江苏省盐城市滨海县2021-2022学年七年级上学期期中考试英语试卷

这是一份江苏省盐城市滨海县2021-2022学年七年级上学期期中考试英语试卷，共20页。

同学们好！我是Hb。到了收获季节了，让我们一起参加期中检测吧！
请认真思考，工整答题。相信自己，你一定很棒！
注意事项：
1. 本试卷包含第I卷选择题（第1～70小题）、第II卷非选择题（第71～110小题及书面表达题）。考试时间为90分钟，卷面总分为150分。考试形式为闭卷。
2. 本试卷中所有试题必须作答在答题卡上规定的位置，否则不给分。
3. 答题前，务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用书写黑色字迹的0.5毫米签字笔填写在试卷及答题卡上。
第 = 1 \* ROMAN I卷（选择题，共80分）
一、听一听（共25小题，每小题1分，计25分）
A. 请帮助Hb选出所听到的内容。
1. Smetimes I listen t music. It makes me feel ___________.
A. greatB. happy C. lucky
2. Lve may nt ___________ help peple, but smetimes it helps a lt.
A. always B. usuallyC. ften
3. The ___________ is nly pen in the afternn.
A. libraryB. museumC. hall
4. They like t g ___________ n a ht summer afternn.
A. shppingB. fishing C. swimming
5. I ften talk abut basketball ___________ with my classmates after class.
A. clubs B. teams C. matches
B. 请帮助Hb根据所听到的对话选出正确的答案。
6. What d Daniel and his classmates ften d after schl?
A.B.C.
7. Which pht des the girl want t shw t the by?
A.B.C.
8. Hw des Simn g t the park?
A.B.C.
9. Which subject des Millie like?
A.B.C.

10. Where des Andy live nw?
A. Beijing.B. Tianjin. C. Shanghai.
11. When des Kitty ften watch TV?
A. In the afternn. B. In the evening. C. At the weekend.
12. What des Tm usually d at schl in the mrning?
A. Runs in the playgrund. B. Des mrning exercises. C. Plays games.
13. When des the by get up n Saturdays?
A. At 8:00 a.m. B. At 8:15 a.m. C. At 8:45 a.m.
14. When des Daniel have Maths lessns?
A. On Mnday. B. On Thursday. C. On Wednesday.
15. Hw lng des it take the by t g t schl by bike?
A. 30 minutes. B. 20 minutes. C. 10 minutes.
C. 请帮助Hb根据所听的一段对话和两篇短文选择正确的答案。
听下面一段对话，回答第16至17小题。
16. What’s the by’s favurite sprt?
A. Basketball. B. Tennis. C. Ftball.
17. Wh des the by play his favurite sprt with?
A. His parents. B. His classmates. C. His brther.
听下面一篇短文，完成第18至20小题。根据短文内容，完成信息记录表。
18. A. busB. taxi C. train
19. A. visits friends B. writes reprts C. has meetings
20. A. at B. befre C. after
听下面一篇短文，完成第21至25小题。
21. What des Susan like?
A. Buying balls. B. Ding sprts. C. Listening t music.
22. Hw many vlleyballs des Susan have?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three.
23. What can we find under Susan’s bed?
A. Sme balls. B. Sme shes. C. Sme bks.
24. What des James d?
A. A basketball player. B. A vlleyball player.C. A sprts fan.
25. What des Susan d well in?
A. Ftball and basketball. B. Vlleyball and basketball.
C. Ftball and baseball.
二、选一选（共25小题，每小题1分，计25分）
A1. 判断划线部分读音是否相同，相同的在答题卡上填涂A，不同的在答题卡上填涂B。
26. grade, age 27. fine, with 28. hme, nse
29. bring, clean 30. eat, bread
A2. 选出单词中划线部分的正确读音。
B. 下面有一些单项选择题，爱动脑筋的你帮Hb选选看。
36. Millie has _________ e-dg. Its name is Hb.
A. aB. anC. the D. /
37. Kitty and I _________ in Class 1, Grade 7.
A. amB. is C. are D. be
38. Liu Ta _________ English. He reads it every mrning.
A. like B. likes C. dn’t like D. desn’t like
39. —Tm, what is yur _________? —I like singing very much.
A. name B. jb C. hbby D. age
40. My sister wants t buy a lt f things _________ Nvember 11.
A. in B. at C. f D. n
41. Eddie is very lazy and fat. He always ges t sleep after meals and he _________ des sprts.
A. neverB. ftenC. usually D. always
42. —Des yur schl have an Open Day?
