2023年山东省泰安市东平县中考二模英语试题(含答案)
展开泰安市2023年初中学业水平模拟考试(二)
英语试题
本试卷分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分。第Ⅰ卷Ⅰ至8页,第Ⅱ卷9至12页,共150分。考试时间120分钟。
注意事项:
1.答题前,请考生仔细阅读答题卡上的注意事项,并务必按照相关要求作答。
2.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第Ⅰ卷(共80分)
第一部分听力(共25小题;1-20每小题1分;21-25每小题2分;满分30分)
(一)听句子,选择适当的应答语。每个句子读两遍。
1. A. No, I can’t. B. Yes, I had. C. Sure, I’ve learned a lot in that way.
2. A. At the age of five. B. In two years. C. Two hours later.
3. A. I went to Hong Kong.
B. I stayed at home.
C. I’m going to visit my friend in Beijing.
4. A. Last year. B. Since last year. C. One year ago.
5. A. Thanks, you’re so kind. B. I’m sure you’ll learn well. C. I like English.
(二)听五段对话,选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。你将有20秒钟的时间阅读下面5个小题。
6. Where are they probably having the talk?
A. In a museum. B. At a post office. C. In a library.
7. What wasn’t the man satisfied with in London?
A. The terrible weather. B. The bus services. C. The dirty streets and environment.
8. How often do Jason and his wife go to the movies?
A. Once a week. B. Once a month. C. Twice a week.
9. Which is the cheapest?
A. The meat. B. The chicken. C. The fish.
10. What are they talking about?
A. TV news. B. Jobs. C. Internet.
(三)听两段长对话,选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。听每段对话前你将有10秒钟的时间阅读对应的3个小题。
听第一段对话,回答11至13小题。
11. What does “black sheep” mean in the dialog?
A. A pet that the family keeps.
B. A child who always breaks rules.
C. A very well-behaved child.
12. Who changed Joe?
A. His parents. B. His friend. C. His uncle.
13. When did Joe’s life start to change?
A. When he was 8. B. When he was 18. C. When he was 28.
听第二段对话,回答14至16小题。
14. Why doesn’t Bruce buy the bag?
A. Because it is not beautiful. B. Because it is a bit expensive. C. Because it is out of style.
15. What does Bruce buy for Sally?
A. A scarf. B. A bag. C. A skirt.
16. Which is TRUE about Sally?
A. She likes green best. B. She doesn’t like bags. C. She often wears scarves.
(四)听短文,回答下面四个问题,选择正确答案。短文读两遍。你将有20秒钟的时间阅读下面4个小题。
17. Where was Diana born?
A. In Australia. B. In France. C. In England.
18. How many cats does she have?
A. 75. B. 30. C. 25.
19. When did Diana start drawing?
A. In 1993. B. In 1992. C. In 1998.
20. How long has she been swimming after work?
A. For 20 years. B. For 25 years. C. For 40 years.
(五)听短文,填表格。根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的信息,每空一词。短文读三遍。你将有20秒钟的时间阅读表格内容。答题完毕后,请将答案填写在答题卡的相应位置。
A Little“Kung Fu Master”
How long
Wang Ling has practiced Chinese kung fu for (21)______ years. At the age of five, she began to become (22)______ in it.
When
On weekdays, she takes a kung fu lesson from 6 pm to 7:30 pm after school. On (23)______, she takes the lesson from 4 pm to 5:30 pm.
Parents’ attitude
They gave her a lot of (24)______.
Her feeling
She is so (25)______of herself.
第二部分完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出能填入短文相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Archer Calder, 17, is a high school student from Texas, America. His younger sister Della was born with intellectual disabilities (智力残疾). She has difficulty in 26 and reading because of the illness. In his childhood, Archer was never able to talk with Della. It has always been his 27 to help Della communicate with others.
Archer used to search online for apps that might help Della 28 her feelings and needs. However, the result made him upset. The available apps were quite expensive—one could 29 thousands of dollars. And they didn’t offer what he wanted. Since Archer loved computer programming, he decided to develop his own app. That was how Freespeech was born.
