宁夏石嘴山市平罗县2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题

这是一份宁夏石嘴山市平罗县2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题，共8页。试卷主要包含了完形填空，阅读理解，语法填空，单词拼写，综合填空，任务型阅读，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

选择题（共50分）
一、完形填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Dear Amy,
Frm yur email, I knw there is an art festival in yur schl n December（十二月）12th. 1 pictures will be n shw (将展出). I really want t g and watch them, 2 I can't.
I'm very 3 n that day. I have 4 lessns in the mrning. They're English, Chinese, P. E. and math. These subjects are interesting and I 5 them very much. S I must take the classes in the mrning. I have art and gegraphy in the afternn. Art is my favrite 6 . Our teacher Miss White teaches (教) art 7 . I'm nt free（空闲的）in the 8 , either (也). I have t play ping-png 9 7: 00 p. m. t 8: 30 p. m.
Have a gd time at the festival! 10 sme phts and let me have a lk, please.
Yurs,
Kate
( ) 1. A. My B. Yur C. His D. Her
( ) 2. A. because B. and C. but D. s
( ) 3. A. healthy B. happy C. funny D. busy
( ) 4. A. tw B. three C. fur D. five
( ) 5. A. like B. help C. buy D. play
( ) 6. A. subject B. game C. trip D. thing
( ) 7. A. gd B. well C. fine D. nice
( ) 8. A. mrning B. afternn C. evening D. night
( ) 9. A. in B. n C. at D. frm
( ) 10. A. Think B. Sell C. Take D. Watch
二、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Jack is in Grade 7. The winter hliday is cming and he is making sme plans fr a week.
( ) 11. Where des Jack g n Mnday afternn?
A. T the library. B. T the playgrund.
C. T the park. D. T the art rm.
( ) 12. What is Jack ding at 4:00 p.m n Tuesday?
A. He is flying kites. B. He is drawing pictures.
C. He is playing basketball. D. He is reading magazines.
( ) 13. Jack plans t stay fr _______ hurs in the music rm.
A. tw B. three C. fur D. five
( ) 14. When des Jack watch matches at hme?
A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Saturday. D. On Sunday.
B
Internet is widely (广泛地) used in ur life. Different peple d different things n the Internet.
( ) 15. Wh likes t use the Internet t talk with custmers?
A. Judy. B. Jhn. C. Jack. D. Jane.
( ) 16.Why des Jack like t use the Internet?
A. Because he can watch mvies. B. Because he can g shpping.
C. Because he can talk with friends. D. Because he can learn abut the wrld.
( ) 17. Frm the passage(段落) , we knw_______
A. Judy is a manager. B. Jhn is an actr.
C. Jack is a teacher. D. Jane is a dctr.
( ) 18. Where is the passage prbably (可能) frm?
A. A stry bk. B. A travel guide.
C. An IT magazine. D. A birthday card.
C
Dear Susan,
Here is my new family pht. I have a big and happy family.
In the middle f the pht, that's my mum. She is thirty-six years ld and is a maths teacher at my schl. I'm n the left, and my dad is n the right. My dad is thirty-six years ld t and he is a bus driver. They are bth(都) busy with wrk. Behind us, thse are my grandparents. They are really kind t me. My grandpa lves watching TV at hme. My grandma likes cking, and she ften cks delicius fd fr us. Lk! There are tw kids (小孩) in frnt f us. They are my brther and sister, James and Lily. James is seven years ld nw. He wants t be a pliceman ne day. My little sister Lily is fur years ld and she wants t be a teacher like my mum. Oh, my uncle Henry is in Hng Kng nw. S he isn't in the pht. This is my family. What abut yur family?
Yurs,
Dra
( ) 19. What d Dra's mther and father have in cmmn (与有共同之处)？
A. They are f the same age. B. They are bth bus drivers.
C. They bth like carrt ndles. D. They bth like watching TV at hme.
( ) 20. Which f the fllwing des James want t be？
A. B. C. D.
( ) 21. Which f the fllwing is a fac（t 事实）abut Dra's uncle？
A. He is tall and strng. B. He is busy with wrk.
C. He is yung and kind. D. He is nt at hme nw.
( ) 22. Hw many peple are there in Dra's family?