—Yes. And parents can _________ ur lessns n that day.
A. listen B. lk C. watch D. read
43. Let _________ be friends. OK?
A. us B. weC. me D. I
44. Our club is very small, and we nly have _________ members here.
A. a fewB. few C. a little D. little
45. Xu Xin practises _________ table tennis every day.
A. play B. t playC. playing D. plays
46. It takes Mum abut ne hur _________ dinner every day.
A. cks B. ck C. cking D. t ck
47. Mrning exercises can help us _________ the day.
A. get ready frB. lk fr C. ask fr D. lk after
48. Yancheng is _________ Beijing, s we’ll g n hliday there by plane.
A. awayB. far awayC. away frm D. far away frm
49.—Hw lng d yu take exercise every day?
—_________.
A. Every MndayB. Fr tw hursC. Twice a day D. At 10 a.m.
50. —There is a vlleyball match between ur class and Class 3 tmrrw.
—_________!
A. That’s all rightB. Wish yu gd luckC. I lve vlleyball D. Let me see
三、读一读（50分）
A. Hb不小心将咖啡洒到了一些单词上，他有点吃不准了。帮他选一选吧！（10分）
Lily is a middle schl student. She usually 51 early in the mrning. She always has 52 at 7:00. Then she ges t schl at abut half past seven. Lily lves her schl and she is never 53 fr schl.
She has fur 54 in the mrning and tw in the afternn. At abut twelve, she cmes back 55 lunch. She isn’t busy in the afternn. After schl, she lves playing with her friends. It makes her feel 56 .
Her parents cme back frm wrk in the evening. 57 have dinner tgether. After that, Lily takes a walk in the garden with her mther. Her father 58 newspapers. Befre ging t bed, Lily des sme 59 fr half an hur. She likes the wrld f clrs. Her mther always listens t music fr sme time. Her father is busy. There is 60 cmputer wrk fr him t d. Smetimes he wrks late till (直到) night.
51. A. reads bksB. des hmewrk C. gets up D. ges t bed
52. A. breakfastB. lunch C. supper D. dinner
53. A. busyB. gd C. early D. late
54. A. schlsB. lessns C. classrms D. friends
55. A. abutB. fr C. in D. with
56. A. great B. sad C. bad D. angry
57. A. We B. Yu C. They D. Them
58. A. lks B. watches C. reads D. sees
59. A. swimming B. cleaning C. shpping D. drawing
60. A. t muchB. t many C. much t D. many t
B. Hb可喜欢阅读了！和他比一比，看看谁理解能力强。（每题2分，计20分）
B1
Wuld yu like t play sprts utside? In fact, sme peple dn’t like t play sprts. They dn’t want t be tired. But I like playing sprts. It is an imprtant thing in my life. Playing sprts has many advantages (优势).
◆It can make us very happy and excited.
◆It can make us sleep better at night.
◆It can help grw tall and strng. Fr example, playing basketball helps us grw tall.
◆It can help us make mre friends. When we play sprts, we have mre chances (机会) t meet ther peple. If yu als like t play sprts, we can be friends easily.
61. Sme peple dn’t like t play sprts, because they think it makes them _________.
A. tall B. tired C. ill D. strng
62. Accrding t the passage, which sprt can help us grw tall?
A. B.C. D.
63. Hw many advantages f sprts are there in the passage?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur. D. Five.
64. Which f the fllwing is NOT mentined (提到) in the passage?
A. Playing sprts can make us sleep better at night.
B. Playing sprts can help us grw tall and strng.
C. Playing sprts can make us happy and excited.
D. Playing sprts can make us study well.
65. The passage is mainly (主要的) abut _________.
A. advantages f sprts B. making mre friends
C. hw t sleep well D. different hbbies
B2
Rberta, Peter and Phyllis live in a cmfrtable huse in Lndn. Rberta, r Bbbie as everyne calls her, is twelve. Peter cmes next. He’s ten and he wants t be an engineer (工程师). Phyllis is eight. She tries very hard t be gd. They are lucky children. They have a lt f tys, a beautiful playrm and a dg called James. They als have a wnderful mther. She is almst always at hme. She writes stries. She ften reads them t the children after tea. And their father is wnderful, t. He wrks very hard in a gvernment ffice all day, but he is always ready t play a game in the evening. They are a very happy family.
