山东省济南市莱芜区（五四制）2022-2023学年八年级下学期期末考试英语试题（含答案）

这是一份山东省济南市莱芜区（五四制）2022-2023学年八年级下学期期末考试英语试题（含答案），共12页。试卷主要包含了 A， In Wenzhu等内容，欢迎下载使用。

2022-2023学年度第二学期期末考试八年级
英语试题
本试题共12页，分选择题部分和非选择题部分，选择题部分满分90分，非选择题部分满分60分。全卷满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
答题前，请考生务必将自己的学校、班级、姓名、座位号写在答题卡的规定位置。
答题时，选择题部分每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答、直接在试题上作答无效。
考试结束后，只将答题卡交回。
选择题部分共90分
一、听力测试（共20小题，计30分）
A)听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. How is tea produced? B. Why was he famous? C.How old are you?
2. A. Do you like watching TV? B. Would you like to travel? C. Have you ever been there?
3. A. I hope to go there. B.She fell so nervous. C.They've gone to the library.
4.A. I used to be shy. B. There will be more trees. C.She is a street artist.
5.A. They like exciting vacations. B. He has finished the work. C.It helps my pronunciation.
B)在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What is Betty's father doing?
A. He's reading a book. B. He's washing the car. C. He's playing chess.
7. How does Kate go to work?
A.By bike. B.By bus. C.On foot.
8. What did Linda see last weekend?
A. Pandas. B. Elephants. C.Tigers.
9. What time did Jenny get to school this morning?
A. At 6:50. B.At 7:10 C.At 7:20
10.Where are the two speakers?
A. In the library. B. At the store. C.At the restaurant.
C)在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. How many times has Bob been to Qingdao?
A.Once. B.Twice. C. Three times.
12. How long is Lily going to stay in Qingdao?
A.For two days. B.For three days. C.For four days.
13. When is Lily leaving for Qingdao?
A. On April 28th. B. On April 29th. C. On April 30th.
14. Who is Lily going there with?
A. Her uncle. B. Her mother. C.Her father.
15. How is Lily going there?
A.By bus. B.By train. C. By plane.
D)在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. Where does Wang Ping work?
A.At school B. In a park. C. In a restaurant.
17. Who was crying for help?
A.A woman. B. An old man. C.An old woman.
18.How old was the girl?
A. She was 8 months old. B. She was 10 months old. C. She was 15 months old.
19. What did Wang Ping get out of the baby's mouth?
A. A piece of apple. B. A piece of pear. C.A piece of bread.
20. What does Wang Ping hope to do?
A. To teach English. B. To make more money. C.To help more people.
二、完形填空（共15小题，计15分）
阅读短又，从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中。选出一个能填入文章中空白处的最佳答案.
Tum left “Turn right” In the TT class. Zhang Xuan was conuolling a 21 to move around.
"This is part of 22 AI courses" said a student from Beijing 101 Middle School. The school 23 AI classes for students. Besades compulsory (必修的) courses. there are also optional (选修的)courses 24 students want to learn more.
“This term, we have learned coding(编程) through a progranming language called Python."sad Zhang. Using Python to code is a 25 skill for training AI models In recent years, Python has been tested in school exams in 26 like Beijing, Jiangsu and Anhui.
It is getting popular to have AI education in many places. Zhejiang has become a 27 example.In 2020, Zhejtang began to add AI education into 23 from Grade 5 to senior high (高中). In Wenzhou. the govemment is planning to 29 more schools by 2025.
"With the 30 of technology, our textbooks have been changing all the time "said Shang Yin. an IT 31 from Beijing 101 Middle School. "From typing 32 today's coding and AI. the courses are keeping up with the times 33 teaching students necessary skills." "In the future, AI knowledge will be used 34 . People might have to 35 things like ChatGPT. AI education will become increaingly important." Shang added.
21 A.brain B.cat C.robot D computer
22. A. his B her C their D our
23. A provides B. stops C receives D creates
24 A. unless B if C.although D until
25 A basic B. terrible C.meaningless D strange
26.A. minutes B places C. years D centuries
27 A patient B.active C. typical D. polite
28.A textbooks B.stones C.novels D.companies
29.A. translate B.enter C.build D.act
30 A development B. period C. independence D. introduction
31.A cook B teacher C. pilot D driver
32 A to B.at C.of D.with
33 A but B and C.so D.or
34 A. clearly B wisely C.carefully D. widely
35 A. steal B fail C.understand D complete
三、补全对话(共5小题，计5分）
阅读对话，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入对话空白处的最佳答案
A: Hello, Kate It's a nice day, 36
B: Yes, so cool' Let's go to school together.
A. Sure What are you going to do after class?
B: I have no idea. 37
A: I'll have a math exam next week. I want to go to the library. Would you like to go wirh me?
B: 38 I need to return some books to the library
A: Great! We can play table tennis after that.
B: 39 Are you good at playing table teanis?
A. Well. that's a good question: 40 I think I need more practice
B:OK.
36.A. isn't it? B. doesn't it?
C. didn't it? D. wasn't it ?
37.A. What's your father doing? B. What about you?
C. Where do you live? D.Who will you go with?
38 A.No,thanks. B. No problem.
C. Sure. I'd love to. D I'm sorry to hear that.
39. A. Never mind. B.You're welcome
C Don't worry D. That sounds great
40. A. I hate playing table tenais B I played tennis last weekend.
C.You're good at playing table tennis D. I haven't played it for several weeks.
四、阅读理解（共20小题，计40分）
阅读下列短文，然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
A
Oskar Schindler was born in 1908 in the Czech Republic. In 1939, he moved to Poland and bought a factory.Most of the workers were Jews(犹太人).However,as the Nazis(纳粹)began to harm the Jews.Schindler decided to help them in his factory.
To keep his workers safe, Schindler began to give officials money and spend money on supplies on the black market. In 1944. Schindler's factory was moved to Czechoslovakia, and he built a sub-camp near his factory. When the World War II ended. his factory was shut down and he had no money.
In 1982, Schindler's story came to the attention of the world. Thanks to the book, Schindler's Ark be Australian writer Thomas Keneally. In 1993, director Steven Spielberg made a movie called Schindler's List.
Today,Oskar Schindler is remembered as a hero (英雄).His story remands us that even in the darkest of times, there are still people who will stand up and try their best to help others.
41. According to the text, how old was Oskar Schindler when he moved to Poland?
A.21. B.31. C.36. D.41.
42. Oskar Schindler protected the Jewish people in .
A. the Czech Republic B. Australia
C.Germany D. Poland
43. What didn't Schindler do to keep his workers safe?
A. He paid officials to turn a blind eye.
B. He bought supphes on the black market.
C. He built a sub-camp near his factory.
D. He moved his workers to a safe country.
44. When was Schindler's story made known to the world?
A. In 1939. B. In 1944 C.In 1982. D In 1993
45. Which of the following is NOT true according to the text?
A. Schindler's Ark was a book written by Thomas Keneally.
B. Schindler's List was made in 1993 by Steven Spielberg.
C. When the World War II ended, Oskar Schindler became richer.
D. People can learn a lot from Oskar Schindler's story.
B
Spend your holiday in a mart way with these apps!

