辽宁省沈阳市和平区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题
展开(本试题共65小题 满分120分 考试时间120分钟)
听力试题
(听力满分30分 听力时间20分钟)
一、短对话理解(共8小题;每小题1. 5分,共12分)
听下面8段短对话。每段对话后有一道小题,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the man?
A. A pliceman. B. A dctr. C. A teacher.
2. What clur jacket des the man like?
A. Blue. B. Brwn. C. Black.
3. What des the by d every night?
A. B. C.
4. Hw des Tm g t schl every day?
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On ft.
5. When des the plane leave?
A. At 3 p. m. B. At 5 p. m. C. At 6 p. m.
6. Why des Tm attend the Rbt Club?
A. Because his rbt is lst. B. Because his rbt is ld. C. Because his rbt is brken.
7. Where are Jack's ty cars?
A. On a tall shelf. B. In a big bx. C. Under his bed.
8. Which cuntry des Dave cme frm?
A. The US. B. The UK. C. Australia.
二、长对话理解(共12小题;每小题1. 5分,共18分)
听下面4段长对话。每段对话后有三道小题,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
听第9段材料,回答第9至11题。
9. Where is the girl?
A. In a bkstre. B. In a fruit stre. C. In a clthes stre.
10. What des the girl need?
A. A bk. B. A sweater. C. A watermeln.
11. Hw much is it?
A. Seven dllars. B. Eight dllars. C. Nine dllars.
听第10段材料,回答第12至14题。
12. What des Ben d every day?
A. He plays tennis. B. He plays ftball. C. He plays basketball.
13. Wh des Ben practise with?
A. Peter. B. Tm. C. Jhn.
14. Hw many times a day des Ben eat?
A. Three times. B. Fur times. C. Six times.
听第11段材料,回答第15至17题。
15. Wh is Alice calling?
A. Her mther. B. Her grandad. C. Her friend.
16. Where is Alice?
A. In Guangzhu. B. In Shenyang. C. In Shanghai.
17. Hw lng will Alice stay there?
A. Fr abut a week. B. Fr abut a mnth. C. Fr abut a year.
听第12段材料,回答第18至20题。
18. Where des the man want t g?
A. T the Great Wall. B. T Wangfujing Street. C. T the Summer Palace
19. Hw can the man get there accrding t the cnversatin?
A. By bus. B. On ft. C. By undergrund.
20. What des the man want t buy in the bkshp?
A. A map f Beijing. B. A Chinese dictinary. C. A guidebk f Beijing
笔试试题
(笔试时间:100分钟 满分:90分)
第一部分 选择题(共50分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分;满分40分)
第一节 阅读下面语言材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Welcme t Alley's Schl. Our schl is big and it has 600 students aged 13-15. Hwever, it nly had 100 students and fur teachers when it was pen n September 10th, 1961. Here is sme infrmatin abut my schl.
21. Hw many years f histry des Alley's Schl have?
A. 15B. 63C. 100D. 620
22. What can we knw abut Alley's Schl accrding t the text?
A. The schl has 6 classrms.
B. The schl has 700 students nw.
C. Teachers can rest in the teachers' ffice.
D. Everyne can read in the library after schl.
23. Where can we hld a talent shw in Alley's Schl?
A. In the classrm. B. In the schl hall.
C. In the library. D. In the cmputer rm.
24. We can read the text in a _________.
A. newspaper B. diary C. letter D. strybk
B
In the universe (宇宙) , as we all knw, there is the Sun, the Mn, the Earth and a large number f stars. Thrugh ur Gegraphy lessns, we knw that the Sun is a star, the Earth is a planet and the Mn is a satellite (卫星) . We als knw the Earth ges arund the Sun and the Mn ges arund the Earth. We have day and night because the Earth keeps turning all the time When ur part f the Earth turns t the Sun, it is day. When ur part f the Earth turns away frm the Sun, it is night.
Just because the Mn is clser t the Earth than the Sun, it lks much bigger than the Sun. Big things will lk smaller when they are farther and small things als lk bigger when they are nearer.
