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    河北保定定兴县天宫寺中学2022-2023学年八年级上学期末英语试题

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    河北保定定兴县天宫寺中学2022-2023学年八年级上学期末英语试题

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    这是一份河北保定定兴县天宫寺中学2022-2023学年八年级上学期末英语试题,共10页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    注意事项:1. 本试卷共8页,总分120分,答题时间100分钟。
    2. 答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡相应位置上。
    3. 答选择题时,每小题选出答案后,请用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
    4. 考试结束,监考人员只收答题卡,试卷由考生保留。
    听力部分(30分)
    Ⅰ. 听句子,选出句子中所包含的信息。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    1. A. unique B. pleasant C. cnfident
    2. A. 580 B. 480 C. 460
    3. A. tk up B. blew ut C. gave up
    4. A. I want t learn t ride a bike.
    B. I hate riding a bike.
    C. I lve ging smewhere by bike.
    5. A. I can drive a car.
    B. I’m nt ld enugh t drive a car.
    C. I’m s ld that I can drive a car.
    Ⅱ. 听句子,选出该句的最佳答语。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    6. A. N prblem. B. Sunds great! C. Never mind.
    7. A. That’s right . B. Srry, I wn’t. C. Wnderful.
    8. A. I’m fine. B. It’s my pleasure. C. See yu later.
    9. A. In a year. B. By this weekend. C. Once a week.
    10. A. Take it easy. B. Have fun. C. Wnderful.
    Ⅲ. 听对话和问题,选择正确答案。(共8小题,每小题1分,计8分)
    11. Hw des the girl g t schl every day?
    A. B. C.
    12. What did Chinese peple invent ver tw thusand years ag?
    A . B. C.

    13. Where are the tw speakers?
    A. In the cffee shp.B. In a grcery stre. C. In a clthing stre.
    *****************************************************************************
    14. What hliday are they ging t celebrate?
    A. The Natinal Day.B. The Spring Festival. C. The May Day hliday.
    15. Hw much are they ging t spend n the tickets?
    A. 900 yuan. B. 450 yuan. C. 1000 yuan.
    *****************************************************************************
    16. What are Lingling and Daming ging t d in LA?
    A. T d sme sightseeing.B. T visit their friends.C. T take an English curse(课程)
    17. Hw lng will Lingling and Daming stay in LA?
    A. Abut fur weeks. B. Abut six weeks. C. Abut eight weeks.
    18. When will Lingling and Daming g t LA?
    A. This Friday. B. Next Friday. C. Next mnth.
    Ⅳ. 听短文和问题,选择正确答案。(共7小题,每小题1分,计7分)
    19. What des the speaker lve ding?
    A. Singing. B. Dancing. C. Playing the pian.
    20. What des the speaker think f Miss Ga?
    A. A beautiful persn. B. A gd persn. C. A cnfident persn.
    21. Hw did the speaker d in the talent shw?
    A. She failed. B. She gt nthing. C. She wn first place.
    *****************************************************************************
    22. What is the by’s dream neighburhd like?
    A. Beautiful. B. Safe. C. Quiet.
    23. What will the by d with his family in the park?
    A. Have a picnic. B. Take a walk. C. Fly a kite.
    24. Wh likes reading in the by’s family?
    A. The by. B. The by’s father. C. The by’s mther..
    25. Where will the by play basketball with his friends?
    A. In the gym. B. On the playgrund. C. In the sprts club.
    Ⅴ.听短文填空(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    Infrmatin Sheet (信息表)
    26. Mike is a(n)____________ student.
    27. Mike and his friends wrk tgether t make ___________ strng.
    28. Mike`s dream is t g t ____________ smeday.
    29. He wants t be a (an)____________ in the future.
    30. His hbbies are singing and ____________ stamps.
    笔试部分(80分)
    Ⅵ.单项选择(共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
    选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    31. We live in the same flr, but we ______ see each ther.
