2023杭州高一下学期期末考试英语含答案

2022学年第二学期杭州市高一年级教学质量检测

英语试题卷

本试卷分选择题部分和非选择题部分。选择题部分1至10页，非选择题部分11页至12页。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。

考生须知：

1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。

2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。

3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。

第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What are the speakers talking about?

A. A suit.     B. A shirt.     C. A birthday.

2. What is the weather like now?

A. Sunny.     B. Rainy.     C. Windy.

3. What will Peter do next?

A. Play computer games.

B. Clean up the garden.

C. Pick up his parents.

4. How will the speakers go to the restaurant?

A. By taxi.    B. By car.     C. On foot.

5. What flavor of ice-cream does the man like best?

A. Carrot.    B. Strawberry.    C. Banana.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6.What is the relationship between the speakers?

A. Relatives.    B. Colleagues.    C. A couple.

7. What does the man thank the woman for?

A. Giving him a promotion.

B. Participating in his project.

C. Providing assistance for him.

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。

8. Why is the man's second year much better?

A. He joined clubs.   B. He loved the workload.   C. He went to Australia.

9. What's the man's major?

A. Computer Science.  B. Business Management.   C. French.

10.In how many years does the man want to graduate?

A. Three.     B. Four.       C. Five.

听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。

11. Where are the speakers?

A. In the hospital.   B. At home.      C. In a gym.

12. How does the man sound?

A. Concerned.    B. Surprised.      C. Pleased.

13. What leads to the man's quick recovery?

A. Friends' support.   B. Medicine Treatment.    C. Family's company.

听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。

14. What worries the woman?

A. The sense of loneliness.

B. The possibility of being lost.

C. Failure of the GPS.

15. Why does the man suggest taking a map?

A. A map is easy to carry.

B. Visiting sites offer no maps.

C. The phone might be out of power.

16. What is said about San Francisco?

A. It is a large city.

B. Traffic there is too heavy.

C. There is a wide range of culture.

17. What does the woman think of renting a bike?

A. Troublesome.    B. Expensive.     C. Practical.

听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。

18. Who is probably the speaker?

A. The headmaster.    B. A social worker.    C. A student.

19. What has been done in the summer?

A. Serving the community.

B. Designing new programs.

C. Improving the campus.

20. What have the local companies promised to do for students?

A. Offer job opportunities.

B. Prepare students for future career.

C. Create fun activities.

第二部分：阅读（共两节，满分50分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Air Travel Guidelines for Children

We're here to help you prepare to fly with your children. Here's how it works.

Booking a child's ticket

You'll need to buy a separate ticket if:

· You book an international flight.

· Your child is 2 years old or older at takeoff.

· Your child is a baby sitting in his or her own seat.

In some cases, children can fly for free. If everything below is true, you won't need to buy your child a separate ticket:

· You book a domestic（国内） flight.

· Your child is a baby（less than 2 years old）, at takeoff.

· Your baby sits on the legs of a traveler over the age of 12.

· No more than 1 baby is seated on the legs of a traveler.

Now for the rules, each traveler over the age of 12 may accompany（陪伴） up to 2 babies, each seated in their own seat.

Documents a child will need

The airlines determine what documents you'll need to travel. In short, if you're flying domestically, each child might need a photo ID. If you're flying intemationally, each child will need a passport. Additionally, children under 18 traveling to Mexico need to provide proved documentation and letters of permission. For more information, please visit the US Embassy（大使馆） website.

Unaccompanied children on flights

· Some airlines may charge a fee for unaccompanied child service.

· Children under 5 and over 17 might be unfit for unaccompanied child service.

· Both the adult dropping the child off at the airport and the adult picking the child up are required to show identification.

Contact your airline to ask about more information.

21. Under which condition do you have to buy a ticket for your baby girl?

A. She sits on your legs.     B. She needs a domestic flight.

C. She requires a separate seat.   D. She is under the age of 2 at takeoff.

22. What document might a child need to fly within the USA?

A. A photo ID.       B. A passport.

C. Proved documentation.    D. A letter of permission.

23. Who can use unaccompanied child service?

A. A 4-year-old boy.     B. A 10-year-old boy.

C. An 18-year-old boy.     D. A 19-year-old boy.

B

Fifteen years ago, I loved going to the gym, but family life and work commitments meant I was finding it hard to get there. With the help of my dad and uncle, I built my own gym in the garden. It's basically a beautified room with insulation（隔热层） and electries and a small heater for the winter. We built a comer desk too intending it to be for me to do the paperwork for my small business. However, the desk served its real purpose when I started my writing journey two years ago.