66. Hw many peple are there in the family?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five. D. Six.
67. What des everyne call Rberta?
A. Bbbie. B. Peter. C. Phyllis. D. James.
68. What des Peter want t be?
A. A player. B. A driver. C. A writer.D. An engineer.
69. Where des the father wrk?
A. At hme. B. In an ffice. C. In a playrm. D. At a railway statin.
70. What can we learn frm the passage abve?
A. The children live in a cmfrtable huse in the US.
B. Phyllis is the yungest by and he wants t wrk at the railway statin.
C. The father wrks very hard all day and he has n time t play with his children.
D. Edith Nesbit is the writer f the bk The Railway Children.
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题， 70分）
C. 任务型阅读理解（20分）
C1.阅读下面短文，从文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。(每空2分，计10分)
Hi! I’m Clin and I’m lking fr new friends! I’m 11 years ld, and I live in Nanjing. I have many hbbies. 71
I lve sprts! I like swimming, ftball and vlleyball, but my favurite sprt is basketball. I play it three times a week at a basketball club. 72 Many f my friends are in the club t. Ya Ming is my favurite basketball player. 73 At weekends I like t play basketball with my friends. We ften talk abut basketball and watch basketball matches n TV.
74
What d yu like? D yu like sprts? D yu like music?
75
Clin
A. It’s n Mndays, Wednesdays and Thursdays.
B. I als like drawing and listening t music in my free time.
C. Send me a letter and we can be friends.
D. They make me happy.
E. I practice it every day.
F. I hpe t be a gd basketball player like him.
C2. 根据所给短文简要回答下列问题，答案不超过6个单词 (每题2分，计10分)。
Jim and Meg g t schl. Jim likes reading. Meg likes math. Jim and Meg have a lt f hmewrk.
“Ww,” says Meg. “I have six math prblems t d.”
“Oh, n,” says Jim. “I have ten math prblems t d.”
Meg helps Jim with his math hmewrk. Jim wrks each prblem. Meg checks each prblem.
“Gd jb,” says Meg. “Nw I have t read a bk fr class.”
“Let me help yu,” says Jim.
Jim helps Meg with her reading hmewrk. Meg reads each page. Jim helps her read big wrds.
“Great jb!” says Jim.
“That was a lt f hmewrk,” says Meg.
“I am happy we are dne,” says Jim.
“Me t,” says Meg.
“Nw we can g utside and play!” says Jim.
“OK. Tag, yu are it!” Meg runs ut the dr.
76. Wh likes reading? ▲ ▲
77. Hw des Jim help Meg with her reading hmewrk? ▲ ▲
78. Hw d they feel when they are dne with their hmewrk? ▲ ▲
79. What d Meg and Jim d after that? ▲ ▲
80. What d yu think f the tw children? ▲ ▲
四、写一写（共50分）
下面要动笔写单词、短语和句子了。和Hb比一比，看谁做得又快又准又工整！
A. 词汇(共25小题，每题1分，计25分)
A1. 根据句意和音标、中文或提示, 用适当形式完成句子中所缺的单词。（15分）
81. I am very ▲ /ɡlæd/ t see yu here, Mr. Smith.
82. It is ▲ / fʌn / t play with these cute dgs and cats.
83. Our city is a ▲ /'mɒdn / city with many beautiful parks and tall buildings.
84. Lucy wants t practise English, s she keeps ▲ /'daɪəriz/ in English every day.
85. Sandy is a shy girl. She ▲ /'seldəm/ talks with her classmates.
86. ▲ (每人) gets free new bks at the beginning f this term.
87. This bk is ▲ (确实) interesting. Wuld yu like t read it?
88. Amy’s favurite subject is ▲ (地理) because she lves traveling.
89. Grandpa needs a gd ▲ (休息) after lunch every day.
90. I dn’t knw the ▲ (原因) why Jim desn’t talk with us.
91. There are eight ▲ (her) in the TV series Medal f the Republic.
92. Our schl has a ▲ (parent) meeting every year.
93. Thanks fr ▲ (tell) me the gd news.
94. Millie enjys ▲ (chat) with her friends after class.
95. Which f the subjects d yu like ▲ (gd), Eddie?
A2. 根据首字母提示填写短文中所缺单词。答题卡上填写完整单词 (计10分)
Hw d yu get t schl? D yu g t schl n f 96 r by bike? D yu take a bus r a train? Fr many students, it is e 97 t get t schl. B 98 fr the students in ne small village (村庄) in China, it is difficult. There is a very big r 99 between their schl and the village. There is n bridge r bat, s 100 these students g n a rpeway (索道) t schl.
One 11-year-ld by, Liangliang, ges n a rpeway every schl day. He lves schl. “I lve t play with my c 101 . We play many k 102 f games. And I lve my teacher. H 103 is like a father t me.”
