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    河北保定定兴县天宫寺中学2022-2023学年上学期末九年级英语试题

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    河北保定定兴县天宫寺中学2022-2023学年上学期末九年级英语试题

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    这是一份河北保定定兴县天宫寺中学2022-2023学年上学期末九年级英语试题,共13页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    注意事项:1. 本试卷共8页,总分120分,答题时间120分钟。
    2. 答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡相应位置上。
    3. 答选择题时,每小题选出答案后,请用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
    4. 考试结束,监考人员只收答题卡,试卷由考生保留。
    听力部分(30分)
    Ⅰ.听句子,选出句子中所包含的信息。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    1. A. expectB. accept C. except
    2. A. MH3709 B. MH7309 C. HM3709
    3. A. put ut B. put up C. put ff
    4. A. Lucy stayed up late last night.
    B. Lucy went ut last night .
    C. Lucy stayed at hme last night.
    5. A. Mary likes this dance music better.
    B. Mary likes that dance music better.
    C. Mary likes bth this dance music and that ne.
    Ⅱ.听句子,选出该句的最佳答语。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    6. A. Yu are welcme. B. Gd luck! C. Yes, I’d lve t.
    7. A. Of curse nt. B. Dn’t mentin it. C. I’m srry t hear that.
    8. A. It desn’t matter. B. My pleasure. C. Thank yu.
    9. A. We like reading. B. Yu are OK. C. That’s right.
    10. A. Yes, please. B. Nt at all. C. With pleasure.
    Ⅲ.听对话和问题,选择正确答案。(共8小题,每小题1分,计8分)
    11. Which sign are they talking abut?
    A B C
    12. Which kind f mvie d they chse t watch?
    A B C
    13. Where d the tw speakers wrk?
    A. In a schl. B. In a library. C. In a hspital.
    
    14. Wh was mre respectable did the wman think?
    A. An actr. B. An actress. C. A directr.
    15. Which kind f mvie did the man see?
    A. A science fictin. B. A dcumentary. C. Abut war.
    
    16. Why des Tm lk unhappy?
    A. He failed the English exam.
    B. He had a fight with Jim.
    C. He lst his new watch.
    17. Why did Jim change his mind?
    A. Because he was nt gd at English.
    B. Because he thught Tm shuld finish the exam by himself.
    C. Because he was afraid f teachers.
    18. What shuld they d in the exam?
    A. Obey the rules f the exam.
    B. Depend n thers t pass the exam.
    C. Help each ther.
    Ⅳ.听短文和问题,选择正确答案。(共7小题,每小题1分,计7分)
    19. Hw are all kinds f snacks in Happy Supermarket?
    A. Delicius and cheap.B. Delicius but expensive.C. Terrible but cheap.
    20. What can yu chse n the first flr?
    A. Sme vegetables. B. Sme schl things. C. Sme fruits.
    21. Wh can yu buy clthes fr n the third flr?
    A.Yur father. B.Yur mther. C.Yur little brther.
    
    22. Hw lng will the grup Red River stay in Lndn?
    A. Fr abut a week. B. Fr half a mnth. C. Fr abut 3 weeks.
    23. What’s the telephne number?
    A. 283-0665. B. 238-6005. C. 283-0065.
    24. Where will the cncerts be?
    A. In Lndn Street. B. In Suth Bank Hall. C. At Children’s Hspital.
    25. Which is the best way t the cncert hall?
    A. By train. B. By bus. C. By bike.
    Ⅴ.听短文填空。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    笔试部分
    Ⅵ.单项选择(共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
    选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    31. We must prtect wild animals. They are_______ friends.
    A. their B. his C. ur D. yur
    32. Be mre active in class s that yu can imprve yur ______ t express yurselves.
    A. interest B. energy C. ability D. hbby
    33. That by in blue _______ be James. He left fr Beijing an hur ag.
    A. can’t B. needn’t C. shuldn’t D. mustn’t
    34. Dn’t just ______ what yur teacher said. Yu shuld have yur wn pinin.
    A. expect B. explre C. repeat D. suppse
    35. --- Lucy, why dn’t yu take yur wn umbrella?
    --- Smene else ______ my umbrella by mistake. I can’t find it nw.