A. 7. B. 8. C. 9. D. 10.
D
Bill is a middle schl student. He has many subjects every day. Of all the subjects, he hates (讨厌) maths mst. After schl, he desn't want t d maths hmewrk because he really desn't like maths.
One evening, when he cmes back frm schl, he says t his mther, "I dn't want t learn maths." His mther asks him why and he says he desn't knw what the teacher talks abut. He thinks maths is nt easy fr him. His mther thinks fr a while (一会儿) and says, "Dn't be disappinted (失望的), my by. I can be yur maths teacher." "Great!" Bill says happily.
Every day after schl, Bill and his mther study tgether (一起) fr an hur. Bill likes his mther's "classes". He becmes interested in maths. One day, when Bill ges t bed after ding hmewrk, he finds his mther is ding smething at the desk. He pens the dr and sees his mther studying maths n the Internet. He knws why his mther is gd at maths.
A mther can d everything fr her children. As children, we must thank ur mthers fr everything they d fr us.
( ) 23. Bill desn't want t d maths hmewrk because _______.
A. he really desn't like it B. he has n maths class at schl
C. he desn't like his maths teacher D. he wants t play ftball with his friends
( ) 24. Bill thinks maths is ________.
A. easy B. difficult C. great D. interesting
( ) 25. Frm the passage, we knw ________.
A. Bill desn't d his hmewrk
B. Bill's mther teaches maths at schl
C. Bill likes maths nw with his mther's help
D. Bill still desn't like maths
( ) 26. What is the best title (最佳题目) f this passage?
A. A Happy By B. An Easy Subject
C. A Gd Maths Teacher D. A Happy Mther
E
Chinese Dragn Bat Festival is als knwn as Duanwu Festival. It is ne f the three mst imprtant lunar（阴历的）festivalsin China, alng with(与……一起)Spring Festival and Mid—Autumn Festival.
The date（日期）f the festival is said t be the date when Qu Yuan died—the fifth（第五）day f the fifth lunar mnth, s the date varies frm year t year, such as it is June（六月）20 in 2015, June 9 in 2016, May（五月）30 in 2017, June 18 in 2018, June 7 in 2019, June 25 in 2020, June 14 in 2021 and June 3 in 2022.
Althugh（虽然）the date is different, the custm（风俗）is the same. With a histry f ver 2,000 years, peple celebrate it with all kinds f activities n the day. They hld dragn bat racing (赛龙舟)，eat zngzi, drink realgar wine（雄黄酒）,wear sachets（香囊）and s n. But dragn bat racing is the mst ppular（受欢迎的）activity during the Dragn Bat Festival.
( ) 27. Which f the fllwing is NOT the mst imprtant lunar festival in China?
A. May Day. B. Dragn Bat Festival.
C. Spring Festival. D. Mid-Autumn Festival.
( ) 28. The underlined（划线的）wrd "varies" in Paragraph 2 means "_______" in Chinese.
A. 推迟 B. 变化 C. 提前 D. 递进
( ) 29. Dragn Bat Festival is n ______ in 2020.
A. June 20 B. May 30 C. June 25 D. June 7
( ) 30.______is the mst ppular with peple in the Dragn Bat Festival.
A. Eating zngzi B. Wearing sachets
C. Drinking realgar wine D. Dragn bat racing
非选择题（共50分）
三、语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式（每空一词）。
There is a park near my hme. Peple like ging there after wrk. (31)_________ this mment, there (32)_________(be) sme peple in the park.
The girl n the bike (自行车) is Lucy. She is n (33)_________(she) way t the library. She (34)________(study) at the library frm 6:00 p.m t 8:00 p.m every day. The man n (35)_________ left is Paul. He likes ging t the park with his dg befre dinner. Mr White is (36)_________(sit) n the bench (长椅) and reading a newspaper (报纸) nw. Mr. and Mrs. Black are ging t a (37)_____ (China) restaurant. They lve the fd there. (38)_________ is that wman? She is Mrs. King. She enjys (39)_________(walk) in the park with her daughter. Yu can't see her daughter in the picture (40)_________ she is in the strller (婴儿车).
