甘肃省陇南市西和县2023-2024学年九年级上学期期末英语试题
展开考生注意: 本试卷不含听力, 满分为150分, 考试时间为120分钟。所有的试题均在答题卡上作答, 否则无效。
I、单词辨音(共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分)
从A、B、C、D四个选项中, 找出画线部分与其他三个单词画线部分读音不同的选项。
1. A. ther B. nin C. pliceman D. ven
2. A. warm B. park C. arm D. party
3. A. picnic B. life C. big D. sit
4. A. picture B. call C. nice D. music
5. A. textbk B. teenage C. ttal D. patient
II、语法与情景对话(共20小题; 每小题1分, 满分20分)
阅读下列各题, 从A、B、C、D四个选项中选择一个最佳答案。
6. —D yu knw the man in a black cat?
— Yes, he is____________ new teacher. He teaches____________ English this term.
A. us; us B. us; ur C. ur; us D. ur; ur
7. ____________peple attended such an imprtant meeting last night.
A. Tw hundreds B. Tw hundred C. Tw hundreds f D. Hundred f
8. We becme happier when we knw that ur hlidays are____________ than last year.
A. thinner B. less C. lnger D. faster
9. Yu'd better____________ hme t late, r yur parents will be angry.
A. return B. t nt return C. returning D. nt return
10. Cars make ur lives easier, ____________they have als made prblems fr ur envirnment,
A. but B. r C. s D. if
11. —Kevin, is this yur ntebk?
—N, it____________ be Alice's. Lk, her name is n it.
A. must B. can C. can't D. shuldn't
12. Everyne passed the exam____________ him. S he was sad.
A. beside B. including C. except D. with
13. —We will visit the museum next week.
—Sunds____________.
A. really B. gd C. best D. sweet
14. The singer writes wrds and music fr many sngs by____________, Her fans think she is creative.
A. myself B. herself C. himself D. themselves
15. The 33rd Olympic Games____________ in Paris in July, 2024.
A. is held B. was held C. will hld D. will be held
16. Bb ften helped ut at the ld peple's hme in his spare time____________ he was at cllege.
A. hw B. where C. when D. wh
17. —It's impssible____________ me t finish the wrk in three days.
—OK. I'll help yu if necessary.
A. f B. fr C. abut D. at
18. —Is this mbile phne____________?
—N, it isn't. I am just thinking f buying____________.
A. yur, it B. yur; ne C. yurs; it D. yurs; ne
19. —I frgt t bring my umbrella. What shuld I d?
—____________. I can send yu hme.
A. Dn't wrry B. I'm afraid nt C. See yu D. I think s
20. —The dish is a little cld. Let me____________ it fr yu.
—It's really kind f yu.
A. perfrm B. heat C. invent D. praise
21. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the right picture?
A. They are visiting the art museum. B. They are watering the flwers.
C. They are flying a kite. D. They are eating breakfast.
22. —____________, Bill?
—Mr. Liu. He teaches us very well and we all like him.
A. Hw is yur Sunday B. Wh's yur Chinese teacher
C. Where's yur father D. What is the name f the girl
23. —I dn't knw when____________ the day after tmrrw.
—I'll call yu when____________.
A. he will leave; he will leave B. will he leave; he leaves
C. he will leave; he leaves D. he leaves; he will leave
24. Jim, take this map t____________ yu can find the way t yur htel.
A. make sure B. care abut C. think f D. bring ut
25. Which f the fllwing shws that yu can park yur car here?
A. B. C. D.
II、完形填空(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳答案。
Fr many peple, music is just fr fun. Peple use music fr singing, dancing, and smetimes 26 . But d yu knw that music can als help peple? Music can be very pwerful. It can make us feel better. Music therapy(治疗)means 27 music t help peple be healthy r t get better if they are 28 . There are sme dctrs wh heal(治疗)peple with music. They are called music therapists.
Music therapy can help peple with prblems in their brain. Peple 29 have Alzheimer's disease ften have truble remembering things. Smetimes they can even 30 their names and families. This can be very sad. Music can help 31 the part f the brain that helps peple remember. One persn wh 32 knws abut music therapy is Gabby Giffrds. In 2011, Gabby's 33 was injured. Her brain was s hurt that she culd nt speak any mre. But after listening t music fr many mnths, Gabby Giffrds learned hw t 34 again.