I've always had stories going through my mind. I could be out jogging and I'd lose myself playing out thoughts in my head like movie scenes. Once seen, they stay in there. I have trouble keeping other information, but when it comes to story ideas, they lock in. I have many full novel ideas in my head waiting to be written. When I was younger, I wasn't brave enough to write. I didn't do well in school and I've spent most of my life in physical work, so the idea of becoming a writer felt laughable.

I now know there isn't a writer type; writers come in all forms. I still use the gym for its real purpose, but some of the equipment has been replaced by books and a small bed for the time when I want to relax and read. I like to have my desk looking colorful-some might say messy. My love for sport is clear to see, with photos around of my favorite boxers and the football team I follow. On the other hand, having my own writing room is important. Without it I wouldn't be where I am now on my writing jourmey. It's far from charming, but it is mine. It's my happy place.

24. Why did the author build his own gym?

A. Because of his tight schedule.

B. Because of his small business.

C. Because of his poor financial condition.

D. Because of the encouragement of his family.

25. What can we learn about the author from paragraph 2?

A. He was jogging for more ideas.

B. He got on well with his study at achool.

C. He had the potential to become a writer.

D. He was confident about becoming a writer.

26. What is the author's gym mainly used for now?

A. Reading and business.   B. Storing books and typing.

C. Relaxing and entertaining.   D. Writing and fitness.

27. Which section of a magazine does the passage probably come from?

A. Health.   B. Life.   C. Education.   D. Opinion.

C

I've spent much of my life dealing with written and spoken words. Now I'm a technologist making use of natural language processing for human good. Given that I work in artificial intelligence（AI）, I'm realizing something dangerous happening. Machines are ruining the way we communicate.

AI voices are normalized and yet cold, no matter which accent（口音）you set your Siri or Amazon Alexa into. It's difficult to normalize language to be inoffensive because sometimes we do make people feel uncomfortable or even make them annoyed. Yet this is exactly what we're asking artificial intelligence to do for us on a billion-person scale. Once these rules are carried out by machines, they're unavoidable and create much bigger issues.

We notice that there is an active desire to only include standardized language in AI-powered tools in an attempt to avoid including potentially hateful or offensive language. And these AI-powered tools are exactly what we use to complete our thoughts almost at any given time. They are everywhere—in our emails, word processors, and web pages. The machines are pushing us into a common tongue, and we accept it as a matter of convenience. But what's the cost? We're trading uniqueness and accuracy for convenience. We're also handing the power of acceptable speech to machines not people.

In the real world, people don't communicate like a Wikipedia（维基百科） article. We use tone（语气）, humor and facial expressions. We can tell where peoplewere bon based on their accents and wording. Humans are truly unique, and our communication is constantly changing. So we should demand AI systems that promote individuality and uniqueness. We should demand to know how AI is developed and the data used to build it. Because we all deserve this.

28. What does the underlined word “inoffensive” in paragraph 2 mean?

A. Hateful    B. Valuable    C. Harmless    D. Beneficial

29. How can we promote AI voice?

A. AI voice should be legalized.   B.AI voice should be modernized.

C. AI voice should be standardized.  D. AI voice should be personalized.

30. What's the main idea of the last paragraph?

A. AI systems should be improved.

B. AI systems deserve more support.

C. AI systems are becoming more human like.

D. AI systems are destroying our communication.

31. What's the author's tone in the passage?

A.Praising.    B.Concerned.    C.Humorous.    D.Matter-of-fact.

D

“A beautiful field of flowers can be a rather noisy place. It's just that we can't hear the sounds.”Scientists at Tel Aviv University have conducted a six-year experiment, proving that plants make noise in certain stressful situations.

Plants produce a high frequency（频率） clicking sound, and when short of water, or damaged, the clicks become far more regular. They also made different sounds, depending on whether they were thirsty or injured. “Each plant and each type of stress is related to a specific sound,”said Professor Lilach Hadany, who led the research study.

Focusing particularly on tomatoes, wheat and corn, the plants were placed in a soundproof（隔音的）room and recorded by microphones. Some plants were starved of water, others cut, and a control group was left undamaged. The researchers used an algorithm（算法）to separate the noises, suecessfully telling the difference between the sounds depending on whether they were dry or cut. The algorithm did this in a greenhouse setting which included far more surrounding sounds, but it was still able to recognize the particular cries for help of the plants.

On average, the human ear can hear sounds up to around 20kHz, while the sounds produced by plants are in the 40-80kHz region, far beyond our hearing. “The sounds made by plants can't be heard by humans but can probably be heard by various animals, such as bats, mice and insects,” Hadany tells us. Though this has yet to be proven, it's possible that these creatures use this information to choose which plants to eat.

A study led by Reda Hassanien of China Agriculural University in Beijing years ago, also proved that plants reacted to sound waves, with some plants greatly increasing their yield. While evidence shows that plants can react to sounds, there's no evidence today that they can actually hear them.