The Sun is big enugh t give ut strng light. The Mn can't give ut any light at all, but it lks quite bright, t. Why? In fact, the light frm the Mn cmes frm the Sun. The Mn lks much bigger and brighter than the stars, but in fact the stars are much bigger and brighter than the Mn. They lk smaller than the Mn als because they are farther away frm the Earth.
There are many ther facts abut the universe and we shuld study hard t knw mre.
25. Wh can help us knw a lt abut the universe?
A. An Art teacher. B. A Gegraphy teacher.
C. A Math teacher. D. An English teacher.
26. The Sun lks smaller than the Mn because it is _________ t us.
A. clser B. farther C. brighter D. darker
27. What can we knw abut the Mn accrding t the text?
A. The Mn is the nly ne t mve between the Earth and the Sun.
B. The Mn ges arund the Earth and it als mves arund the Sun.
C. The Mn ges arund the Sun and its light is cming frm the Sun.
D. The Mn ges arund the Earth and it can't give ut any light at all.
28. What can be the best title fr the text?
A. Sme facts abut the Sun B. Sme facts abut the Mn
C. Sme facts abut the Earth D. Sme facts abut the universe
C
April 22nd is Wrld Earth Day. It's a day that tells us t care abut ur planet.
The Earth faces a lt f prblems. Glbal (全球的) warming is the biggest prblem in the wrld. It makes the Earth ht and changes the glbal weather.
It als makes the sea level (海平面) rise. If the sea level keeps rising, sme places such as the Maldives, St. Petersburg in Russia and Bangkk in Thailand may disappear under water in just a few years.
Anther big prblem is water pllutin. We can nly use 3% f the Earth's water. But peple thrw rubbish and pur dirty water int rivers and the sea. Almst 884 millin peple dn't have clean water t drink.
Besides, humans are using up natural resurces (资源) . Frests are becming smaller and smaller because peple cut them dwn fr building. There will be n cal t use n the Earth by 2158 and il will dry up by 2050.
It's everyne's duty t save the Earth.
29. When d Chinese peple have Wrld Earth Day?
A. In spring. B. In summer. C. In autumn. D. In winter.
30. Which f the fllwing is the mst serius envirnmental prblem?
A. Water pllutin. B. Air pllutin.
C. Glbal warming. D. Cutting dwn trees.
31. What can be the result f glbal warming accrding t the text?
A. The sea level will g up. B. The weather will becme cld.
C. Sme cuntries will g dwn. D. Peple will have n clean water.
32. What may the writer talk abut after the end f the last paragraph?
A. When the Earth will lse cal and il. B. What we can d t prtect the Earth.
C. Hw we can cntrl glbal warming. D. Why the Earth has s many prblems.
D
①Animal behavir is an interesting and attractive study. Scientists research the ways animals use t lk fr fd. They study hw animals prtect themselves frm their predatrs, and which animals kill ther animals fr fd. All f this helps us understand hw useful animals can be.
②Each cuntry r culture raises sme animals fr fd. In the United States, peple mainly eat meat frm cws, chickens and pigs. In ther cuntries, peple might raise sheep r buffal (水牛) fr meat. These differences cme in part frm weather and ther envirnmental cnditins. Peple arund the wrld eat all kinds f fish and shellfish frm ceans and rivers. In sme cuntries, peple dn't always chse sme animal grups, such as dgs, fr fd while in ther cuntries such animals may becme peple's favrite fd.
③In West Africa, animals prvide humans with mre than fd. They have been helping peple d daily wrk fr thusands f years. Hrses, xen, and ther wrk animals pull heavy things. Elephants, camels and ther animals carry peple and things frm place t place. Pigens (鸽子) have been used t send messages.
④Peple als receive health benefits frm animals. Fr example, dgs and cats can help calm peple dwn. This is helpful fr peple fighting illnesses. Animals can als reduce stress, helping peple t draw their attentin t learning new infrmatin, such as reading. When peple are walking their dgs r hrses, it encurages exercise.
⑤Animals and humans share space n Earth, s keeping a healthy relatinship with animals arund us is in ur best interest.