    A. alwaysB. ftenC. usuallyD. seldm
    32. -- Wh helped Tm ck the meal?
    -- Nbdy. He did it by ________.
    A. myself B. himself C. herself D. yurself
    33. It’s time fr us t prtect ur ________ , r we will have less clean water and fresh air.
    A. envirnmentB. educatinC. culture D. cncert
    34. -- Which sprt d yu like ________, swimming, running r skating?
    --I like skating.
    A. gd B. better C. best D. well
    35. A bridge was built ver the river. It is easier ________ the ther side f the river.
    A. reach B. reached C. reaching D. t reach
    36. -- Where are yu ging this mnth?
    -- We ________ g t Xiamen, but we are nt sure because f the COVID-19.
    A. might B. must C. shuld D. culd
    37. I always get up early n weekdays________ I’m afraid I will be late fr schl .
    A. s B. because C. but D. befre
    38. He’s ready t play in a band, and he nly ________ playing the guitar last year!
    A. gave up B. put up C. tk up D. set up
    39. --As junir middle schl students, we shuld have at mst ne and a half ________ hmewrk.
    --I agree with yu.
    A. hurB. hurs C. hur’s D. hurs’
    40. Over the past few mnths, Chinese COVID vaccines(疫苗) ________ in many ther cuntries.
    A. arrivedB. will arriveC. have arrived D. had arrived
    Ⅶ.完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    D yu have a beautiful dream? I knw almst everyne 41 their wn dreams in their life. The dreams are very imprtant 42 them. The dreams can make them 43 harder. I am studying in a schl nw. My dream is 44 a teacher in the west f China. Many children there want t g t schl 45 they can't. Their families are very pr and the parents have 46 enugh mney t send their children t schl. But ging t schl and studying is the nly 47 t change their life. Teachers are greatly needed there, s I want t be a teacher t help them. I 48 kind t my students and make friends with them. I will give them lve and teach 49 hw t be a useful persn. I think it is 50 jb in the wrld.
    41. A. hasB. haveC. is D. are
    42. A. at B. t C. in D. with
    43. A. t wrkB. t studyC. wrkD. wrking
    44. A. beB. t makeC. t dD. t be
    45. A. and B. butC. rD. s
    46. A. ntB. muchC. manyD. any
    47. A. wayB. bkC. schlD. rm
    48. A. amB. will beC. wasD. am ging t
    49. A. theyB. theirC. themD. theirs
    50. A. greatB. greaterC. the greaterD. the greatest
    Ⅷ. 阅读理解(共15题,每小题2分,共计30分)
    阅读下面A、B、C、D四篇材料,然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    Yu're ging t a freigner's party. Yu must be excited abut it. Wait a minute! D yu knw that kind f gift yu can send t yur freign friends? Here are sme tips.
    ★In sme Western cuntries, sme gifts like kites, chpsticks, r an erhu may be peple's favrites.
    ★Use beautiful paper t wrap the gifts. Remember nt t use white, black r brwn paper.
    ★Fr Japanese, gifts like tea r pens are nice. They dn't like big gifts.
    ★Fr Frenchmen, gifts like candy, perfume (香水), wine r bks are perfect.
    ★British peple and Americans like flwers, wine and chclate, and yu can relax and take it easy at their parties.
    51. In sme Western cuntries, may be peple's favrite gift (s).
    A B C D
    52. What des the underlined wrd “wrap” mean in Chinese?
    A. 装饰B. 衬托C. 捆绑D. 包裹
    53. Accrding t the passage, tea is a gd gift fr .
    A. JapaneseB. FrenchmenC. AmericansD. British peple
    B
    Last week, I asked my students what the future wuld be like. Let's lk at sme answers.
    ( )54. The teacher asked the students the questin .
    A. last Mnday B. last Tuesday
    C. last Wednesday D. last Thursday
    ( )55. Tm's rbts can't .
    A. clean the huse B. make dinners
    C. play with him D. make mney
    ( )56. Hw will Kate g t wrk in the future?