四、单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的英语单词，单词的汉语提示或首字母已给出（每空一词）。
My name is Cathy. I'm frm Canada. Beijing is a gd (41) p________ t live in. I am learning Chinese here nw. My schl is very beautiful and my classmates are very friendly t me. I have a lt f things t d and I am very happy t be here.
In China, the Spring Festival is a very (42) i_____________ festival. It cmes in January r (43) F________. Befre it, peple ften clean their huses t (44) ______ (扫) away bad luck. My gd friend Chen Hng asks me t visit her family this Spring Festival. And she says I can get hngba frm her par-ents. It means lucky mney. And I can (45) _______ (也；而且) have delicius fd—dumplings.
五、综合填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
从下面方框中选择恰当的词填入短文中，使短文通顺正确。每词只用一次，有些词要用适当的形式。
Is yur fd and drink gd fr yu? A lt f hamburgers, ice cream and cla are nt (46) ________. Meat is gd and many peple like eating it. But t much meat is nt gd fr (47) ________. Cla and candy (48)________sweet but t much sugar is bad fr yu.
It's imprtant t (49)______ right fd. S what is the right fd? Carrts, eggs and sweet ptates are gd fr (50)______ eyes. Milk, cheese and fish are gd fr yur (51)________. When yu are tired, yu can have (52)________delicius chicken sup.
Remember t eat (53)________, keep strng and dn't get fat！Hw t d them? (54)_______, eat ndles r rice, nt hamburgers. Secnd, have a gd breakfast every mrning. Next, drink juice, water, tea (55)_________milk, nt cla. Last, eat lts f fruit and vegetables.
六、任务型阅读（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，在每小题句子空白处填入适当词语，使其意思与短文内容一致（每空词数不限）。
I make a new friend. Her name is Mna and she is twelve years ld.
Mna cmes frm Ls Angeles, but she lives in Yinchuan with her family nw. She is tall and has a small face. She als has big eyes and lng hair. She likes t wear a blue sweater. It is my pre-sent t her.
She has many kinds f hbbies（爱好）, such as singing, reading bks and ding sprts. She smetimes sings beautiful sngs at schl art festivals. Mna ften reads bks and magazines frm 5:00 p.m t 7:00 p.m n Saturdays. On Sunday mrnings, she likes t get sme exercise. Smetimes, she asks me t run with her in the park near her huse.
At schl, Mna is gd at maths. She ften teaches me ways t learn maths well. I als tell her sme ways f learning Chinese well. We always help each ther in study.
56. Mna lives in Yinchuan with___________________.
57. The underlined wrd "It" in Paragraph 2 refers t（指代）"_________________".
58. Mna usually spends ___________________ hurs reading n Saturdays.
59. Mna smetimes asks the writer（作者）t ___________________with her.
60. Frm the last paragraph, we knw Mna is gd at _________ .
七、书面表达(共1题，满分15分)
假如你是张明，你的英国笔友Jenny想要了解你的学校生活。请你根据以下图示内容，用英语给她写一封电子邮件，介绍你丰富多彩的学校生活并谈谈你对学校生活的感受。
要求：
1.必须包括所给图示中的所有信息，词数80左右（开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。
2.至少再补充两点学校生活的内容。
3.紧扣图示内容，适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
4.文中不得出现真实的人名和校名。
Dear Jenny,
I'm happy t share my schl life with yu.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Hw abut yur schl life? Can yu tell me smething abut it?