33. What des the underlined wrd “predatrs” in Paragraph 1 prbably mean?
A. neighbrs B. friends C. children D. enemies
34. What can we knw abut the animals accrding t the text?
A. Hrses are helpful fr peple fighting illnesses.
B. Peple all ver the wrld eat all kinds f fish.
C. Elephants encurage humans t d mre exercise.
D. Africans eat meat frm cws, chickens and pigs.
35. Which f the animals can help peple t send messages?
A. Hrses B. Fish C. Pigens D. Sheep
36. Hw is the text rganized? (①= Paragraph 1, ②=Paragraph 2. . . )
A. B. C. D.
第二节 阅读短文,从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有一个多余的选项。
True friendships are very imprtant. They make us much happier. Hwever, it's nt always easy t be a gd friend. 37
Be there when they need yu. If yur friend is in need, give him a hand. 38 . Let yur friends see they can depend n yu. If they're true friends, yu'll be able t expect them, t.
39 . Dn't d all the talking. Listen carefully t what yur friend has t say. Let yur friend knw yu care what he r she thinks.
Learn t frgive (原谅) . Yu shuld be able t frgive yur friends if they d smething that hurts yu. First, let them knw hw yu feel. If yur friends are srry fr what they did, yu shuld frgive them. 40
If yu take the suggestins abve, I'm sure yu'll have many friends and live happily
二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读短文,理解其大意,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
One day, when I was ding the dishes, my mm walked up t me and said, “I'm srry, dear. Dinner is 41 again. I'm afraid we will have it in 20 mre minutes.”
I was surprised. “N, it was great. I lved it.”
“Really?” she said. “Yu always ate 42 , never saying anything, s I thught yu disliked it.”
“N, I really enjyed it. Yu're the best ck.” I said.
“Then yu shuld 43 me abut that.” she said. “When smene des smething nice fr yu, yu shuld thank him. If yu dn't, he might think yu are nt 44 and stp ding thse nice things.”
Frm then n, I 45 said “thank yu” t thers. It sn became a habit and smething magic (神奇的) 46 happening. Peple talked t me mre and shared with me mre. In my first year f high schl, during the final week, I came hme and 47 sme snacks (点心) n the table. “Thanks, Mm.” I said.
“They aren't frm me.” Mm said. “They're frm yur bus driver.” Guess what? He has driven that bus fr years. I was the first persn t ever thank him as we 48 . The tw wrds made such a big 49 that he went ut f his way and gave me the present.
That's the pwer f appreciatin (感激) . When yu 50 it, all is right in the wrld. But when it's missing, life is empty. In any situatin, taking tw secnds t say “thank yu” is the best.
41. A. different B. terrible C. bring D. late
42. A. happily B. quickly C. sadly D. quietly
43. A. teach B. advise C. tell D. ask
44. A. successful B. helpful C. thankfulD. careful
45. A. hardly B. ften C. smetimes D. never
46. A. frgt B. finished C. started D. stpped
47. A. sawB. cked C. left D. bught
48. A. lked dwn B. gt ffC. ate ut D. went back
49. A. mistake B. plan C. nise D. difference
50. A. decide B. refuse C. haveD. lse
第二部分 非选择题(共40分)
三、语篇填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空,使短文通顺、连贯。
D yu like cllecting stamps? I'll tell yu abut a set f 51 (wnder) stamps!
China has issued (发行) a set f fur stamps 52 (remember) the great bk Master Sun's Art f West (《孙子法》) . The first stamps were issued at Linyi 53 Shandng Prvince.
Master Sun was called Sun Wu, t. He was a military strategist (军事家) during the Spring and Autumn perid (770BC-476BC) . He was a leader in the army f the Wu Kingdm. During this perid he wrte 54 (he) great wrk Master Sun's Art f West.
There 55 (be) 13 parts in Master Sun's Art f West. It is ne f the earliest 56 the mst famus military bks in the wrld. In the past 2, 500 years, the influence f this bk has spread frm China t 57 whle wrld.
The stamps were drawn and designed by Chen Quansheng. He is a yung artist. The 58 (price) f the fur stamps are 20, 30, 50 fen and ne yuan. They are abut Sun Wu and the stries abut him.
In 1972, the imprtant ancient cpies f the Art f War were fund in Linyi. This helped t 59 (clear) knw abut Master Sun's military art. Sn after that, the Linyi pst ffice 60 (receive) abut 10, 000 letters asking fr the first issues f the stamps.