    A. By plane. B. By car. C. By bike. D. By bus.
    ( )57. What will happen in the future accrding t Frank?
    A. There will be mre students.
    B. There will be fewer teachers.
    C. Students will have mre hmewrk.
    D. Students will spend mre time n cmputers.
    C
    Last Friday my friend Debrah asked me if I wuld like t learn hw peple make tfu. I culdn't think f any gd reasn nt t be interested, s I said, “Yes.” S the next day I met with her and ther three nice peple at the Hd Sy Beanery in Oakland. I enjyed the tur. I gt a lt frm the trip. The fllwing is what I learned.
    Tfu has a histry f 2,000 years. Althugh the wrd “tfu” is frm Japanese, the fd maybe cmes frm China. There are tw main kinds f tfu, sft tfu (软豆腐) and firm tfu (硬豆腐). In sme parts f Asia, peple use tfu as a kind f meat.
    Duhua is ne kind f sft tfu. It is a ppular breakfast fd in China. Because it is very sft, peple can't eat it with chpsticks, but with a teaspn. Lts f peple eat it as a dessert and ften add green nins and sauce t it. In Malaysia, peple usually eat duhua with white r dark sugar water.
    58. When did the writer g t the Hd Sy Beanery?
    A. Last Thursday. B. Last Friday.
    C. Last Saturday. D. Last Sunday.
    59. Hw many peple went t the Hd Sy Beanery with the writer?
    A. OneB. Tw.C. Three.D. Fur.
    60. Frm the passage we can learn that the fd tfu may cme frm .
    A. JapanB. ChinaC. OaklandD. Malaysia
    D
    My mther nly had ne eye. I never wanted her t shw up at my schl. One day during the junir high schl, I was terribly ill. My mther came.
    “Yur mm nly has ne eye!” yelled (呼喊) sme f my classmates. I wished my mther wuld have just disappeared.
    “If yu embarrass me, why dn't yu just die?” I shuted at her, taking n ntice f the sad lk n her face. My mther just handed me sme medicine and left withut saying anything.
    At that time, I didn't think I had hurt her feelings very much. That night I saw my mm crying in her rm. Even s, I hated her tears frm ne eye. I made a decisin: I must study hard and leave my mther.
    Years later my dream came true. I was quite successful, I never thught f ging back t see my “ugly” mther until ne day I gt a letter.
    “My sn, I'm srry I nly have ne eye. When yu were little, yu gt int an accident and lst yur eye. As a mm, I culdn't stand watching yu live with nly ne eye. S I gave yu mine. I was never angry with yu and I never regretted it because I lve yu.”
    I cried ut alud. Only then did I realize hw beautiful my mther was!
    61. Why did NOT the writer want his mther t shw up at his schl?
    A. Because he thught she was ugly.
    B. Because his mther had a terrible illness.
    C. Because his mther culdn't see anything.
    D. Because his classmates didn't like her.
    62. Frm the underlined wrd “shuted”, we learn that at that time the writer was very .
    A. nervusB. angryC. excitedD. calm (平静的)
    63. That night, the writer decided t .
    A. take his mther t the dctr
    B. take gd care f his mther frm then n
    C. ask his mther never t g t his schl
    D. wrk hard and stay away frm his mther
    64. The writer's mther lst ne eye because .
    A. she used it t save her sn's visin (视力)B. she had a serius car accident
    C. she cried t much D. she was brn with nly ne eye
    65. The stry is mainly abut .
    A. a mther's hard wrk n teaching her sn
    B. a naughty (淘气的) by's experience f grwing up
    C. a mther's great lve fr her sn
    D. the difficulties n a by's way t success
    Ⅸ.任务型阅读。(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
    阅读短文,并按要求完成66-70题。
    Eating habits are different in different cuntries. The Chinese have a saying “Eating gd things fr breakfast, eat a big meal fr lunch, but eat less at dinner.” Many Americans agree that ne shuld start the day with a gd breakfast, but their ideas abut lunch and dinner are different.