Yurs,
Zhang Ming
平罗县2022-2023学年度第一学期七年级英语期末教学质量测查
参考答案及评分标准
选择题（共50分）
一、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，计分10分）
1—5 BCDCA 6—10 ABCDC
二、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，计分40分）
11—14 DCBD 15—18 ADAC 19—22 ADDB
23—26 ABCC 27—30 ABCD
非选择题（共50分）
三、语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，计分10分）
31. At 32. are 33. her 34. studies 35. the
36. sitting 37. Chinese 38. Wh 39. walking 40. because
评分说明：提示性词词形变化有误不得分；非提示性词写错不得分；大小写写错，每个扣0.5分。
四、单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，计分5分）
41. place 42. imprtant 43. February 44. sweep 45. als
评分说明：单词拼写有误不得分；大小写写错，每个扣0.5分。
五、综合填空（共10小题；每小题1分，计分10分）
46. healthy 47. children 48. are 49. eat 50. yur
51. teeth 52. sme 53. well 54. First 55. and
评分说明:单词填错不得分；单词填对，但其变化形式或大小写有错误,每个扣0.5分。
六、任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，计分10分）
56. her family 57. a blue sweater 58. tw/2
59. run 60. math/maths
评分说明:1.回答正确，但单词拼写有误或大小写出错每处扣0.5分。
2.若有与参考答案不同的其它答案，只要意思相近，都可酌情给分。
七、书面表达（共15分）
（一）评分原则
1.本题满分为15分，依据内容和语言按五个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。词数少于80和多于120的，从总分中减去1分。
3.本题共有8个要点：
（1）每天六节课； （2）在教室学习； （3）吃美味的食物； （4）做运动； （5）参加艺术节； （6）（7）自定； （8）感受。
4.扣分注意事项
（1）大小写、标点符号有错误，至多扣0.5分；
（2）单词拼写有错误扣分总和不超过2分（1个不扣分，2-3个扣0.5分，4-5个扣1分，6-7个扣1.5分，8个以上扣2分），同一错误不重复扣分。
（3）语法错误每项扣0.5分，同一错误不重复扣分，扣分总和不超过2分。
（4）内容要点可用不同的方式表达，虽与参考答案不完全相同，但只要意思一致，语言正确，不予扣分。紧扣主题及要点，适当发挥。
（二）各档次的评分范围和要求
第五档（13-15分）：能写出绝大部分内容要点（7-8个）；语言正确，内容充实，行文连贯，表达清楚。
第四档（10-12分）：能写出大部分内容要点（5-6个）；语言有个别错误，行文比较连贯，表达比较清楚。
第三档（7-9分）：能写出部分内容要点（3-4个）；语言有较多错误，行文尚能达意。
第二档（4-6分）：能写出少数内容要点（1-2个）；语言错误多，只有少数句子可读，表达不够清楚。
第一档（0-3分）：能写出个别句子及与所要求内容有关的一些单词或词组，不能达意。
（三）参考范文：
Dear Jenny,
I'm happy t share my schl life with yu.
My schl is big and clean. There are many beautiful flwers and trees. I have six classes every day. My favurite lessns are Chinese and English. I always study in the classrm. After class, I have lunch in the dining hall with my friends. There is a lt f delicius fd there. Smetimes, we d sprts after schl. Our schl ften has art festivals n Friday afternns. I lve t sing sngs at art festivals. Sme f my friends like t dance. It's really interesting! My schl life is busy but happy. I enjy my schl life.
Hw abut yur schl life? Can yu tell me smething abut it?
Yurs,
Zhang MingWeek
Time
Activities（活动）
Place
Mnday
2:30 p.m-3:30 p.m
draw pictures
art rm
Tuesday
2:40 p.m-4:40 p.m
play basketball
playgrund
Wednesday
2:10 p.m-5:40 p.m
read bks and magazines
library
Thursday
4:30 p.m-6:30 p.m
g skating（滑冰）
stadium（体育场）
Friday
1:40 p.m-4:40 p.m
sing sngs
music rm
Saturday
9:30 a.m-11:40 a.m
fly kites
park
Sunday
9:00 a.m-11:30 a.m
watch matches
hme
Judy
Well, I ften g n the Internet t talk with my custmers, check emails and make travel plans. I can send and get fifteen r sixteen emails a week. I ften send emails t my friends n Mnday mrning.
Jhn
Why d I like using the Internet? Because I can d lts f things, such as searching fr infrmatin and watching mvies. When I feel tired, I ften talk with friends n the Internet. I usually listen t music n it every Friday night.
Jack
Every Saturday night, I d sme reading n the Internet. I ften read magazines and sme gd bks. It is cl because I can learn a lt abut the wrld.
Jane
It is gd fr shpping. I usually use it t buy bks, CDs and sme ther things n Sunday afternn. I like travelling, and I ften check the times f trains and buy tickets n the Internet. It is great t make hliday plans n the Internet.
sme, healthy, tth, and, yu, child, gd, be, ne, eat