四川省雅安市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期末检测英语试题（含答案）

这是一份四川省雅安市2022-2023学年七年级下学期期末检测英语试题（含答案），共13页。试卷主要包含了回答非选择题时，必须使用0，考试结束后，只将答题卷交回， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

2022—2023学年下期期末检测七年级
英 语 试 题
本试题卷分为A卷（选择题和非选择题）和B卷（非选择题）两部分。共10页，全卷满分120分，答题时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1.答题前，务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卷规定的位置上。
　　2.回答选择题时，必须使用2B铅笔将答题卷上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后，再选涂其它答案编号。
　　3.回答非选择题时，必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔，将答案书写在答题卡指定的位置内。
4.所有题目必须在答题卷作答，在试题卷上答题无效。
5.考试结束后，只将答题卷交回。
A卷（共100分）
第一部分 听力测试（满分20分）
一、单词、短语选择（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
本题有5个小题，每小题有A、B、C三个选项，请将你听到的那个单词或短语选出来。每题读两遍。
1. A. funny B. friendly C. lovely
2. A. station B. musician C. badminton
3. A. monkey B. money C. mountain
4. A. take photos B. grow apples C. pick strawberries
5. A. flew a kite B. made a fire C. camped by a lake
二、句子选择（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
本题有5个小题，每小题有A、B、C三个句子，请将你听到的那个句子选出来。每个句子读两遍。
6. A. Please call Mrs. Miller at 554-2741.
B. Please call Mr. Miller at 554-2741.
C. Please call Mrs. Miller at 455-7251.
7. A. At nine thirty, I brush my teeth and then go to bed.
B. At ten thirty, I brush my teeth and then go to bed.
C. At ten thirty, I wash my face and then go to bed.
8. A. Excuse me, is there a restaurant near here?
B. Excuse me, are there any restaurants near here?
C. Excuse me, are there any bookstores around here?
9. A. People cut down trees so koalas are losing their homes.
B. People cut down trees so elephants are losing their homes.
C. People cut down trees so giraffes are losing their homes.
10. A. The things at the gift shop are cheap, so I bought something.
B. The things at the store are expensive, so I didn’t buy anything.
C. The things at the gift shop are expensive, so I didn’t buy anything.
三、情景反应（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
本题有5个小题，每小题有A、B、C三个交际用语，请选出一个作为你对所听到的那个句子作出的反应。每个句子读三遍。
11. A. Yes, please. B. It doesn’t matter. C. Sorry, Ms. Clark.
12. A. Me, too. B. Thank you. C. See you.
13. A. It’s on Monday. B. Here you are. C. That sounds great.
14. A. No, I don’t. B. No, thanks. C. I like it very much.
15. A. I’m sorry. B. You are welcome. C. That’s right.
四、语篇理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
本题有一篇短文，短文之后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。短文读三遍。
16. What does Linda like?
A. Shopping. B. Exercising. C. Reading.
17. When does Linda go to the library?
A. After school. B. After dinner. C. After lunch.
18. What do Linda and her mother often do in the park?
A. Run. B. Play tennis. C. Take a walk.
19. What’s Linda’s favourite place?
A. The park. B. The library. C. The bookstore.
20. Where is the pay phone?
A. Behind the park. B. Next to the bookstore. C. In front of the bank.
第二部分 笔试（一）（满分75分）
五、单词拼读（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
在下面A、B、C、D四个选项中，有一个单词的划线部分读音与其它三个单词的划线部分的读音不同，请找出来。
21. A. between B. eraser C. camera D. forest
22. A. drive B. tiger C. arrive D. habit
23. A. another B. tooth C. there D. either
24. A. cooked B. milked C. stopped D. showed
25. A. cheap B. breakfast C. heavy D. sweater
六、单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
26. —Can you play the guitar?
— _____. But I can play the piano.
A. Yes, I can. B. No, I can’t. C. No, you can’t.
27. My brother often eats breakfast _____ seven o’clock.
A. at B. in C. on
28. My cousin usually_____ a lot of time practicing volleyball.
A. takes B. spends C. pays
29. —What is your mother doing?
—She is cooking in the _____.
A. library B. supermarket C. kitchen
30. —David, get up early, _____ you will be late for school.
A. and B. but C. or
31. I can’t see the blackboard because Jack is standing _____ me. He is so tall.
A. in front of B. behind C. next to
32. Sorry, we don’t have _____ juice. What about _____ milk?
A. some; any B. some; some C. any; some
33. Anna wants to be a teacher, because she is good _____ children.
A. at B. for C. with
34. —What do you usually do on Sundays?
—I usually _____ some books, but last Sunday I _____ the zoo.
A. reads; visit B. read; visited C. reads; visited
35. —The weather report says it will be sunny tomorrow.
—________. I want to play badminton with my friends.
A. I don’t think so B. That’s great C. No way
七、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
先阅读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后从36—45各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I am a plastic(塑料) bag. Today, I want to tell you something about my 36 .
One day, some boys 37 me from a supermarket. They put a lot of food in me. They rode their bikes and brought me to a 38 . They enjoyed the food and had a lot of fun there. 39 they were not so careful (细心的), because they forgot all about me when they 40 ! I had to stay on the beach. One day, it was 41 — the wind was very strong and it blew me into the sea (海).
I was in the 42 for many days. Then, a big fish came and 43 me. I saw another plastic bag in the big fish. Over the next few days, the fish ate more 44 things: ropes (绳子) and all kinds of plastics.
Finally, the fish died (死) and I came back onto the beach again. Some nice school children 45 me up and put me into a dustbin (垃圾桶). I hope in my next life, people can use me carefully!
36. A. job B. home C. life
37. A. told B. bought C. watched
38. A. park B. farm C. beach
39. A. Or B. And C. But
40. A. left B. rode C. slept
41. A. sunny B. windy C. cloudy
42. A. snow B. tree C. water
43. A. saw B. ate C. told
44. A. useful B. delicious C. different
45. A. picked B. got C. looked
八、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下列短文，并做后面的题目，从A、B、C三个选项中选出能回答所提问题或能完成所给句子的最佳选项。
A
How do you get to school?