Grammarly
Grammarly is great for checking spelling, grammar and other kinds of mistakes. You can type your message. Then Grammarly will check your words and see if you made a mistake. It will show you how to fix the mistake and why it is wrong.

Fitbod
How can we exercise safely? Fitbod can show you how to exercise correctly with videos and text. You can learn how to do simple exercises. It will change to meet your needs after each exercise. Although you need to pay money to use the app, the first three times are free.

Mathway
Are you good at math? Do you have trouble in learning math? Come to Mathway now! It can show you how to solve difficult math problems. Even better.the app can explain each step for solving math problems. Mathway will make learning math much easier.

Watoo
We are all very busy. Which tasks should be done first and which should be done later? Watoo can help us sort (分类) our tasks,so we can focus more easily.We can organize our tasks by using some colorful faces. A big red face means a task is really important. A small, happy yellow face means we can take our time.

46. How many apps are shown in the text?
A.One. B.Two. C.Three. D.Four.
47. If you have trouble with grammar, you can choose for help.
A.Grammarly B.Fitbod C.Mathway D.Watoo
48. Which of the following is TRUE about Fitbod?
A. The app can help you to fix the mistakes.
B.The app can show you how to exercise correctly with a dictionary.
C. Fitbod can change to meet your needs after each exercise.
D.You don't need to pay money to use the app.
49. What can we know from the text?
A. Mathway can help you solve some difficult English problems.
B: You can get each step for solving math problems by Mathway.
C Watoo can help us finish our tasks quickly and easily.
D. We can organize our important tasks by using a small yellow face.
50. Where is the text most probably from?
A.A history book. B. A science magazine. C.A tour guide. D. A sports newspaper.
C