When using Freespeech, users can see different buttons (按键) with pictures on the screen. Each picture stands for a word. When a button is 30 , the word will be read out loud. Users can make sentences to communicate by pressing different buttons in order. It’s really 31 to use.
To improve his app, Archer sometimes asks for help online. For example, when he found Della deleted his program 32 , he asked how to stop that happening again on a website. Soon, other programmers gave him some useful 33 to solve it.
Now, Archer is still trying to 34 new functions (功能) to Freespeech. He keeps working on the program, not only for Della, but also for those in the same situation as her. What’s more, he makes his app 35 open and free, which is different from other apps. He is very proud that he can provide help for more families in need through his work.
26. A. running B. speaking C. smiling
27. A. dream B. trick C. form
28. A. memorize B. express C. notice
29. A. spend B. cost C. pay
30. A. invented B. mentioned C. touched
31. A. comfortable B. safe C. simple
32. A. at least B. by mistake C. for sure
33. A. styles B. challenges C. suggestions
34. A. add B. remind C. allow
35. A. usually B. politely C. completely
第三部分阅读理解(共两节;满分40分)
第一节阅读下列短文或图表,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
A
“I’d better not take part in the tennis tryouts (选拔赛),” said my 14 year-old daughter Emily. “I’m afraid I won’t make the team.”
“Do you want to join the team?” I asked.
“Yes, but I’ll probably be out.”
“Well, you won’t succeed if you don’t try out,” said her brother Ben.
Her dad and I encouraged her to try—to take risks, to realize her dreams, and to learn it is OK to fail.
I hoped Emily would make her own decision. A few days later, however, Emily still did not make a decision. Then Ben told her, “You should try, or you’ll regret it.”At last, Emily nodded.
On Sunday night, the day before tryouts, the coach emailed the players to explain the rules. Each day, the girls could challenge the person right above them on the list. By the end of the week, the top 12 players would make the team. Emily was the lowest, Number 25 out of 25 players.
The next day, Emily went to the school playground. When I picked her up that afternoon, she was quite happy. “I beat Number 24,” she said. During the week, she continued her challenge and ended up at Number 19.
Emily didn’t make the team, but she didn’t care. She had overcome her fear, won more than she expected, and found herself pretty strong.
36. How did Emily feel about taking part in the tryouts at first?
A. Happy. B. Worried. C. Excited. D. Angry.
37. What is the rule of the tryouts?
A. The tryouts last for seven days.
B. The top 25 players will make the team.
C. Everyone can challenge the person at the top of the list.
D. Each person can only be challenged once during the tryouts.
38. Which of the following is TRUE about Emily?
A. She finally made the team. B. She got tired of the tryouts.
C. She beat six players in total. D. She didn’t want to join the team at first.
39. What can we learn from the story?
A. Practice makes perfect. B. A man can do no more than he can.
C. Where there is a will, there is a way. D. Failure is a chance to learn and grow.
B
Cathy is an American girl. Last summer, her family had a trip to China. Here is their triproute (路线).
Stop One Beijing, the capital city of China
Day1:
Arrived in Beijing by airplane
Checked in the Novotel Beijing Peace Hotel (We chose it because it is just 15 minutes’ walk to the Forbidden City.) Day2:
Walked through old streets and hutong
Learned traditional crafis (手艺)like kite making and paper cutting.
Day3 to 4:
Visited places of interest such as the Great Wall and the Summer Palace
Stop Two Xi’an, Shaanxi
Day5:
Spent about five hours on the train going there
Watched a light show
Day6:
Visited the Terracotta Warriors(兵马俑)
Visited the Xi’an City Wall
Mom and I went for a bike ride on the wall (only for adults and kids over 10 or taller than 1.4meters) while Dad and my little sister Jane took the sightseeing car.