    Mst Americans nly give themselves a shrt time fr lunch. S they eat a small lunch. After wrk, they will have mre time t eat a big dinner. They usually have a big dinner at hme with all the family talking abut their day. It is a gd way t take a rest after a lng, hard day f wrk.
    Eating at a restaurant is als different. In China, peple like t talk and laugh while eating. Very ften yu can hear peple talking and laughing ludly, and they are just having a gd time. In America it is nt like this. They dn't like the nises f the utside wrld. They want a quiet place t eat. If smene is talking t ludly, peple in the restaurant may lk at him r her angrily. If sme peple are talking t ludly, the manager f the restaurant may cme ut and ask them t be quiet.
    第66、67题完成句子;第68题简略回答问题;第69题找出全文主题句;第70题将文中画线句子译成汉语。
    66. Many Americans think that ne shuld start the day with .
    67.Mst Americans will have mre time t after wrk.
    68. What d Chinese peple like t d while eating?
    .
    69. .
    70. .
    Ⅹ.词语运用(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    根据短文内容及所给提示,补全文中单词或用所给单词的正确形式填空。
    I had a great experience last mnth. My father 71. (take) me t 72._____ (we) hmetwn. When we arrived that evening, I was very 73._____ (surprise) t see they had everything in daily lives but withut fast transprtatin! One day, I fund 74._____ bicycle shp acrss 75.f the street. I went there because I want t ride a bike. A 76._____(manage) named Tm gave me sme advice n hw t get a bike 77._____ using my smart phne. 78._____(final) with his help, I gt ne. I rde ne n the street. I wndered if peple here want fast transprtatin r nt. Mst f them said yes, 79.b_____ they hped t see the 80._____(clur) wrld utside smeday.
    Ⅺ.基础写作(包括A、B两部分,A部分5分,B部分15分,共计20分)
    (A)连词成句(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    将所给词语连成句子,标点已给出。要求:符合语法,语句通顺,大小写正确,词语不得重复使用。
    yurself, can, after, yu, lk
    ___________________________________________________________?
    82. yu, in yur spare time, t, wuld, what, d, like
    ___________________________________________________________?
    83. hw, the, rapidly, train , travels
    ___________________________________________________________!
    84. Dr. Lin, the, Xia Feng, take part in , encuraged, t, shw
    ___________________________________________________________.
    85. machine, please, the, turn n, washing
    ___________________________________________________________.
    (B)书面表达(共计15分)
    86. 国家教育部相继出台“五项管理规定”和“双减政策”,旨在合理规划学生学习时间,让学生坚持锻炼身体,合理使用智能手机,规范课外读物,养成良好生活习惯,减少家庭和社会教育投入,减轻家庭负担。作为中学生的我们应当怎样做,才能使我们身心健康,成为一名德、智、体、美、劳全面发展的人才。假设你是李华,结合下面提示写一篇英语短文。
    要求:1. 语句通顺,意思连贯,语法正确,书写规范;
    2. 必须包含所给提示,并做适当发挥;
    3. 行文中不得出现真实人名、校名或地名;
    4. 词数80左右。(短文的开头已给出,不计入总词数)
    I’m Li Hua. I am a junir middle schl student. Everyne wants t be a gd student, s d I. But hw t becme a gd student, here are sme tips.