32. What can we know from the six-year experiment?

A. Plants of different types make the sound of the sarpe frequeney.

B. Plants produce more regular sound in certain stressful situations.

C. Plants make sounds with a much lower frequency when stressed.

D. Plants make the sound of the same frequeney whatever the situation.

33. What is the algorithm used for in the research?

A. To record the sounds.     B. To control the sounds.

C. To produce the sounds.    D. To identify the sounds.

34. What has been proven by scientists according to the passage?

A. Plants can hear each other's ery for help.

B. Animals can hear the sounds made by plants.

C. Plants can make sounds and respond to sound waves.

D. Animals decide what to eat based on the sounds plants make.

35. Which of the following is the best title of the text?

A. Sounds That We Can't Hear

B. Beautiful Songs from Plants

C. Plants React to Different Types of Stress

D. Plants Talk, Especially When Stressed

第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

How to Celebrate Earth Day

Are you looking for ways to celebrate Earth Day on April 22? You've come to the right place. If you're ready to learn more about joining the global celebration, making real change, and doing your part to save our planet, read on!

Walk or ride your bike.    36    Even one day can make a difference, but if you can commit（承诺） to walking or biking more often in the future, that's even better! If your daily commute（通勤）is too far for walking/biking, try public transportation like buses or trains.

Plant a tree. This simple act will benefit the environment for decades. Planting a tree only takes a few minutes, but it can make a huge impact.    37    They help to save energy, clean pollution, and provide homes for many birds, insects, and other local wildlife.

Attend a local Earth Day event.    38    If your community doesn't have one planned, consider starting one yourself. It's the perfect day to get together for a fun and educational celebration of the earth.

Visit a local farmer's market. Eating locally grown food is much better for the environment. For example, locally-grown food doesn't have to be transported long distances to end up on grocery store shelves.    39  

Commit to one green act per day. You can keep reducing your carbon（碳） footprint once Earth Day is over. 40 While small changes at the individual level may not seem like a big deal, they add up over time and can have a major impact. Moving forward, make it your goal to do one small thing every day to support the environment.

A. Earth Day can be every day!

B. Trees are extremely important.

C. Treas need extra care to grow well.

D. Get out there and appreciate our beautiful world.

E. Going car-free for the day will reduce harmful gases.

F. See if your community is holding an environmental fair.

G. You'll also be giving back to your community by supporting local farmers.

第三部分：语言运用（共三节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

I went on a bird-watching hike in the South American rainforest to see some rare birds. Our guide, Carlos,   41 us through the thick trees and plants until we reached a    42    where we could spot the birds we were looking for. We waited    43    , hoping to catch a glimpse of the rare creatures.    44    ,Carlos gave us a signal and pointed to a.    45    nearby. We could hardly see anything, but Carlos had    46    one of the rare birds we were searching for.

Carlos set up his telescope and adjusted the lens（镜头）until we could see the bird    47    .We watched in awe（惊叹）as the bird flew from branch to branch, seemingly    48    by our presence. It was a beautiful sight to 49    .After a fewminutes, the bird    50    , and we continued our hike, excited by the    51    .

Bird-watching in the rainforest was a    52    and patience-testing activity, but it was worth it for the unique and unforgettable experience. It was unbelievable to see the    53    of bird species in the jungle and appreciate their beauty up close. Carlos was an excellent guide who shared his knowledge and    54    for the environment with us. I would recommend this activity to anyone who loves nature and wants to    55    the wonders of the rainforest.

41. A. led    B. helped    C. pulled    D. drove

42. A. trap   B. clearing   C. source    D. farm

43. A. in despair  B. in silence   C. with pride   D. with relief

44. A. Confusingly  B. Curiously   C. Undoubtedly  D. Suddenly

45. A. rock   B. cave    C. tree    D. stream

46. A. spotted   B. attacked   C. caught    D. saved

47. A. egularly   B. personally   C. clearly    D. briefly

48. A. amazed   B. frightened   C. unaffected   D. unhurt

49. A. take in   B. hunt for   C. stir up    D. refer to

50. A. tripped over  B. showed up   C. turmed back  D. flew away

51. A. attempt   B. performance  C. impact    D. experience

52. A. striking   B. challenging   C. worthwhile   D. beneficial

53. A. diversity  B. mystery   C. mission   D. origin

54. A. patience   B. energy    C. passion   D. intention

55. A. show   B. promote   C. create    D. witness

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Taking a gap year between high school and college can be a great way to explore your interests, gain new experiences,    56    develop skills that will benefit you in the future. For me, my gap year was    57   unforgettable adventure that allowed me    58    （step） outside my comfort zone and see the world in new ways.