Music can als help us in 35 ways. Scientists tell us that music can make us feel happier when we are sad. Playing a musical instrument als helps us learn better at ther things!
26. A. bring B. dangerus C. relaxing D. unusual
27. A. taking B. using C. listening D. making
28. A. full B. angry C. hungry D. sick
29. A. when B. wh C. hw D. where
30. A. frget B. remember C. hate D. miss
31. A. get up B. break up C. wake up D. light up
32. A. really B. seldm C. never D. partly
33. A. leg B. hand C. nse D. head
34. A. sing B. draw C. speak D. mve
35. A. different B. difficult C. expensive D. interesting
Ⅳ、阅读理解(共15小题; 每小题2分, 满分30分)
(A)
Peple usually hate mice, but ne muse has wn the hearts f peple all ver the wrld—the famus Mickey Muse(米老鼠).
Ninety years ag, mst mvies were silent. A man called Walt Disney made a cartn muse that culd talk in his mvies. He named his muse Mickey Muse. Peple bth yung and ld were very excited at the talking muse. Children lved t see their friend, because he brught jy and laughter t them. Mickey was a clean muse right frm the beginning. Perhaps this is ne reasn why peple hate real mice and lve Mickey Muse. In his early life, Mickey made sme mistakes. Peple were angry. They wrte t Disney and said that they didn't want Mickey t d silly things. S Disney made a new animal named Dnald Duck. He als made a dg called Plut. This dg des stupid things and makes mistakes wherever he ges. Nw ur Mickey Muse is nt nly clean but als imprtant. He appears as a beautiful and clever star. He has his friends in almst every cuntry.
阅读以上材料, 根据其内容判断下列句子正误。正确填(涂)A, 错误填(涂)B。
36. Mickey Muse first came ut in a mvie.
37. Peple dn't lve Mickey Muse because he is dirty.
38. The dg Plut makes mistakes wherever he ges.
39. Nw Mickey Muse appears as a beautiful and clever star.
40. Mickey Muse has n friends in the wrld.
(B)
阅读以上材料, 根据其内容回答其后各个小题。
41. What clr f flwers CAN'T be given at weddings in Russia?
A. Blue. B. Yellw. C. Purple. D. Pink.
42. If yu are invited t have dinner at 5 p.m. in Venezuela, when is a gd time t arrive?
A. 4:10 p. m. B. 4: 45 p. m. C. 5:00 p. m. D. 5:11 p. m.
43. Accrding t the text, which cuntry cares mst abut table manners?
A. Russia. B. Turkey. C. Nrway. D. Venezuela.
44. When a man wants t pay fr a whle meal fr yu in Turkey, what shuld yu d?
A. Ask fr a share f the bill. B. Rush t pay it all instead.
C. Invite him fr anther meal. D. Buy him smething with the same cst.
45. In which part f a magazine can we prbably read the passage?
A. CULTURE. B. HEALTH. C. MUSIC. D. ENVIRONMENT.
(C)
The rubber(橡胶)raincat was invented by Macintsh in 1823.
In 1492, Clumbus discvered the New Wrld the Americas. He brught a lt f things frm Suth America. Rubber was ne f them, but peple didn't knw the use f rubber at that time. In 1770, peple fund that the rubber culd be used as erasers.
Macintsh was a wrker in an eraser factry in England. One day he spilled(洒出)the rubber liquid(液体)ver his clthes carelessly when making erasers. He was t busy t clean it and went back hme wearing the dirty clthes. On the way hme, it rained heavily. Having n umbrella, Macintsh had t run hme quickly. When he gt hme, he tk ff the wet clthes. T his surprise, the area f the clthes with rubber wasn't wet. "Why nt make a rubber raincat?" Macintsh thught. The next day he brushed the rubber liquid all ver a cat. He wre the "rubber cat" n rainy days and tk a walk utdrs, t test if it culd really keep ff the rain. Surprisingly, the clthes inside the "rubber cat" weren't wet at all. The rubber raincat was created in this way by chance.
阅读以上材料, 根据其内容回答其后各个小题。
46. The rubber raincat was invented in___________.
A. China B. Australia C. England D. America
47. What did Clumbus bring back frm Suth America?
A. Umbrellas. B. Rubber. C. Erasers. D. Raincats.
48. What did Macintsh d?
A. A pstman. B. An artist. C. A pliceman. D. A wrker.
49. Why did Macintsh wear the "rubber cat" n rainy days?
A. T shw his nice "rubber cat". B. T sell it t a farmer.
C. T test if it culd keep ff the rain. D. T g t wrk in the field.
50. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Erasers were invented by Clumbus.