    A. has taken B. takes C. will take D. was taking
    36. If yu are caught smking in the schl yard, yu ________ by yur teacher.
    A. will punish B. are punished
    C. will be punished D. punished
    37. It’s much easier fr us t becme friends _______ we share similar interests.
    A. unless B. when C. althugh D. until
    38. Yu had better_______ yur wet cat r yu will catch a cld.
    A. put n B. turn n C. turn ff D. take ff
    39. He_______ his bike in the yard. He had n time t chat with yu.
    A. repair B. has repaired C. repaired D. was repairing
    40. --- What lvely flwers! Culd yu please tell me_______?
    --- In the flwer shp.
    A. when yu gt them B. hw yu gt them
    C. why yu gt them D. where yu gt them
    Ⅶ.完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    Last year, we tk a trip t New Yrk City. When we arrived at ur 41 , it was arund 2:00 a. m. My sn, Jseph, lked ut at the lights f Times Square and said he wanted t g 42 . I tld him it was t 43 t g ut, but he kept lking ut f the windw and said, "Just fr tw minutes."
    My wife and I just lked at each ther, smiled and said, "Tw minutes." We gt dressed and walked int the center f Times Square. 44 we gt there, my sn pinted at the lights and said, "Dad, 45 !" And then he started t fall asleep. S we had t g back t the htel.
    It tk us 20 minutes t 46 fr the 20 secnds we spent utside, but it made ur sn 47 and that meant a lt t us. That night, I learned a lessn abut happiness. We smetimes have chances t 48 happy mments in ur lives, but we ften find 49 t d smething else.
    Because f my sn, I learned that I am the biggest enemy t my wn happiness. 50
    happiness is a dr that is always pen, we are the nes wh have t decide if we are ging t walk thrugh the dr.
    41. A. restaurantB. bank C. supermarketD. htel
    42. A. inside B. utside C. back D. hme
    43. A. ht B. early C. late D. cld
    44. A. If B. Unless C. Because D. When
    45. A. listen B. tuch C. lk D. smile
    46. A. make rulesB. get ready C. d sprts D. have dinner
    47. A. sad B. happy C. bred D. patient
    48. A. create B. frget C. waste D. avid
    49. A. a place B. a bk C. an excuse D. an rder
    50. A. Because B. Althugh C. Unless D. As sn as
    Ⅷ.阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,共计30分)
    阅读下面A、B、C、D四篇材料,然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    Illegal (违法的) driving is really dangerus. It may cause traffic accidents, even deaths. It's reprted that thusands f peple die frm illegal driving each year. Many cuntries are trying their best t cntrl it. France, fr example, has made sme strict rules and laws t stp it.
    Peple are warned nt t eat while driving. Any driver wh is caught eating while at the wheel will be stpped by the plice. Then he will be fined up t £ 50 fr it.
    Drivers are nt allwed t read a map, make a phne call r listen t very lud music while driving. Besides, it is against the rules fr the mtrists (汽车驾驶员) t use any kind f earphnes. Things change easily n the rad. Drivers never knw what will happen next.
    Frm July 2 n, it will be illegal t smke when there is a child aged 12 r under in the car. Smking is als banned (禁止) utdrs at children's play areas, including thse at mtrway rest areas. Ntices in several languages have been put up at mtrway service statins t warn freign visitrs f the rules.
    Driving after drinking can put peple in danger. All the drivers are asked t carry an alchl breath equipment test (酒精测试) in their cars. Anyne wh breaks the rule will be punished.
    51. The underlined wrds "be fined" here prbably mean " ".
    A. raise mney fr the pliceB. get mney as a prize
    C. make mney with the pliceD. pay mney as a punishment
    52. Hw can freign visitrs knw the rules against smking?
    A. By reading the newspaper.
    B. By reading the ntices.
    C. By asking the lcal peple.
    D. By listening t the radi.
    53. The writer writes the article t in France.
    A. tell drivers nt make a phne call while driving
    B. discuss the rules against driving after drinking
    C. intrduce the rules and laws against illegal driving
    D. talk abut traffic accidents
    B
    Athletics VS. Gardening
    The students f Suthside Schl were asked t give their pinins abut whether the schl shuld run an athletic (体育运动的) prgram r start a vegetable garden.
