd satisfy
When I was 11, my huse was n fire in the middle f the night. Luckily, my parents and I ran ut f the huse alng 56 ur pets We had nthing but the clthes we had been sleeping in. I spent the rest f that summer night with my family waiting fr help We didn't knw what culd 57 take place next
The next day, my mm 58 me a few T shirts and pairs f jeans frm her friend One pair f jeans was t 59 and the ther pair was t lng, but I didn’t care At 60 I had sme clthes again At the same time, my dad 61 t ur hme t see what he culd get. The nly thing he culd find was my mm's wedding ring, but it was 62 than nthing
As mre summer days came, my dad was able t rent us an ld huse. As we mved in, ur 63 , friends, and ther peple in ur cmmunity dnated (捐赠)all they culd t help us. There were mre clthes, furniture, fd, mney, and even sme bks fr me t read These 64 ur daily needs
Lking back nw, I'm grateful fr everything we went thrugh that summer because it taught me s much abut life, lve, and peple 65 yu have nthing left but lve, that can still be enugh.
56 57 58 59 60 61 63 64 62 65
第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
Except Plut, there 66 eight planets in the slar system nw, including Earth. By the distance frm the Sun frm clse t far, they are Mercury, Venus, Earth,
Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune Plut used t be knwn as 67 smallest planet in ur slar system, and the furthest planet frm the Sun. Plut was discvered in 1930, and was named by an eleven-year-ld girl frm England. Plut is nly half 68 wide as the United States This planet takes 248 earth years t travel arund the Sun. It means we need 6.5 earth days t spend a day n Plut. Plut is abut 40 times farther frm the Sun than Earth is. Plut is in an area f ce called the Kuiper Belt 69 has thusands f small, icy bjects The temperature n Plut is 70 lw that Earth air wuld turn int ice sn The gravity n Plut is less strnger than that n Earth. S fat persns may prefer t mve there, they wuld weigh much less n Plut.
66 67 68 69 70
五、补全对话(5 小题，每小题2分，共10分)
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、 完整。
A: Hi, Jhn. What are yu ding?
B: I'm thinking abut ging smewhere nice with my parents after the exam.71. ?
A:Why dn't yu g t Dunhuang? Yu can g t the Mga Caves.
B: 72 We als went t Mingsha Muntain, Crescent Spring and Yumen Pass. We had a gd trip there.
A:73 ? The beach city is a perfect place fr the summer hlidays.
B:Qingda is a lvely place, but it's a bit far away frm here. We want a shrt trip.
A:74
B:I dn't like the infrmatin in travel guidebks.
A:Then yu can g t the travel website t see the real experiences f the netizens(网友) and ask them fr help.
B:75 Thank yu
A:Yu're welcme.
六、书面表达(20分)
假如你是李华，你三年没见的美国笔友 Tny，打算春节到成都旅游，他将于2024年1月30日上午10 点到达成都双流国际机场。你到时会穿着红色外套在1号出口处等他。在你给他的回信中还会包括以下内容， 同时为了提升你的英语，请在信中礼貌地向他请教两条提升英语的方法。
注意：
1. 词数: 100 左右;
2. 开头已经给出，不计入总词数之中。
3. 参考词汇: 成都双流国际机场(Chengdu Shuangliu Internatinal Airprt), 1号出口处 (Exit 1)
Dear Tny,
I'm glad t hear frm yu.



Yurs,
Li Hua
英语试题听力材料
听力材料
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: Judy, I hear yu will jin the summer camp in Australia.
W: Yes, I have a gd chance t practice English.
2. M: Thank gdness. We get t the airprt n time. It’s 5 ’clck nw.
W: Yes, the flight is leaving in half an hur.
3. M: My English is imprved a lt these days. Keeping a diary in English suits me.
W: Glad t hear that. Yu shuld stick t it.
4. M: Oh, Tina. Yu are making a mdel plane. Did yu make the mdel ship?
W: N, Tm. It was made by yur cusin.
5. M: Thanks t Dr. Carrier, he invented the air cnditiner fr us.
W:Yes, he invented it in 1902. But 50 years later it began entering ur hmes.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
M: Hi, Linda! What beautiful flwers! Did yu pick them in the garden?
W: Oh, n. They are made f silk. They are similar t real flwers.
M: Amazing! Can yu make flwers with paper r plastic?
W: Of curse. I will use these flwers t decrate the living rm.
M: Hw lng did yu make them?
W: Frm last Sunday t this Friday.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
W: Jack, what are yu planning t d this Sunday?
M: I plan t g t the Science Museum.
W: Why?
M: Because I am interested in ceships. What abut yu, Mary?
W: Me, t.