B. The rubber raincat was created by accident.
C. Macintsh wrked in a supermarket.
D. The umbrella was invented after the rubber raincat.
V、任务型完形填空(共10空; 每空1分, 满分10分)
用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空, 使短文通顺、正确、连贯, 每个单词限用一次。
What can yu d t 51 healthy? Perhaps fr children, healthy eating is ne f the mst imprtant things. Here are sme ideas abut 52 t eat healthily.
A gd breakfast is very imprtant t children. It's 53 t have it in the mrning. But sme children ften g t schl withut breakfast, just 54 they want t sleep a little lnger. Remember that a gd breakfast will help yu study 55 .
Milk is als very imprtant t children's 56 . It makes children grw strnger. It's better fr yu t have a glass f milk befre ging t bed. That will help yu have a gd 57 .
Having healthy fd is als very imprtant. That means eating 58 kinds f fd, especially fruit and vegetables. Dn't eat t 59 chclate r ice cream: Sme children lve eating fast fd, but it's nt gd fr their health. Try t eat healthy fd instead f fast fd. Have healthy eating habits, 60 yu will have a strng bdy.
VI、任务型阅读理解(共 5 小题; 每小题 2分, 满分 10分)
阅读下面材料, 并按要求完成61 至65小题。
I live in a large neighbrhd. I have lived here since I was brn. I have a lt f friends here. Mr. Wang is ne f them. He is seventy years ld. I enjy visiting Mr. Wang because he tells me exciting stries abut Hng Kng in the past. He als shws me ld phts. Yesterday, I visited Mr. Wang after schl. I asked him hw lng he had lived here. This is what he tld me:
"I have lived in the neighbrhd since 1993. Befre I mved here, I lived in a small village called Pak Mng n Lantau Island. There were many peple living in the village when I was yung. These years, there are nly a few families left. Mst families mved t the city fr wrk. I left the village in 1993, when my sn mved t this neighbrhd.
Pak Mng is an ld village. There are watchtwers(瞭望塔)arund the village. In the ld days, sldiers used t stand in the watchtwers and keep guard(站岗). Here is a pht f my schl. I went t that schl a very lng time ag. The schl has been clsed since 1985.
I enjy ging t the Peple's Park, because it makes me think f my hmetwn. I g t that park twice a week. Wuld yu and yur family members like t g there with me next weekend?"
61. Hw ld is Mr. Wang?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
62. Where did Mr. Wang live befre?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
63. When did Mr. Wang mve t the neighbrhd?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
64. Why des the man enjy ging t the Peple's Park?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
65. Hw ften des Mr. Wang g t the Peple's Park?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
VII、口语交际(共5小题; 每小题2分, 满分10分)
阅读下面的对话, 根据上下文, 从方框内选择恰当的选项补全对话, 使句意完整、符合逻辑。(其中有两项为多余选项)
A: Hi, Lucy! The cat in the pht is s cute. Whse is it?
B: 66
A: I lve its rund face. 67
B: It's called Smart.
A: Why?
B: 68 It can even pen the dr.
A: Hw amazing! That's a gd name fr it! 69
B: Tw years ld. By the way, d yu have a pet?
A: 70 My mther tld me t keep away frm pets.
B: Actually, pets can bring yu lts f pleasure.