Stop Three Shanghai, a city mixing the new and the old
Day7:
Visited the new part of Shanghai in the morning
Visited the old buildings in the afternoon
Day8:
Bought some gifts for our friends and relatives
40. How did the family go to Xi’an?
A. By air. B. By train. C. By bus. D. By car.
41. Jane didn’t join the bike ride probably because ______.
A. she was too young B. she had to leave early
C. she couldn’t speak Chinese D. she was over 1.6 meters tall
42. What can we learn from the reading?
A. The family met some friends and relatives during their stay in Shanghai.
B. Cathy learned paper cutting in Xi’an.
C. Cathy’s family stayed the longest in Beijing.
D. The weather in Shanghai was cloudy during the trip.
C
Food safety is important and it doesn’t end at our door. Eating food not kept correctly could make you fall sick. The fridge may be a perfect choice for keeping food safe and fresh, but it is not a magic box to keep all kinds of food. Follow these tips and learn how to store food correctly in your fridge.
The temperature in the fresh-keeping area can be different from shelf to shelf. As a general rule, the higher the shelf is, the higher the temperature will be. So make use of these different temperatures to get the best out of your food by storing it on the right shelf. Try to put ready-toeat food like burgers, pizza or cream cakes on top shelves. The middle shelves are most suitable for dairy products (乳制品) such as cheese, butter, yoghurt and eggs. Bottom shelves are the coldest part of the fridge, making them perfect for storing raw(生的) meat and seafood. Some fridges have a freezer (冷冻室) for keeping these things, soof course make use of that if you have one.
Keeping food in the fridge does not kill bacteria (细菌) but it can stop the bacteria from growing fast. Bacteria can grow quickly in temperatures between 5℃and 60℃. This is called the Temperature Danger Zone. If you want to get the most out of your food, the temperature in your fridge needs to be between 0℃and 5℃. The freezer temperature should be below -18℃.
Fruit and vegetables can also be stored at room temperature. Try to keep them in a cool, dry and dark place, away from direct sunlight or sources of heat. Once cut, they should be put in the fridge.
Everyone should pay attention to food safety. Hope these tips can help you keep your food fresh for as long as possible.
43. Which of the following should be put on the bottom shelves?
44. If you put some food in the Temperature Danger Zone, it will ______.
A. freeze fast B. be safe to eat
C. go bad very quickly D. taste and smell better
45. What should you do when it comes to storing fruit and vegetables?
A. Keep them cool and dry.
B. Try to keep them as wet as possible.
C. Wash them before putting them in the fridge.
D. Cut them and keep the pieces at room temperature.
46. What might be the best title of the passage?
A. Store food safely at home
B. How to pick food when you buy it
C. How to tell if your food is safe to eat
D. Stay away from Temperature Danger Zone
D
Imagine this: you and your friend are on a video call. He or she picks up a book, and you feel like you’re holding the book as well. You can shake hands or give your friend a high five, even though you’re not in the same place.
A pair of special gloves might make this possible. Researchers at the University of New South Wales, Australia, have made gloves that can recreate the sense of touch. They call this haptic device (触觉装置) a “soft skin(皮肤) stretch device” (SSD).
The SSD works like this: One person’s gloves create 3D force signals when they touch something. The signals are sent to the other person’s gloves, which vibrate (震动) to create the same force that the first person is experiencing. This allows the second person to experience the same sense of touch.
The SSD allows you to feel force, vibration and motion (移动). “It is like wearing a second skin,” said Thanh Nho Do, one of the researchers who created the gloves.
Haptic technology is already being widely used. For example, the trackpads (触控板) in laptops use vibration to make it feel like you’re using a real mouse. However, it is difficult to recreate the sense of touch in virtual (虚拟的) environments or remotely (远程地), according to Mai Thanh Thai, lead researcher of the SSD project. The SSD is special because it is highly sensitive even when it is used continuously. This makes it feel more real.
The SSD could be used in medical practice. Two doctors in separate places could work together during an operation—one touches the patient’s organs (器官) with the SSD while the other doctor feels the same feelings and completes the actual operation.