Rick
I live far from school. I usually get to school by subway. The subway station is not far from my home. I walk to the subway station and take the subway. It usually takes me about twenty five minutes to get to school. Sometimes, my dad drives me to school when he goes to work.

Maria
My school is not far from my home. I usually walk to school with my friends, Jack and Tony. It’s about fifteen minutes’ walk. Sometimes we ride our bikes to school. The bike ride only takes about eight minutes to school. we like riding the bike. It’s good exercise.

Sarah
I go to school on the school bus. The bus comes at a quarter past seven and I get to school at a quarter to eight. I love to take the school bus because the bus ride is never boring. I always talk to my friends. And we can listen to many nice songs.
46. How does Rick get to school every day?
A. By bus or bike. B. By subway or car. C. On foot or by train.
47. How long does it take Maria to walk to school?
A. Half an hour. B. Fifteen minutes. C. Twenty-five minutes.
48. Why does Sarah like to take the school bus?
A. Because it’s good exercise.
B. Because the station is not far from her home.
C. Because she thinks the bus ride is interesting.
49. Whose father sometimes drives him/her to school?
A. Rick’s. B. Maria’s. C. Sarah’s.
50. What can we know from the text?
A. Maria lives far from the school.
B. Rick usually rides his bike to the subway station.
C. It takes Sarah half an hour to get to school by bus.
B
Hi Bipul,
Thank you very much for your last email. Your neighborhood is big and sounds very good. I want to come to see you one day.
Now let me tell you about my neighborhood. My neighborhood is in Nuwakot, Nepal(尼泊尔). It’s not a big one, but it’s clean. There are about twenty houses in my neighborhood. In the middle of the neighborhood, there is a school. All the children of the neighborhood go to that school. Behind the school, there is a park. We often go there after school. We enjoy our evenings there.
When we walk down the road in front of the school for five minutes, we get to a temple (寺院). We go to the temple every day in the morning. Across from the temple, there is a store. The most (最) interesting thing about my neighborhood is that there is a tree behind the temple and in the evening the tree becomes (变成) white. It is because lots of white birds come here every evening to spend their night.
Would you like to tell me about your favorite food in the next email?
Best wishes,
Naresh
51. What does Naresh think of his neighborhood?
A. Clean. B. Noisy. C. Big.
52. The school is in the place of _______.