Many f the students and villagers never leave the village. It is their d 104 t have a bridge. Can their wish cme t 105 ? Yes! The Chinese gvernment helps wrk ut the prblem. The children can g t schl safely nw!
B. 完成对话。根据对话意思，填入单词。（每空一词，每词1分，计10分）
106. A: ▲ ▲ Andy lk?
B: He lks tall and strng.
107. A: D yu have a library?
B: Yes. I ften brrw interesting ▲ ▲ it.
108. A: ▲ ▲ des Hb g n a picnic?
B: Abut nce a mnth.
109. A: D yu enjy yur schl life?
B: Sure, I am happy and always have ▲ ▲ my schl.
110. A: What’s yur favurite sprt?
B: I like basketball. I’m a ▲ ▲ ur schl basketball team.
C. 书面表达（15分）
假如你是希望中学的学生李莉, 你收到一封来自英国笔友桑迪的电子邮件。请你根据邮件内容，用英语给桑迪回封电子邮件。
Dear Lily,
Hw are yu these days? I knw yu are frm China. What’s yur schl like? What are yur favurite subjects at schl? What d yu like t d after schl? What abut yur teachers and classmates?
Write sn!
Yurs,
Sandy
要求：1.包含全部要点，可适当发挥； 2.不能出现真实的校名及姓名；
3.开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数； 4.词数控制在80词左右。
Dear Sandy,
I’m fine these days. ▲ ▲ ▲
▲ ▲ ▲
▲ ▲ ▲
I hpe yu can cme and visit ur schl sme day!
Yurs
Lily
（恭喜你顺利完成答卷！再检查一遍吧！）
2021—2022学年度第一学期期中考试
七年级英语听力材料
A. 请帮助Hb选出所听到的内容。
本部分共有5小题，每小题你将听到一句话。在听每句话前，你将有5秒钟时间阅读题目；听完后，你将有5秒钟的时间选择你认为最合适的备选答案。
1. Smetimes I listen t music. It makes me feel happy.
2. Lve may nt always help peple, but smetimes it helps a lt.
3. The library is nly pen in the afternn.
4. They like t g swimming n a ht summer afternn.
5. I ften talk abut basketball matches with my classmates after class.
B. 请帮助Hb根据所听到的对话选出正确的答案。
本部分共有10小题，每小题你将听到一段对话。在听每段对话前，你将有5秒钟时间阅读题目；听完后，你将有5秒钟时间选择你认为最合适的备选答案。
6. W: What d Daniel and his classmates ften d after schl?
M: They ften play basketball in the playgrund.
7. W: D yu want t lk at the pht f ur new reading rm? I have ne here.
M: OK. Let me have a lk. Oh, it lks new and bright.
8. W: Hw d yu g t the park, Simn? D yu g there n ft?
M: Yes, I walk there. Yu knw I live near the park.
9. M: D yu like studying Histry, Millie?
W: N, I dn’t. I am gd at Maths.
10. W: Andy was brn in Beijing.
M: Really? But he desn’t live in Beijing. He lives in Tianjin nw.
11. M: I watch TV every day. D yu like watching TV, Kitty?
W: Yes. But I nly watch TV at the weekend.
12. W: Tm, d yu d mrning exercises at schl?
M: N, we dn’t. We usually run in the playgrund in the mrning.
13. W: What d yu ften d n Saturdays?
M: I’m nt busy n Saturdays, s I get up at a quarter past eight.
14. W: We have Maths lessns n Mnday. What abut yu, Daniel?
M: We have Maths lessns n Thursday.
15. W: Is yur hme far frm yur schl?
M: Yes, it is. It takes me half an hur t get t schl by bike.
C. 请帮助Hb根据所听的一段对话和两篇短文选择正确的答案。
本部分共10小题，每段对话或短文后各有几道小题。听每段对话或短文前，你将有时间阅读相关小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，你将有5秒钟的时间选择答案。
听下面一段对话，回答第16～17小题。
W: What’s yur favurite sprt?
M: I like playing ftball.
W: D yu ften play it?
M: N. I nly play ftball at the weekend.
W: Wh d yu ften play with?
M: My classmates.
听下面一篇短文，完成第18～20小题。根据短文内容，完成信息记录表。
My name is Daniel. Every mrning, I get up at half past seven and leave my huse at eight. It takes me abut an hur t get t wrk. First, I take the undergrund. After three stps, I get ff and catch a bus. This takes me t my ffice. After wrking in the mrning, I have lunch at twelve. In the afternn, I usually have sme meetings. I finish wrking at six. I ften feel tired after a day’s wrk, s I g hme and have a gd rest. I always g t bed befre eleven ’clck.