M: Hw abut we g there tgether?
W: Gd idea. What time d we leave?
M: Let’s make it nine ’clck in the mrning.
W: OK. See yu then.
M: See yu.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。
Hi, everyne! I am happy here t share my experience in learning English. My favrite kind f English hmewrk is acting ut a play. It can help me t imprve language skills and make me cnfident.
Last year, my teacher asked us t perfrm the play Little Red Riding Hd in a grup f fur. Firstly, I read the play with grup members and we shared ur understanding f the play. Then, I practiced the lines a lt. My spken English is imprved. In the end, we put n a great shw and wn praise. S far, I have perfrmed fur English plays. Nw I am interested in perfrming and feel brave enugh t shw myself in frnt f the public. My English language skills have als imprved a lt. That’s all. Thank yu fr listening.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
M: Hi, Judy. Yu can visit Disneyland with me this hliday.
W: Thank yu, dad. I can’t wait t see Mickey Muse. But which Disneyland?
M: Hw abut Hng Kng Disneyland, China?
W: Why nt g t Shanghai Disneyland? I haven’t been t mainland China befre.
M: Perfect! We can als have a visit in Shanghai.
W: Is it OK t take a ship t China?
M: That’s nt a gd idea. It will take us half a mnth t g by ship. We must g by air.
W: OK, dad.
第三节 听下面一篇短文，按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
Hell, everyne! Welcme t Xizang. It is in the suthwest f China. It is well knwn as “Rf f the Wrld”. It cvers an area f 1.2 millin square kilmeters. The average height f the whle regin is mre than 4,000 meters abve sea level. Lasa is its capital city. In summer, maybe yu can als enjy snw muntains, and yu can’t miss the famus Jade Dragn Snw Muntain. Namts Lake is the largest lake in Xizang. It is als the time fr majr festivals and activities in Xizang, such as Shtn Festival, Hrse Racing Festival, etc.
Gd health is ne f the mst imprtant. Preparing suitable medicines is necessary fr the jurney. There is a big temperature difference between day and night, s warm clthes in summer are still needed. Cmfrtable walking shes are als needed.
答案
一、1-5 B B A C A 6-10 A C A C C 11-15 C C C A B 16-20 A C B E D
二、21-25 B C DA D 26-30 ADCAB 31-35 CBDCA 36-40 EDBCA
三、41-45 ADBAD 46-50 CABDA 51-55 CDBCA
四、56-60 with prbably brught shrt least
61-65 returned better relatives satisfied When
66-70 are the as which / that s
五、71. any ideas/Culd yu give me sme advice/...
72. We went there last summer/ We have been there befre/...
73. What abut Qingda/Hw abut Qingda ...
74.Yu’d better find sme advice /infrmatin in a travel guidebk/ travel guidebks/...
75. That’s a gd idea/ Sunds gd /Gd idea/ ...
六、
Dear Tny,
I’m glad t hear frm yu. We haven’t seen each ther fr three years. Hw is it ging? I have changed a lt since three years ag. Yu knw I used t be shrt and heavy, but I am tall and thin nw. I am mre utging than I was three years ag. I als study harder and I get better grades nw. What abut yu? D yu have any changes?
I am glad that yu are ging t take a trip t Chengdu during the Spring Festival. Yu will get t Chengdu Shuangliu Internatinal Airprt at 10 a.m. n January 15th, 2023, I will meet yu then at Exit 1 and I will wear a red cat.
During yur visit, yu will visit places f interest in Chengdu with me and taste different Sichuan fd. It is really delicius. Of curse, we will eat dumplings n the Spring Festival, the mst imprtant festival in China. Family will get tgether happily and enjy a big meal during it.
I believe yu will have a gd time. By the way, can yu teach me tw ways t imprve my English? I lk frward t yur letter.
Yurs,
Li Hua
GREEN
Celebrated n April 22 each year, the Wrld Earth Day draws attentin t the need t build a healthier planet. Hw can yu help? Take the fllwing actins.
Cunt hw many plastic prducts yu use in yur
huse. It's imprtant t knw abut yur family's plastic usage and spend time researching green prducts. Then try t use them in yur everyday life.
Eat plant-based meals. It's ne f the healthiest things yu can d fr yur bdy and the envirnment. Yu can ck by fllwing a plant-based recipe (食谱) r creating yur wn recipe with lts f plant fd.
Use the Glbal Earth Challenge app t cllect infrmatin abut different envirnmental prblems in yur area. This is a gd way t teach yurself and thers hw t help prtect the planet.
Anther fun activity is t make handicrafts (手工艺品). It can be an artwrk, a birdhuse, r a ty, but remember t use recycled materials.