A. ① B. ② C. ③
53. Where does Naresh go in the mornings?
A. To the park. B. To the store. C. To the temple.
54. What is the most interesting thing about Naresh’s neighborhood?
A. There are many birds there.
B. A tree becomes white at night.
C. There is a tall tree behind the temple.
55. What may Bipul write about in his next email?
A. His favorite food. B. His neighborhood. C. His favorite animal.
C
Last year I watched a TV show. The children in the show went to the Hulun Buir Prairie(呼伦贝尔草原) with their fathers. The prairie looked really beautiful and cool, so I asked my parents to take me there this year.
My father drove us there last Friday. It took us six hours on the way. When we got there, we saw a lot of sheep and cows walking on the green prairie. And the weather was really nice. It was not hot or cloudy.
When we were there, we lived with a family. The host was a very tall and nice man. He took us to his farm the next day. In the morning, we milked the cows. It looked easy but it was so difficult. For lunch, the family cooked great food for us. We had mutton and milk tea. In the afternoon, we rode horses. That was interesting!
On the third day, we went to the forest. The trees were so tall and we took lots of photos there. In the evening, we went to a big party. There were lots of people at the party. They ate, sang and danced in groups. It was great fun.
On Monday morning, after breakfast we drove back home. It was really a great trip. I hope to visit the prairie again.
56. Why did the writer want to visit the Hulun Buir Prairie?
A. Because he read a book about it.
B. Because his parents told him about it.
C. Because he watched a TV show about it.
57. How did they go to the prairie?
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By train.
58. What was the weather like when they got there?
A. Hot. B. Cold. C. Fine.
59. When did they have a party?
A. On Friday evening. B. On Saturday evening. C. On Sunday evening.
60. What can be the best title of this passage?
A. My trip to the Hulun Buir Prairie
B. How I got to the Hulun Buir Prairie
C. The best time to visit the Hulun Buir Prairie
D
People have birthday parties to celebrate(庆祝)birthdays in nearly every country in the world. And they celebrate them in many different ways.
In Brazil, the special birthday food is special candies.
In China, people eat long noodles as a wish for long life.
In Iceland, people have pancakes with sweet candies in them on birthday.
In Britain, people celebrate the birthday all day. The birthday child is lifted up (举起)by his or her classmates. It means the child can grow up happily and healthily.
In Holland, children not only get gifts, but they give things to others, too. They give cakes, cookies and candies to their classmates and teachers on their birthdays.
In Mexico, it’s good luck to give birthday greetings as early as possible in the day. So it’s usual for the birthday child to wake up at midnight, with friends singing birthday songs.
In Thailand, the birthday person holds a tall candle. The candle is as tall as the birthday person. It will bring good luck to him or her.
Birthday customs(习俗) are different in different countries. But one thing never changes—birthdays are special days for everyone.
61. Why do Chinese people eat long noodles on their birthdays?
A. Because they wish to live a long life.
B. Because they want to grow up happily and healthily.
C. Because they think it can bring good luck to them.
62. In which country do people lift up the birthday person?
A. Holland. B. Britain. C. Thailand.
63. How does the birthday person celebrate birthday in Thailand?
A. The birthday person holds a candle as tall as him or her.
B. The birthday person has pancakes with sweet candies in them.
C. The birthday person gives candies to their classmates and teachers.
64. How many countries are mentioned in this passage?
A. Six. B. Seven. C. Eight.
65. What does the writer want to tell us?
A. People in different countries celebrate their birthdays differently.
B. Birthday parties are important for people in different countries.
C. People in different countries celebrate birthdays in the same way.
九、补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从方框中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，使对话完整，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A: Excuse me. Are there any restaurants around here?
B: 66 You can ask the policeman over there.
A: Thank you all the same. (walk to the policeman...)
A: Excuse me, is there a restaurant near here?
C: Yes. And the food tastes good there. 67
A: How far is it from here?
C: 68
A: How can I get there?
C: The No. 8 bus can take you to that restaurant. It’s about 10 minutes’ ride. 69
A: I don’t want to ride the bike. 70
C: Yes. Just go along this street. Then turn left at the first crossing. Go straight on, and you can see the bus stop on your right.
A: Thanks a lot.
C: You’re welcome.
A. Could you tell me the way to the bus stop?
B. It’s about seven kilometers from here.
C. Many people enjoy eating there.
D. Or you can ride the bike there.
E. Sorry, I’m new here.