四、阅读与表达(共4小题,61-63小题,每小题2分,64小题4分;满分10分)
阅读短文,然后根据内容回答问题。
When peple arund the wrld talk abut ping-png, they must think f China.
Ping-png has been China's natinal sprt fr a lng time. Why d Chinese ping-png players always dminate (称霸) the wrld's majr ping-png events (比赛项目) ? One f the reasns is that there is a large fan base (基础) fr the sprt in China. Almst everyne can play a little. Yu can hear the sund f ping-png almst everywhere in China. Peple f all ages like this kind f sprt.
My father, fr example, has played it fr mre than 50 years. Every day, he ges t the park and plays ping-png with his friends fr tw hurs. It is part f his life. He was even named ne f the “Beijing Masters (高手)” when he was 70.
Nt nly the ld peple, but als kids are practicing hard in any ping-png club in China. Many children hpe they can be excellent players ne day. The great players' spirit f never giving up encurages the yung t stick t (坚持) their dreams. Als, many kids say playing ping-png helps them relax after ding schlwrk.
Nwadays mre and mre Chinese peple jin in this sprt.
61. Wh always dminates the wrld's majr ping-png events?
62. Hw lng has the writer's father played ping-png?
63. What des the great players' spirit encurage the yung t d?
64. What ther sprts d yu like t d besides ping-png? Why d yu like it? Write 30 wrds r mre.
五、书面表达(满分20分)
65. 假定你是学生李辉,你的英国朋友Tm将在2024年的寒假来中国旅游。请给他写一封信,介绍这次旅游的安排。要点如下:
(1)表示欢迎;
(2)活动安排;
(3)表达期待。
注意:
(1)词数为80-100;开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数;
(2)可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
(3)文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称等。
Dear Tm,
I have received yur letter. _____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hui
2023-2024学年度上学期测试七年英语
听力试题
一、短对话理解:1-8: BCBB ACBB
二、长对话理解:9-11: CBC 12-14: ABC 15-17: BCA 18-20: BBC
笔试试题
第一部分 选择题
一、阅读理解:
第一节:
(A) : 21-24: BCBA (B) : 25-28: BBDD (C) : 29-32: ACAB (D) : 33-36: DBCC
第二节:37-40: BEAC
二、完形填空:41-45: B/D, DCCB 46-50: CABDC
第二部分 非选择题:
三、语篇填空
51. wnderful 52. t remember 53. in 54. his 55. are
56. and 57. the 58. prices 59. clearly 60. received
四、阅读与表达
61. Chinese ping-png players
62. Fr mre than 50 years.
63. It encurages them t stick t their dreams
64. 合理即可,例如:
I like playing basketball because it is relaxing t d it between classes r after schl. I can get mre exercise and have mre time t get n with my friends. This sprt is full f fun.
65. 略注意事项:
1. 考生务必将考场/座位号、姓名、班级填写在答题卡相应位置上。
2. 考生应把试题答案答在答题卡上对应题目处,答在试卷上无效。
3. 选择题,需用2B铅笔涂黑在答题卡对应的选项中。
ALLEY'S SCHOOL
PROUD TO SHINE
1961-2024
ALLEY'S IS GROWING
Main Teaching Building
The schl has a huge yard and next t it is the main teaching building. The building has tw flrs, with six classrms n each. In each classrm, there is a cmputer, an verhead prjectr, and a smart white bard. It als has a small reading area with different kinds f bks ffered by the students.
Library
Our schl library is used fr all the reading classes weekly. The member f the reading club can meet here and d sme reading after schl.
Schl Hall
We have a wnderful schl hall. It is used fr gym, meetings and having lunch. It is the place where we hld many events, such as schl plays, cncerts, indr games and s n.
Other Rms
We have a great music rm fr music lessns, a cmputer rm fr thirty-tw cmputers and a large teachers' ffice fr teachers t have a rest during lunch time.
A. Be a gd listener.
B. Here are sme rules t help.
C. After all, everyne may make mistakes.
D. Yu always remember them and the time yu shared.
E. Fr example, if yur friend is in hspital, g and visit.
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