听下面一篇短文，回答第21～25小题。
My friend Susan is a sprts fan. She likes playing ftball, basketball, vlleyball and baseball. She has many balls, ne ftball, tw baseballs, three vlleyballs and fur basketballs. They are all under her bed. Susan plays basketball very well. She likes James, the NBA basketball star. She thinks James is the best basketball player in America. Susan plays vlleyball very well t. Nw she is in the Vlleyball Club f her schl.Daniel’s Day
Mrning
He gets up at 7:30.
He takes the undergrund and then takes a 18 t g t wrk.
Afternn
He usually 19 .
Evening
He has a rest at hme.
He ges t bed 20 11 p.m.
31. hpe
A. /ɒ/
B. /əʊ/
C. /ɜ:/
D. /ə/
32. sun
A. /ju:/
B. /e/
C. /i:/
D. /ʌ/
33. bk
A. /ɒ/
B. /u:/
C. /ʊ/
D. /e/
34. wrld
A. /ɑ:/
B. /i:/
C. /u:/
D. /ɜ:/
35. usually
A. /ʒ/
B. /j/
C. /s/
D. /z/
2021—2022学年度第一学期期中考试
七年级英语参考答案
一、听一听（共25分，每小题1分）
1-5. BAACC6-10. BCCAB 11-15. CABBA
16-20. CBACB21-25. BCAAB
二、选一选（共25分）
A1.判断下列各组单词中的划线部分读音是否相同（每小题1分，计5分）
26-30. ABABB
A2.选出单词中划线部分的正确读音。（每小题1分，计5分）
31-35. BDCDA
B.单项选择题。（每小题1分，计15分）
36-40. BCBCD 41-45. ACAAC 46-50. DADBB
三、读一读（共50分）
A. Hb不小心将咖啡洒到了一些单词上，他有点吃不准了。请你帮他选一选吧。（每小题1分，计10分）
51-55. CADBB56-60. ACCDA
B. Hb可喜欢阅读了！一起和他读下面的两篇短文并选出每题的正确答案吧（每题2分，计20分）
61-65. BACDA66-70. CADBD
C1阅读短文，根据短文内容完成表格中所缺信息，每空一词。(每词1分，计10分)
71-75. DAFBC
C2. 根据所给短文简要回答下列问题。答案不超过6个词(每题2分，计10分)
Jim.
He helps her read big wrds.
They feel happy. / Happy.
They g utside and play.
They are kind / nice / helpful. (答案合理均可得分)
四、写一写（共50分）
A1.完成句子中所缺的单词。(每题1分，计15分)
81. glad82. fun 83. mdern84. diaries85. seldm
86. Everyne87. really88. Gegraphy89. rest90. reasn
91. heres92. parents’93. telling94. chatting95. best
A2. 根据首字母提示填写短文中所缺单词。答题卡上填写完整单词(每题1分，计10分)
96. ft97. easy98. But99. river100. s
101. classmates102. kinds103. He104. dream105. true
B. 句型转换。（每空一词，每词1分，计10分）
106. Hw, des 107. bks, frm 108. Hw ften109. fun, in/at 110. member f
C. 书面表达（15分）
Dear Sandy,
I’m fine these days. I study at Hpe Middle Schl. My schl is nt very big but it is clean and tidy. There is an art rm, a music rm and tw reading rms. We study lts f subjects but I like English and Maths best.
After schl, I can d sme after-schl activities with my classmates in the playgrund. I like vlleyball very much. I am a member f the schl vlleyball club. We practise vlleyball after schl every day.
Our teachers are nice and kind. I als like my classmates because they ften help me. I like my schl very much. I hpe yu can cme and visit ur schl sme day.
Yurs,
Li Mei
档次
给分
标准
第五档
15-13分
内容涵盖所有的要点，表达准确，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有极个别语言错误，书写规范美观。
第四档
12-10分
内容涵盖所有的要点，表达清楚，意思连贯，符合逻辑，但有少数语言错误，书写工整。
第三档
9-7分
内容涵盖大部分要点，表达较为清楚、连贯，基本符合逻辑，但有较多的语言错误，字迹清楚。
第二档
6-4分
内容涵盖部分要点，能写出少量正确句子，但整体表达不太连贯，且语言错误多，字迹较马虎。
第一档
3-1分
只能写出一些单词，不成句子，缺乏逻辑性，错误很多，卷面不整洁。
0分
没有作答，或者只是抄写了无关的内容