Beavers (河狸) are mainly found in North America. They always build their huts (小屋)on the banks of rivers or lakes, because they like moving about in the water.
When they build the huts,they make a dam(水坝)across the river for the purpose of keeping the water at the right height. These dams are usually made of stones and the branches(树枝)of trees.They are sometimes six or seven hundred feet in length. Their huts are made of the same material as the dams and are round in shape. They start building their huts late in summer. The freezing in the early cold weather makes the huts stronger.
The fur(皮)of beavers is highly prized. A hunter(猎人)once saw five young beavers playing. He moved forward very slowly and was about to shoot at them. But the little beavers reminded him of his little children at home that he reahzed it would be cruel(残忍的)to kill them. So the man left quietly.
51. According to the text, where can we mainly find beavers?
A. In North America. B. In South America.
C. In South Africa. D. In England.
52. Where do beavers build their huts?
A. In the forest. B. On the mountains. C.On the banks. D. In the rivers.
53. Which of the following is TRUE according to Paragraph 2?
A. Beavers build the dams to keep warm.
B. The dams are sometimes six or seven feet in length.
C. The dams are made of the same material as the huts.
D. The huts and the dams are round in shape.
54. When do beavers start building their huts?
A. Early in summer. B. Late in summer.
C. Late in spring. D. Early in winter.
55. What made the man give up hunting the five beavers?
A.Young beavers' fur is not highly prized.
B.The beavers were too far away to reach.
C. His children asked him not to shoot at them.
D. He realized it was cruel to kill these lovely ones.
D
It's the age of globalization(全球化)Globalization influences our daily(日常的)lives,such as entertainment, clothing and food.
Popular culture has become more globalized. People in the US enjoy listening to South African music and reading Japanese comic books. American soap operas are popular n Israel.
India has a lively movie industry called "Bollywood". Bollywood movies are popular in India.In fact, some Bollywood movies do much better in the US or the UK than they do in India.
Clothing styles have also become more uniform (统一的)because of globalization. In most parts of the world. bankers wear suits, and jeans and T-shirts are common for young people.
There has also been an increasing exchange of foods across the globe. People in England eat Indian curry, while people in Peru enjoy Japanese sushi. American fast food chains (连锁店) have become common around the world. McDonald's has more than 37,000 restaurants in over 100countries. And people all over the world are eating more meat and sugary foods.
The development of McDonald's has become a symbol of globalization. Some menu foods are the same all over the world. Other menu foods are specific(持定的)to some areas.At McDonald's in some countries in South America, a "McHuevo" is a burger topped with a fried egg. Globalization has brought McDonald's to billions of consumers(消费者) worldwide.
56.What's the structure(结构)of the text?(Paragraph I=①)

57. According to the text, Bollywood movies are popular in
A. In India B. In England C. In Japan D. In America
58. Which paragraph explains the influence of globalization on entertainment?
A. Paragraph I. B. Paragraphs I and 2. C. Paragraphs 2 and 3. D. Paragraph 4.
59. From the last two paragraphs, we can learn that
A. McDonald's is a symbol of modem food
B. McDonald's is famous for its sugary foods
C.McDonald's restaurants all over the world are the same
D. globalization brings similarities while keeping some differences
60. What is the text mainly about?
A.How globalization started.
B. How globalization influences our daily lives.
C. How globalized the world is outside of China.
D. What problems globalization brings for us.
非选择题部分共60分
注意事项：
（请按照题号顺序把答案写在答题卡相应区域。超出答题区域书写的答案无效）
五、语法填空（共10小题，计15分）
阅读短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
Ershi Wenchuang (J儿时文创) is a shop in my hometown Wuhan. 61 (t) name means"childhood culture"
In the front was an old TV. A show from the 80s 62 (play). There was 63 old bike by the door. A white box 64 (put) behind the seat. On the box was the Chinese word "popsicles (冰棍)".
Walk in, another old TV would catch your eye. It was connected to a video game: Super Mario! At first, I 65 (think) the game was boring. But once I found out my parents played it when they were kids, I was really excited 66 (try) it out. The game was easy 67 interesting. I was 68 (surprise) at how such a simple game could be so fun.
The store sells 69 (product) from the 70s, 80s and 90s. They're mostly snacks and little toys My parents often talk about the old things and old days. They went through many difficulties. 70 (Lucky), they had a fun childhood.
六、阅读理解七选五（共5小题，计10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并把答案涂在答题卡相应位置.选项中有两项为多余选项。
In China,there are many chanty(慈善) organizations. For example,the Red Cross Society of China was set up in 1904. It helps people in times of war and also helps people during disasters(灾难), like the Sichuan earthquake in 2008. The Love Without Boundanes Foundation helps China's orphans (孤儿) 71 Here are some tips for you.
72 You must have seen some donation boxes kept in stores. There is a picture or a message on the box telling where the money would go. Dropping money into the box is a simple way of helping others.
Next time, when you clean your house, collect together old things that may not be useful to you. 73 Just make sure these things are clean and usable.
74 During the holiday, you can help to teach children from poor homes, or visit old people, for example. Through volunteering, you will get new experiences and learn important skills in life. 75
A. Being a volunteer is so important.
B. It will surely help you in the future.
C. You can help others in need by becoming a volunteer.
D. Donating money is a very common way of giving.
E. However, volunteering isn't as difficult as you think.
F. There are some famous organizations around the world.
G. Then, you can donate them to a local charity organization.
七、书面表达（35分）
A.情景运用（共5小题，计10分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。