第三部分　笔试（二）（满分5分）
注意事项：第三部分和B卷答案只能用0.5毫米黑色签字笔答在答题卡指定的位置内。
十、单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据下列句子中所给汉语注释，写出空缺处各单词的正确形式。（每空只写一词）
71. Look! The boy is _____（游泳）happily in the pool.
72. The villagers’ ______ (梦想) is to have a bridge.
73. After hearing the news, he walked away ______(快速地).
74. Peter likes painting and he wants to be an ______(艺术家).
75. Most children think______ (土豆）are delicious so they eat them every day.
B卷　（共20分）
十一、短文填空（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，用方框中所给词或其适当形式填空，每个单词只能用一次，每空只能写一词。
good help two if quiet


It is important for people to get enough(足够的) sleep. Enough sleep can 76 body grow.
How much sleep do we need? Adults(成年人) need to spend 7 or 8 hours on sleep every day. Teenagers(青少年) need to spend 8 to 9 hours every day. 77 we can’t get enough sleep, we will be tired, and won’t work 78 .
Then how do we get enough sleep?
First，we should sleep in a comfortable（舒服的）place. It is dark and 79 . It is not too hot or too cold.
80 , we shouldn’t have a big meal or drink before going to bed. But we can drink a glass of warm milk or eat some fruit.
“Early to bed, early to rise” is important and helpful.
十二、书面表达（满分10分）
假如你是李华，你的英国笔友Nick写信询问你的家规，请根据以下要点给他写一封英语邮件，向他介绍你的家规以及你对这些规则的看法。
1. 每天六点起床，7点上学；
2. 在上学日，不能看电视和玩电脑游戏；
3. 晚上9:00后不能外出；
4. 放学回家，必须先完成作业；
5. 你的看法......
注意:
1. 包含所有要点, 不必逐句翻译，可适当发挥；
2. 书写规范、工整，条理清晰；
3. 不少于60词, 文章开头已经给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Nick,
I am very happy to hear from you. Let me tell you something about my family rules.






Yours,
Li Hua英语试题 参考答案
第一部分 听力测试（满分20分）
一、单词、短语选择（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1—5 C B A C B
二、 句子选择（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
6—10 A B B B C
三、 情景反应（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
11—15 C B C B B
四、 语篇理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
16—20 C A C C B
第二部分 笔试（一）（满分75分）
五、 单词拼读（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
21—25 C D B D A
六、 单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
26—30 B A B C C 31—35 A C C B B
七、 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
36—40 C B C C A 41—45 B C B C A
八、 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
46—50 B B C A C 51—55 A C C B A
56—60 C A C C A 61—65 A B A B A
九、 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
66—70 E C B D A
第三部分　笔试（二）（满分5分）
十、 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
71. swimming 72. dream 73. quickly 74. artist 75. potatoes

B卷　（共20分）
十一、 短文填空（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
76. help 77. If 78. well 79. quiet 80. Second
十二、书面表达（满分10分）
Dear Nick,
I am very happy to hear from you. Let me tell you something about my family rules. There are too many rules at my home. I must get up at 6:00 in the morning. Then I go to school at 7:00. On weekdays, I can’t watch TV or play computer games. I can’t go out after 9:00 in the evening either. After school, I have to finish my homework first. It’s terrible! I am not happy because I have to follow these rules. What can I do? Can you help me?
Yours,
Li Hua