    2022—2023学年第一学期学生素质能力监测
    八年级英语试题参考答案
    听力部分
    1-5 CBACB 6-10 ABBCA 11-15 CBCBC 16-20 CABAB 21-25 CCABA
    评分标准:1-25小题,每小题1分,计25分;
    Ⅴ. 26. excellent27. themselves 28. cllege 29. engineer 30. cllecting
    评分标准:1. 每小题1分,计5分。
    2. 凡与答案不符(包括大小写、名词复数),不得分。
    笔试部分
    31-35 DBACD 36-40 ABCDC 41-45 ABCDB 46-50 AABCD 51-53 BDA
    54—57 CDAD 58—60 CDB 61-65 ABDAC
    评分标准:1. 31-50小题,每小题1分,计20分;51~65小题,每小题2分,计30分。
    2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
    Ⅸ. 66. a gd breakfast
    67. eat a big dinner
    68. They like t talk and laugh while eating.
    69. Eating habits are different in different cuntries.
    70. 如果有人正在大声地说话,在餐厅里的人们可能会很生气地看着他或她。
    评分标准:1. 每小题2分,计10分。
    2. 67-70小题没有标点符号或标点不规范扣一分;68-69小题首字母不大写扣一分;69小题抄错一个单词扣一分。每小题累计扣分,扣完为止。
    Ⅹ. 71. tk 72.ur 73. surprised 74. a 75. frm
    76. manager 77.by 78. Finally 79.because 80. clurful
    评分标准:1. 每小题1分,计10分。
    2. 凡与答案不符不给分。
    Ⅺ. 81. Can yur lk after yurself?
    82. What wuld yu like t d in yur spare time?
    83. Hw rapidly the train travels!
    84. Dr. Lin encuraged Xia Feng t take part in the shw.
    85. Please turn n the washing machine.
    评分标准: 1. 每小题1分,计5分。 2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
    One pssible versin:
    I`m Li Hua. I am a junir middle schl student. Everyne wants t be a gd student, s d I. But hw t becme a gd student, here are sme tips.
    First, we are suppsed t use the smart phne in a prper way. We shuldn`t let it take up mst f ur time. We'd better keep away frm it. Secnd, we must listen t the teacher carefully in class and take ntes, after schl we shuld finish ur hmewrk as gd as pssible. If we have questins we must ask fr help frm ur teachers r classmates. Third, we shuld read mre gd bks. Because reading can pen ur eyes and make us knwledgeable. What`s mre, we shuld get enugh sleep and rest. "All wrk n play makes Jack a dull by." Last but nt least, we must exercise every day. Exercise can make ur bdies strnger and strnger, running can imprve ur thinking skills.
    All in all, we must develp gd habits, bth daily life and study habits are gd fr us. I think if we d these abve we can be gd students nw and gd persns in the future.
    评分原则
    1.本题总分为15分,按五个档次给分。
    2.评分时,先根据短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
    3.文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名,酌情减分。

    Tm
    In the future, I will have many rbts at hme. They can be helpful in many ways, like cleaning the huse, cking dinners and playing with me like human friends.
    Kate
    The teacher asked us an interesting questin last Wednesday. I think in the future peple will g t wrk by plane because it is mre cnvenient.
    Frank
    I think there will be n need fr students t g t schl in the future. They can stay at hme and learn things frm the teachers n the cmputers. I usually use my cmputer t find infrmatin nline.
    smart phne
    keep away frm …
    hmewrk
    finish …n time
    bks
    read gd bks
    sleep
    get enugh sleep
    health
    take exercise; frm gd habits
    一档
    13-15分
    包含了所有要点, 能围绕内容要点适当发挥,内容具体、丰富;应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇, 用词准确,句子通顺,行文连贯,表达清楚;没有或几乎没有语言错误,具备较强的语言运用能力,达到了预期的写作目的。
    二档
    10-12分
    基本包含了所有要点,并有一定发挥,内容比较丰富;应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求,句子较通顺,表达较清楚;有少量语言错误,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
    三档
    7-9分
    包含了多数要点,并有所发挥,内容不够丰富、具体,字数较少;句子不够通顺,语言表达过于简单,行文不够连贯;有部分语言错误。
    四档
    4-6分
    只包含了少数要点,内容过少;句子无条理,语言不规范,行文不连贯;语言错误较多。
    五档
    0-3分
    白卷,只包含一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关,内容杂乱,不知所云;语言很不通顺,用词很不准确;错误过多,几乎难以读懂。

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