During my gap year, I traveled to several    59    （country）including Thailand, Japan, and Peru. I    60 （volunteer）at a wildlife preserve in Thailand, where I worked with elephants, monkeys, and other animals. In Japan, I taught English to elementary school children, and in Peru, I worked on a farming project with a local community.

These experiences were greatly rewarding and taught me valuable lessons about the world and myself. I learned how to communicate    61    （effective） with people from different cultures, how to adapt    62    new environments and situations, and how tobe more self-sufficient and resourceful.

In addition to my travels, I also spent time    63    （explore）my passions and hobbies. I took art classes, learned how to cook new dishes, and read extensively abouttopics    64    interested me. These activities helped me to develop my creativity, curiosity, and critical thinking skills. So far these skills    65    （be）invaluable in shaping my ideas and I'm looking forward to continuing to improve them throughout my life.

第三节：单词拼写（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

根据下列句子及所给的首字母，在答题纸上按题号写出各单词的完全形式（每空限填一词）。

66. You should always r______ others no matter what their backgrounds or beliefs are.

67. Currently,many students are a______ to video games, which is very harmful to their growth.

68. The news website u______ the content of its webpages constantly to provide readers with the latest news.

69. Every time I saw the old photo, it r______ me of my happy childhood memories.

70. According to Dr. Smith, many d______ can be prevented through regular exercise and a healthy diet.

71. When it comes to study, one's attitude is of e______ importance to learning methods.

72. Sichuan food, f______ the hot taste, is widely welcomed across the country.

73. This sunny weather is not t______ of Britain, where it's usually rainy or cloudy in spring.

74. She has huge amounts of work to do every day, but she's such a positive person that she never c______ about the workload.

75. During the oubreak of Covid-19, many companies adopted f______ working hoursto ensure the safety.

第四部分：写作（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（满分15分）

你校举办了“中国非物质文化遗产进校园”的活动，请你为校英语报写一篇英语报道，内容包括：

1．活动时间；

2．活动内容；

3.活动反响。

注意：

1．词数80左右；

2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

第二节（满分15分）

阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写一段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

Summer was approaching, and Sarah and David had been eagerly looking forward to their visit to their grandpa's countryside home. They had always enjoyed their time with their grandpa, who had a kind and generous heart. His wooden house was surrounded by beautiful greenery, and the fields of flowers that spread beyond the house were breathtaking. As they packed their bags for the trip, Sarah and David could hardly control their excitement. They talked about all the activities they could do with grandpa, like playing board games and taking long walks in the countryside.

Finally, the day arrived, and the family set out on their journey to grandpa's house. The journey was a long and tiring one, but Sarah and David were too excited to feel tired. As they drew closer to their destination, they chatted even more excitedly about all the fun things they wanted to do with grandpa.

As they approached grandpa's house, he came out to greet them with a huge smile on his face. Sarah and David were overjoyed to see him and hugged him tightly. It was great to be back in grandpa's arms, and they felt the warmth and love from him.

However, shortly after they entered the house, they noticed that grandpa was not his usual self, looking pale and tired. Sarah and David felt a pang of sadness and worry in their hearts. Grandpa was not well, and they didn't know how to make him feel better.

As they sat with grandpa, trying to make him feel comfortable, Sarah remembered that grandpa loved gardening. She suggested that they could create a garden for him, which would be a lovely surprise. David was excited with the idea and immediately set to work gathering the necessary tools. They wanted to do something special for their grandpa and hoped that this would cheer him up.

注意：

1.续写词数应为100左右；

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

2022学年第二学期杭州市高一年级教学质量检测

英语参考答案及评分标准

第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）

1-5  AABBC   6-10  BCAAC   11-15  ACABC   16-20  ACACB

第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）

21-23  CAB   24-27  ACDB   28-31  CDAB   32-35  BDCD

第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）

36-40  EBFGA

第三部分语言运用（共三节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）

41-45  ABBDC  46-50  ACCAD   51-55  DBACD

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

56. and   57. an  58. to step  59. countries   60 yolunteered

61. effectively  62. to  63. exploring  64. which/that   65. have been

第三节  （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

66. respect 67. addicted  68. updates  69. reminded   70. diseases

71. equal  72. featuring  73. typical  74. complains   75. flexible

第四部分写作（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（满分15分）

Chinese Intangible Culture Heritage into Campus

Our school, in collaboration with the local museum, held an event titled “Chinese Intangible Culture Heritage into Campus” in the school hall from June 20th to June 26th. The activities included exhibitions, lectures, performances and interactive workshops. Skilled craftsmen and artists were invited to demonstrate traditional Chinese art such as paper cutting, calligraphy, and Peking opera. Our students also participated in hands-on workshops, allowing them to learn and experience these art forms firsthand. The activities were well-received by students and teachers, which has raised our awareness of protecting China's intangible cultural heritage.

第二节（满分15分）