76. ?
— I'd like to visit the Great Wall.
77. Jenny, how do you study English?

78. ？
They are made of cotton.
79. What are the boys doing?
.
80. ？
He was born in Jinan.
B.作文（25分）
假如你是李华，你的英国笔友Jack来信了解你们家乡的文化，并询问你的暑假计划。请根据以下提示，给他写一封回信。
家乡文化
节日、习俗..
暑期计划
旅行、学习.……
要求：（1）词数：100左右。
(2)要点齐全，行文连贯，可适当发挥。
（3）文中不得出现真实的校名、人名等信息。
（4）开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jack,
Thanks for your e-mail.
Yours
Li Hua
2022一2023学年度第二学期期末考试八年级
英语试题参考答案及听力原文
选择题部分
（一）答案：
1-5: ABCAC 6-10: ACBAB 11-15: BBCBA 16-20: BACBC
21-25: CDABA 26-30: BCACA 31-35: BABDC 36-40: ABCDD
41-45: BDDCC 46-50: DACBB 51-55: ACCBD 56-60: BACDB
71-75: EDGCB
非选择题部分
五、语法填空（15分）
（一）答案：
61.Its 62. was playing 63.an 64. was put 65. thought
66. to try 67.but 68. surprised 69. products 70.Luckily
七、书面表达（35分）
A、情景运用（10分）
（一）答案：
76. Where would you like to visit?/What would you like to do?
77. I study English by making word cards.
78.What are the shirts made of?
79.The boys /They're playing soccer/football.
80.Where was Xin Qiji born?
2022一2023学年度第二学期期末考试八年级
英语试题听力原文
A)听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. How is tea produced?
2. Would you like to travel?
3. They've gone to the library.
4. I used to be shy.
5. It helps my pronunciation.
B)在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. M: Where is your father, Betty?
W: He's reading a book in the bedroom.
7. M: How do you go to work, Kate?
W: I get up early, so I often walk to work.
8. M: Where did you go last weekend, Linda?
W: I went to the zoo with my parents. I saw some elephants.
9. M: Who came to school earliest this morning, Jenny?
W: I did! When I got to school this morning, it was just ten to seven!
10.M: These shirts are really expensive, aren't they?
W: Yes, they are.
C)在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案，听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。
对话听两遍。
M: Hey, Lily, May Day is coming. What are you going to do for holiday?
W: Hi, Bob! I'm going to visit my uncle in Qingdao.
M: Oh, it's a beautiful city. I've been there twice. How long are you going to stay there?
W: We're going to stay there for three days.
M: When are you leaving for Qingdao?
W: I'm leaving on April 30th.
M: Who are you going with?
W: I'm going there with my mother.
M: What are you going to do there?
W: We are going to visit museums and enjoy ourselves on the beach.
M: And how are you going there?
W: We are going there by bus.
M: That sounds good. I hope you'll have a good time.
W: Thanks a lot.
D)在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
Wang Ping is a cleaner. He works in a park. Last Tuesday afternoon, while he was cleaning the park, suddenly, he heard a woman crying for help. He ran up quickly to see what happened. The woman's15-month-old baby girl choked on a small piece of pear and her face turned purple. The mother was so nervous that she didn't know how to save her daughter. Wang Ping took the baby in his arms without thinking twice. He held the baby upside down and gave her a few pats on the back. He succeeded in getting the piece of pear out of her mouth and the baby began to cry. Her mom was so thankful because her daughter was saved.
In Wang Ping's mind, helping others is just to help himself. He hoped to help more people in need if possible.
听力测试到此结束。