    54. What is ne reasn Liz gives fr saying " a garden is a really bad idea"?
    A. Students can't get exercise at all by gardening.
    B. Sme students dn't enjy being utside.
    C. Sme students already knw hw t garden.
    D. The garden can't ffer enugh jbs fr everyne.
    55. Which f these pints d Liz and Sam bth make?
    A. Kids shuld eat vegetables.B. Kids shuld take exercise.
    C. Kids shuld try t win mre.D. Kids shuld learn t ck.
    56. Why des Sam say "And think abut it: what helps yu t be gd at sprt?"
    A. T change the tpic.B. T supprt Liz's idea.
    C. T intrduce his next reasn.D. T explain health is imprtant.
    C
    The first rbts were invented in the 1920s. Rbts have appeared in many American films. In sme films, they are strnger, faster and cleverer than peple.
    In real life, rbts are mainly used in factries. They d sme dangerus and difficult jbs fr humans.
    Rbts als help disabled peple, fr example, blind peple. Tday many blind peple have a guide dg t help them. In the future, guide dgs might be rbt dgs.
    One kind f rbt guide dg has wheels. It mves in frnt f the wner. It is very clever. It knws the speed f its wner's walk. The wner wears a special belt. This belt sends instructins t the wner frm the dg, such as "Stp here", "Turn left" r "Turn right".
    In the United States, anther kind f rbt helps disabled peple t take care f themselves in their daily life. The rbt hears the sund f its wner's vice. It fllws instructins such as "Turn the page" r "Make a cup f cffee".
    Rbts are als used in American hspitals. They can d simple jbs. At ne hspital, fr example, a rbt takes meals frm the kitchen t patients' rms. It never gets lst because this rbt has a map f the hspital in its cmputer memry.
    Thugh rbts can help peple in many different ways, they will never take the place f humans.
    57. Frm the passage, we knw rbts cannt be .
    A. dangerus animals B. factry wrkers
    C. guide dgs D. hspital helpers
    58. A rbt guide dg .
    A. ges in frnt f blind pepleB. walks side by side with blind peple
    C. has a map in its headD. helps patients with their meals
    59. The underlined wrd "disabled" means " " in Chinese.
    A. 不能的B. 有害的
    C. 失灵的D. 残疾的
    60. Sme disabled peple need rbts' help t .
    A. take care f themselvesB. talk t ther peple
    C. becme scientistsD. d dangerus jbs
    D
    Nw mre and mre peple buy and sell things n the Internet. They buy and sell gds t make mney. S hackers (黑客) arund the wrld are interested in this.
    Hackers are ften yung peple wh lve cmputers greatly. They use cmputers t get n the Internet, lking fr ways t g int cmputer systems run by banks, hmes and all kinds f ffices. If they g int a cmputer system, they will find ther peple's credit cards and try t steal the numbers. With the numbers they can take the mney ut f the bank.
    Hackers ften break int yur cmputer system, but it's difficult t find them. S it is als difficult fr yu t find the hacker wh is taking yur mney ut f the bank. Hackers can get the mney frm a bank with the credit card number they have gt frm yur cmputer.
    Scientists always ask peple wh have cmputers t pay attentin t hackers. They als tell peple hw t fight the hackers. The answer is t chse a clever passwrd (密码) and change it ften and nt t shw yur credit card ut t anybdy. If yu are nt careful, it's just like keeping the bank dr wide pen.
    61. The underlined wrk "this" refers t .
    A. helping thers n the Internet
    B. buying and selling things n the Internet
    C. saving mney n the Internet
    D. giving mney t thers
    62. Which is NOT true abut hackers?
    A. They are ften yung peple.
    B. They lk fr ways t g int cmputer systems.
    C. They lve cmputers greatly.
    D. They steal mney frm thers' cmputers.
    63. It's t find the hackers wh break int yur cmputer system.
    A. easy B. nice C. hard D. wrng
    64. Which f the fllwing is NOT abut prtecting the credit card?
    A. Chsing a clever passwrd.
    B. Changing the passwrd ften.
    C. Putting yur mney int the bank.
    D. Dn't shw yur credit card ut t anybdy.
    65. What can we learn frm the passage?
    A. Be careful t use ur credit cards.
    B. We shuldn't use cmputers ften.
    C. Shw yur credit card ut t smebdy.
    D. We must catch the hackers.
    Ⅸ.任务型阅读。(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
    阅读短文,并按要求完成66-70题.