47. What does “SSD” refer to?
A. A video chat app. B. A pair of special gloves.
C.3D force signals. D. Trackpads in laptops.
48. What is Paragraph 3 mainly about?
A. What the SSD allows people to feel. B. How the SSD creates signals
C. What the SSD is used for. D. How the SSD works.
49. What makes the SSD feel more real?
A. That it can create vibrations. B. That it isn’t used remotely.
C. That it is highly sensitive. D. That it can become a part of people’s skin.
50. What do we know from the story?
A. The SSD has improved video calls in people’s daily life.
B. Haptic devices are hard to use.
C. The SSD makes remote operations possible.
D. Haptic technology is widely used in medical practice.
第二节根据短文内容,从短文后的方框中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
Running is not just a fun activity for some people; it’s a way of life.
(51) He passed down his love of the sport to his daughter. When Justine was seven years old, her father got ill and the disease (疾病) took away the thing he loved most. (52)
Her father passed away (去世) in 2010, and Justine kept running. She finished nine marathons. But one time when running a marathon, she didn’t feel well. (53) The pain got worse over the next few days. Soon, she could hardly walk. She turned to the doctors. The doctors told her that she had a special disease and couldn’t run anymore.
When Justine treated (治疗) her illness, she learned something unusual—she could still run backwards (倒着跑). She started running half marathons backwards. (54) Later, she got a Guinness World Record for the fastest backwards half marathon runner ever! She even broke her own record and set the record twice.
(55) She hopes her story can show that there’s always a way to keep doing what we love if we’re strong enough to find it. “Move forward and keep moving,” she said. “Don’t let anything stop you, and nothing is impossible.”
A. Justine Galloway’s father was a runner.
B. She was in such pain that she had to give up the race.
C. Justine no longer feels sad about not being able to run forward.
D. Justine then decided to never let anything keep her from running.
E. After finishing a few, she decided to go for the world record.
第Ⅱ卷(共70分)
第四部分书面表达(共三节)
第一节词汇运用(共两题,满分30分)
(一)单词拼写(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据句意和首字母或汉语提示,将单词的正确形式完整地写在答题卡相应的位置上。
56. The city is too n . He wants to live somewhere quiet.
57. Hugging is not a traditional way to greet people in China. We meet people by s hands instead.
58. Effective (有效的) c between parents and children may reduce fights and greatly improve their relationships.
59. Yesterday Zhao Linlin invited me to her party and I (接受了) her invitation happily.
60. These kids are too young to look after (他们自己).
(二)综合填空(共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)
根据短文内容,用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空,使文章通顺、完整。(每词限用一次)
young, country, person, finally, join, but, how, until, chance, train
How long can a person work for his or her dream? The following person can give you the answer.
After being a backup crew member (备份乘组成员) for about 25 years, Chinese astronaut Deng Qingming has (61) achieved his space dream. He carried out his first space mission (任务) with two other astronauts on the Shenzhou 15 spaceship.
The name of Deng, 56 years old, was not known to many people (62) China sent the Shenzhou 13 spaceship in October last year. His story—he was a backup for many years, (63) he still followed his space dream—touched many people.
Deng was born in a farming family in East China’s Jiangxi Province. He has four(64) brothers and sisters. As a hard- working student, he(65) the People’s Liberation Army Air Force (中国人民解放军空军) in June 1984. Then he got into a fighter jet regiment (战斗机团) in Jilin Province in November 1987. He became one of our (66) first group of 14 astronauts in 1998.
In the following years, Deng spent almost all of his time (67) and tried very hard to take every(68) to fly into space. No matter (69) difficult the road to space was, Deng never once thought of giving up.
“Be it a crew member or a backup, it is the job. And the success of the mission comes before my (70) wishes,” Deng once said.