VIII、词汇考查(共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
A)根据句意, 用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空。
71. The girl tld me that she wanted t be an English teacher when she____________(grw)up.
72. Shanghai is a large city n the____________(east)cast f China.
73. She gave an____________(interest)talk n her visit t China.
74. My sister is twelve years ld. And tday is her____________(twelve)birthday.
75. Finding a jb can be a lng and____________(pain)prcess.
76. I'll g hme as sn as I_____________(finish)my hmewrk.
77. His parents dn't let him watch TV, and they want him____________(study)hard.
78. There were 25____________(pliceman)n duty in and arund the stadium.
79. If yu cugh____________(bad), yu'd better stay at hme and have a gd rest.
80. Jim asked us what____________(happen)in the twn last night.
B)选出与句子画线部分意思相同或相近的选项。
81. Dn't get mad if I can't cme with yu.
A. angry B. happy C. excited D. interested
82. Althugh it was snwing heavily, I gt hme finally.
A. at first B. at nce C. at last D. at least
83. Can yu give me mre suggestins?
A. prcess B. advice C. energy D. purpses
84. David paid fr Jim because Jim was ut f mney.
A. rich B. pr C. plite D. useful
85. Bdy language varies frm culture t culture.
A. changes B. believes C. fails D. appears
IX、按要求完成句子(共10小题; 每空1分, 满分20分)
A)句型转换。按括号内的要求转换下列句型。(每空限填一词)
86. This is Kevin's CD player.(对画线部分提问)
____________CD player____________ this?
87. Peple plant trees in March every year.(改为被动语态)
Trees____________ ____________by peple in March every year.
88. Jhn used t be nervus befre tests.(改为一般疑问句)
____________Jhn____________ t be nervus befre tests?
89. The weather must be very cld utside.(变为否定句)
The weather____________ ____________very cld utside.
90. He is t tired t walk any mre.(改为同义句)
He is____________ tired____________ He can't walk any mre.
B)根据所给汉语提示完成下列句子。(每空限填一词)
91. 在一些国家按时到达很重要。
It's imprtant t arrive____________ ____________in sme cuntries.
92. 它是一只黑色的小狗, 它没有追着我跑。
It was a little black dg, it didn't____________ ____________me.
93. 过去她即使再忙也会坚持读书。
She kept n reading bks____________ ____________she was busy in the past.
94. 你很快就会习惯这里的气候。
Yu'll sn____________ ____________t the climate here.
95. 我的职责就是照看动物园里的这些动物。
My duty is t____________ ____________the animals in the z.
X、书面表达(满分15分)
假如你是李华, 你的好友Mike作为交换生要来中国, 他想了解中国的礼仪, 请你给他回一封电子邮件, 向他介绍一下中国礼仪。内容包括: 准时到达; 带份小礼物; 初次见面要握手; 2个餐桌礼仪。
要求:(1)条理清晰, 内容完整, 语句通顺, 书写工整;
(2)文中不得出现真实的人名和校名;
(3)不少于 80 词。
Dear Mike,
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
GS2023—2024学年第一学期质量监测(四)
九年级英语(人教版)参考答案
I、1—5CABCD
Ⅱ、6—10CBCDA 11—15ACBBD 16—20CB DAB 21—25CBCAB
I、26—30CBDBA 31—35CADCA
V、(A)36—40 ABAAB (B)41—45 BDCCA (C)46—50CBDC B
V、51. keep 52. hw 53. necessary 54. because 55. better 56. health
57. sleep 58. different 59. much 60. and
V、61. He is seventy/70 years ld.
62. He lived in a small village(called Pak Mng n Lantau Island).
63. In 1993.
64. Because it makes him think f his hmetwn.
65. Twice a week.
VII、66—70CFBED
VIII、A)71. grew 72. eastern 73. interesting 74. twelfth 75. painful
76. finish 77. t study 78. plicemen 79. badly 80. happened
B)81—85 ACBBA
IX、A)86. Whse is
87. are planted
88. Did use
89. can't be
90. s that
B)91. n time
92. run after
93. even if/even thugh
94. get used
95. lk after
X、略
Avid Giving Certain Flwers in Russia
Be careful when giving flwers t yur friend r a business partner in Russia. Yellw flwers mean a trick r a relatinship break-up. N red carnatins(康乃馨), t. Traditinally, red carnatins have a cnnectin with death.
Dn't Shw Up n Time in Venezuela
In Venezuela, if yu are invited ver t smene's hme fr a meal, it's suggested that yu arrive 10 t 15 minutes later than the planned time. Being early r n time is viewed as being rude there.
Always Use a Knife and Frk in Nrway
In Nrway, table manners are extremely imprtant. Mst meals, including sandwiches, are eaten using knives and frks.
Dn't Rush t Pay the Bill(抢着买单)in Turkey
When ding business in Turkey, it's the custm fr yur hst t pay fr yur meal. Request t split(平摊)the bill will be viewed as a plite way but wn't be accepted. If yu wuld like t pay yur share, Turks suggest inviting yur hst t dinner next time.
because keep and gd necessary sleep much healthy hw difference
A. Yes, I have a pet, t.
B. Because it's really smart.
C. It's my pet cat.
D. N, I dn't have ne thugh I lve pets t.
E. Hw ld is it?
F. What's its name?
G. It's kind f silly.
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