    In Japan, the latest time-saving inventin is a dg-washing machine. Dg wners can buy nes fr their dgs. They can save time by putting their dgs in the machine. And then 33 minutes later, a clean and fresh-smelling dg cmes ut.
    The machine becmes mre and mre ppular. The sales f the dg-washing machine are increasing. The machines save a lt f mney fr pet wners. Hwever, it's bad news fr pet hspitals. Because they are lsing many custmers.
    The washing machine has many advantages. First, the whle cleaning prcess includes a shamp, rinse (冲洗) and blw-dry. Secnd, tests shwed that dgs enjyed the washing prcess and were very happy when the blwer started wrking. Third, the mst imprtant is that the makers f the machine say it's very safe and nt harmful t dgs in any way.
    One dg wner, Michik Kbayashi, lves her new machine. She said her dg was happy, t. Michik explained t the reprter, "Befre I bught my washer, I nly tk my dg t the pet hspital a few times a year. Nw I wash her every week and she lks great. I als save a lt f mney."
    It is welcmed by mst peple wh raise dgs. And it takes ver the market quickly. What a useful inventin!
    66、67题完成句子;68题简略回答问题;69题找出并写下第三段的主题句;70题将文中划线句子译成汉语。
    66. The dg-washing machine can help dg wners when they wash their dgs.
    67. The washing is bad news fr as they are lsing many custmers.
    68. Hw ften did Michik Kbayashi take her dg t the pet hspital befre buying the washer?
    _________________________________________________________________.
    69. ___________________________________________________________________
    70. ___________________________________________________________________
    X.词语运用(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    根据短文内容及所给提示,补全文中单词或用所给单词的正确形式填空。
    My name is Lily. I had a busy but the 71. (happy) Saturday last week. It was sunny in the mrning, my parents and I went shpping in a supermarket 72 n ur hme. We 73. (buy) sme fruits and vegetables. Then we went t visit my grandparents by bus. On the way, I saw many 74 (bird) and butterflies. It's my 75. (ne) time t see s many f them. After 76. hur, we gt t my grandparents' hme. They were very glad t see 77. (we). At nn, it turned cludy. We had 78. l at my grandparents' hme. After that, I tk sme pictures fr my grandparents. In the afternn, the sun shne 79.
    (bright) again. My grandparents were t ld t d much husewrk, 80 I helped them. We didn't g hme until 5:00 in the afternn. Hw happy I was! I hpe I can g t my grandparents' hme again next week.
    Ⅺ.基础写作(包括A、B两部分,A部分5分,B部分15分,共计20分)
    A)连词成句(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    将所给词语连成句子,标点已给出。要求:符合语法,语句通顺,大小写正确,词语不得重复使用。
    81. she, like tmates, des
    ?
    82. play, let's, games, n cmputer
    .
    83. des, she, get up, what time
    ?
    84. sweater, yur, nice, lks
    .
    85. a bad day, what, he, has
    !
    B)书面表达(共计15分)
    86. 幸福是什么?可能是你回家时向父母打声招呼,可能是你递给妈妈的一杯水,可能是下雨时爷爷送来的伞。其实,幸福就在我们每一个日子里。请以“My Happy Life”为题,根据下面的提示和要求写一篇短文。
    提示:(1)D yu think yu live a happy life Why?
    (2)Describe a pleasant experience that happened in yur family.
    (3)Hw can we wn a happy life? (at least three suggestins)
    要求:(1)短文须包括提示中的全部要点,可适当发挥。
    (2)短文中不要出现真实的地名、校名和人名。
    (3)词数80个左右(开头已给出,不计入总数)
    My Happy Life
    Everyne wants t live a happy life. ____________________________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________
    _____________________________________________________________________________
    2022—2023学年第一学期学生素质能力监测
    九年级英语参考答案
    听力部分
    1—5:CACAA 6—10:BAACC 11—15:BCCCC
    16—20:BBAAC 21—25:CACBA
    评分标准:1. 1-25小题,每小题1分,计25分;