第二节阅读表达(共6小题;71-73 小题,每小题2分;74-76小题,每小题3分,满分15分)
阅读下面的短文,并根据短文后的要求答题。(请注意问题后的字数要求)
[1]Social media (社交煤体) is certainly an interesting place to lean others’ opinions. You can read everything from strange ideas to facts and everything in between. But when you’re spending time online and reading so many opinions, it’s quite possible that you’ll sometimes see someone write something that you strongly disagree with.
[2] In fact, you might feel so strongly (74)① you feel like you should reply to this person at once.(75)你可能做一些调查,找到一些事实并且回复他们所写的。You finish writing out your reply, click (点击) “Post” and win the argument!
[3]Except that it’s not really much of a victory. Most people don’t like it when other people disagree with their ideas, especially online strangers. It’s unlikely (不大可能) that they will change their opinion just because you have(74)② with them. In fact, it’s possible that you made them feel more confident (自信的) that they’re correct.
[4]And the thing is, when you get in these kinds of fights online, it slowly influences you. You might not know it at first, but the argument that you take part in can actually have a bad effect on your mood (情绪). If you argue often, you start to enjoy arguing and then end up doing it even more. It’s a dangerous cycle (循环).
[5](76)I think the best thing to do is to tell yourself that most arguments aren’t worth it. There are much better and more interesting things to do, (74)③ online or in real life.
71. What might you do if you find that someone writes something that you strongly disagree with according to the passage? (No more than 10 words)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
72. How might most online strangers feel after you disagree with their ideas?
(No more than 10 words)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
73. What will happen to you if you argue often online? (No more than 15 words)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
74. Fill in each blank in the passage with a proper word.
①____________ ②____________ ③____________
75. Translate the underlined sentence in the second paragraph into English.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
76. Translate the underlined sentence in the fifth paragraph into Chinese.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
第三节写作(共1题,满分25分)
勇于负责是一种可贵的品质,每个人都应该对自己负责,同时,也需要对别人负责。某英文网站正在开展以“责任担当”为主题的征文活动。假如你是李华,请根据下面提示问题和写作要求,用英文写一篇短文投稿,谈谈在生活中你曾做过的一件有担当、负责任的事,以及你的感受。
提示问题:
What did you do to be responsible?
What do you think of it?
写作要求:
1.要点齐全,不要逐句翻译,可适当发挥;语句通顺,书写规范;
2.文中不得出现考生真实姓名和校名;
3.字数:100词左右。开头已给出,不计入总词数。
Taking responsibility is a valuable quality.____________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
县二模答案解析
1-20小题每题1分;21-25小题每题2分;满分30分
1-5CACBA 6-10BBABB 11-16 BCBBCA 17-20CCAC
21. four/4 22. interested 23. Saturdays 24. support 25. proud
第二部分:完形填空(每小题1分,满分10分)
26-30 BABBC 31-35 CBCAC
第三部分:阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
36-39 BACD 40-42 BAC 43-46 DCAA 47-50 BDCC
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
51-55 ADBEC
第一节(一)单词拼写(每小题2分,满分10分)
56. noisy 57. shaking 58. communication 59. accepted 60. themselves
(二)综合填空(共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)
61. finally 62. until 63. but 64. younger 65. joined 66. country’s 67. training
68. chance 69. how 70. personal
第二节阅读表达(71-73小题每题2分,74-76小题每题3分,满分15分)
71. You might reply to this person at once. /You might reply to what they’ve written at once.
72. They might feel more confident that they’re correct.
73. You will start to enjoy arguing and then end up doing it. even more.
74.①that②argued③whether
75. You might do some research, find some facts (truths) and reply to what they’ve written.
76.我想最好的办法就是告诉自己,大多数争吵都不值得。
第三节:写作(共1题,满分25分)
Taking responsibility is a valuable quality. As a responsible teenager, I try my best in everything that I am asked to do.
Last term, I joined an English Drama Club in my school. The members were divided into different groups and each group was asked to act out(把...表演出来)a play. I was asked to play a small role that had little lines(戏剧或电影的)台词,对白. I took part in every rehearsal(排练,排演)and tried my best to perform my part well. In the end, our performance was a great success, which I knew I had also contributed to.