    2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
    V.26. Silver 27. France 28. Knives 29. Germany 30. Silk
    评分标准:1. 每小题1分,计5分。
    2. 凡与答案不符,但所填信息与答案意思相同且与题目要求相符者,可酌情给分。
    笔试部分
    31—35:CCACA 36—40:CBDDD 41—45:DBCDC 46—50:BBACA
    51—53:DBC 54—56:DBC 57—60:AADA 61—65:BDCCA
    评分标准:1. 31—50小题,每小题1分,计45分;51~65小题,每小题2分,计30分。
    2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
    Ⅸ.66. save time
    67. pet hspitals
    68. A few times a year.
    69. The washing machine has many advantages.
    70. 它在大多数养狗的人中很受欢迎。
    评分标准:1. 每小题2分,计10分。
    2. 凡与答案不符,但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者,可酌情给分。有关语法及拼写(包括大小写)等错误酌情减分。
    X.71. happiest 72.ear 73. bught 74. birds 75. first
    76. an/ne 77. us 78. unch 79. brightly 80. s
    评分标准:1. 每小题1分,计10分。
    2. 凡与答案不符,但所填词语与题目要求相符者,可酌情给分
    Ⅺ.81. Des she like tmates
    82. Let's play games n cmputer
    83. What time des she get up
    84. Yur sweater lks nice
    85. What a bad day he has
    评分标准: 1. 每小题1分,计5分。
    2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
    B. One pssible versin:
    My Happy Life
    Everyne wants t live a happy life. I think I am happy because I have a happy family.
    My parents are very strict with me, but I knw they lve me deeply. I failed my math exam last week. I was afraid they wuld be angry with me. When I gt hme, my mther prepared a lt f delicius fd fr me. When I tld them abut my math exam. They encuraged me patiently instead f getting angry. I felt my parents' understanding and encuragement. It's a kind f lve. Hw t be happy? First, we shuld give ur lve t ur parents r friends. Secnd, we shuld wrk r study hard, because smetimes happiness is in it. In additin, we smile at the mirrr every day and tell urselves that we are happy.
    Happiness is all arund yu as lng as yu feel it with yur heart.
    评分原则
    1.本题总分为15分,按五个档次给分。
    2.评分时,先根据短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
    3.文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名,酌情减分。

    Prducts
    Made f
    Made in
    Chpsticks
    26.________
    Thailand
    Men’s cats
    Cttn
    27.________
    28.___________
    Steel
    Switzerland
    Rings
    Gld
    29.__________
    Wmen’s dresses
    30.__________
    China
    An athletic prgram is much better than gardening. Hw will we win the Inter-Schl Athletics withut training? At the mment, we nly d athletics fr ne term and the teachers train us. We need experts (专家) t teach us things like thrwing and high jump.
    Kids shuld get enugh exercise when they are grwing up. Gardening can't make a kid get much exercise. Hwever, an athletic prgram can make it.
    Athletics is much better fr health and lts f kids can try at the same time. I dn't think there wuld be enugh jbs fr everyne in a garden.
    In fact, I think a garden is a really bad idea. I dn't knw why we're even cnsidering it.
    Liz, Grade 8
    I think a vegetable garden is a great idea. We already d hurs f sprt, including athletics. And nt everyne likes sprt.
    Gardening is a great way t get exercise withut wrrying abut whether yu're gd at it, r whether yu're ging t win. And yu can really get exercise when yu garden. There's digging, weeding (除草) and watering. Even picking things can be hard wrk.
    And think abut it: what helps yu t be gd at sprt? Yu need t eat lts f fruit and vegetables. If we learn t ck all the things we grw, the garden will keep us healthy, and then we'll be better at sprt.
    Sam, Grade 8
    一档
    13-15分
    包含了所有要点, 能围绕内容要点适当发挥,内容具体、丰富;应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇, 用词准确,句子通顺,行文连贯,表达清楚;没有或几乎没有语言错误,具备较强的语言运用能力,达到了预期的写作目的。
    二档
    10-12分
    基本包含了所有要点,并有一定发挥,内容比较丰富;应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求,句子较通顺,表达较清楚;有少量语言错误,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
    三档
    7-9分
    包含了多数要点,并有所发挥,内容不够丰富、具体,字数较少;句子不够通顺,语言表达过于简单,行文不够连贯;有部分语言错误。
    四档
    4-6分
    只包含了少数要点,内容过少;句子无条理,语言不规范,行文不连贯;语言错误较多。
    五档
    0-3分
    白卷,只包含一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关,内容杂乱,不知所云;语言很不通顺,用词很不准确;错误过多,几乎难以读懂。

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