It’s the sense of responsibility that helps us do our work well. Everyone should try hard to play his own part well no matter how small the part is.
听力试题原文
1. Have you ever studied with agroup?
2. When did Susan start playing the piano?
3. What are you going to do during the National Vacation?
4. How long have you been in China, Kevin?
5. Don’t worry. I’ll help you with your English.
6. W: What can I do for you, Sir?
M: I’d like to send these books to Beijing by air mail. How much will it cost?
7. W: Hi, Sam. Welcome back. How was your trip to London?
M: Great. It was nice to travel abroad for a few weeks. London is very clean and it has lots of trees. The problem is the bad bus services.
8. W: Hi, Jason. I hear you enjoy seeing movies very much.
M: Yes. I go to the movies every Friday evening.
W: Does your wife have the same hobby with you?
M: Yes. Every time we go there together.
9. W: How much is the meat? M: Ten yuan a kilo.
W: And what about the fish and chicken?
M: The chicken is eight yuan a kilo while the fish is eleven yuan a kilo.
10. W: Wow! There are so many jobs to choose! What’s your idea?
M: Working in the media could be fun. There is TV, newspapers. the Internet, and so on.
W: Oh! You could be a TV news directorin a few years.
(三)听两段长对话,选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。听每段对话前你将有10秒钟的时间阅读对应的3个小题。
听第一段对话,回答11至13小题。
M: I used to be the black sheep of my family.
W. “Black sheep”? What do you mean. Joe?
M: I, med to smoke, drink a lot and go out with bad duys, and my parents used to get angry with me.
W: Really? How could it be?
M: I guess I was too young to understand my parents at that time.
W: Then how did you change?
M: It was my uncle. He taught me a lesson when I was eighteen.
听第二段对话,回答14至16小题.
M: Hi, Ann. How are you?
W: Oh, hi, Bruce. What are you doing here? Are you shopping for yourself?
M: No, I’m not. I’m looking for a present for Sally. Tomorrow is her 23rd birthday. But I’m not having much success.
W: Let’s find her something together.
M: OK. Any ideas?
W: How about a bag?
M:Good idea. She likes bags. What do you think of this blue one?
W: It’s nice, but I think it’s a bit expensive.
M: I guess you are right. What about these scarves?
W: She doesn’t wear scarves. Wait! Here! These skirts are very beautiful. Oh, and they are half-price. Do you like this one?
M: That’s great. Green is her favorite color. And they're in style. OK, I’ll take this one.
(四)听短文,回答下面四个问题,选择正确答案。短文读两遍。你将有20秒钟的时间阅读下面4个小题。
My aunt Diana was born in England, but now she lives in Sydney, Australia. She has been living there since her husband, my uncle Mike died in 1992.
She’s 75 years old now, but she still works. She’s an artist. She draws pictures of cats for birthday cards. She loves cats, she has twenty-five cats.
She started drawing since 1993. At first she drew just for spending time, then for a hobby. From then on, she has never stopped drawing. So she has been drawing cats for more than twenty years. A lot of people like her drawings and buy them.
She usually starts work at 6:30 in the morning and finishes at 4:30 in the afternoon. Then she goes swimming. She has been swimming after work for forty years.
Last year I visited Australia and I stayed with her for two weeks. I had a very good holiday.
(五)听短文,填表格。
My name is Wang Ling and I come from Jinan, Shandong Province. I am only nine years old, but I have practiced Chinese kung fu for four years. At the age of five, I began to become interested in kung fu after watching an action movie. Then I decided to learn it. On weekdays, I take a kung fu lesson from 6 pm to 7:3O pm after school. On Saturdays, I take the lesson from 4 pm to 5:30 pm. I often feel tired after the lesson but I’ve never thought of giving up. Myparents gave me a lot of support. Now many people call me “Kung Fu Master”. And I can protect myself if there is a danger. I am so proud of myself.
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