2023年中考英语押题卷02（安徽卷）（含考试版、全解全析、参考答案、答题卡）

2023年中考押题预测卷02【安徽卷】

英语·听力材料

Ⅰ.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。

1. W: Be quick, or we’ll be late.

M: Don’t worry. It’s just seven now. The train will arrive in an hour.

2. W:What sport do you like to do on weekends, Andrew ?

M: I like playing soccer with my brother best. But sometimes we play baseball.

3. W: Look! There are so many students on the playground.

M: Yes. Ann is playing ping-pong with Helen. Dick and Paul are running. 

4. W: Hello, Bill! What did you do last weekend?

M: I played the drums last Saturday. And I visited my grandparents last Sunday.

5. W: In China, people never kiss each other when they meet for the first time.

M: Yes. But in the US, people often kiss or hug each other.

Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

你将听到两段对话，每段对话后几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。

听下面一段对话，回答下面6、7小题。

M: Hi, Sally. Long time no see.

W: Hi, Frank. I went to Sanya with my family last Sunday.

M: Really? When did you arrive there?

W: We drove there at 10:30 a. m., and then we went to the beach. It was so beautiful.

M: What did you do there?

W: I tried paragliding with my parents in the morning.

M: Oh! How exciting! Did you eat anything special there?

W: Yes. We ate Wenchang Chicken for lunch and it was delicious. We visited the old buildings of Sanya in the afternoon.

M: How wonderful! I want to go there next vacation.

听下面一段对话，回答8至10小题。

W: Here we are!

M: How will we get to the hotel? I guess they have something like the bus tour in Tokyo. Or we'll have to call a taxi.

W: I got a map from the tour guide. See? The hotel is not far from here. We can walk there because all the streets have names and numbers.

M: OK. I think we may go to a museum or the shopping places near the hotel this afternoon.

W: Well, I'm thinking about seeing what Chinatown is like. I hear they have some great restaurants.

M: All right. I want to try some Chinese food, too.

Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。

Hello, everyone! Do you want to know about the highest building in the world? Here is some information about it. The world’s highest building is in Dubai. It is in West Asia. It has 162 floors and is over 800 metres high. Lots of people work and live in it, so 57 lifts are used to carry them up and down.

There are many hotels, offices and homes in this building. They make people work and live easily. A small garden is on the top floor of the building. It has many green plants and colourful flowers. People can see the whole city, enjoy fresh air and stay away from the noise of the city there.

The building is a wonderful place. So more and more visitors come to visit it every year. They like this tall building because they find it really attractive.

IV. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。

On 1st June, many children have fun because it is Children’s Day. But do you know that it is also the World Milk Day? The World Milk Day began on 1st June, 2000. The Food and Agriculture Organization first started this day.On that day, people will know more about milk and know why people need milk. Milk is called “the best medicine” because it can help people become healthier and stronger. It can also help people sleep better if they drink a cup of milk before they go to sleep. Scientists say that it is a good idea for people to drink two cups of milk every day. But you’d better not have milk together with chocolate or oranges, or you’ll feel sick.

Do you drink milk every day? Don’t forget to celebrate the World Milk Day next year.

英语·参考答案

第一部分  听力（共四大题，满分20分）

1-15 CACAC  ACABC  CABBA

16. June  17. started  18. stronger  19. two/2  20. oranges

第二部分  英语知识运用（共两大题，满分30分）

V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

20-30 DBCCA  ADDDA

VI. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）

31-40 BCADB  ACADB

41-50 CBDAB  ADACD

第三部分   阅读理解（共两大题，满分45分）

VII. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

51-55 ACDBE

VIII. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）

56-58 DCA  59-61 DBA  62-65 BDCA  66-69 DABD  70-72 DCC

73. Because they think being close to nature is good for children./Because they think the survival activities are good for children.

74.They usually watch TV and play computer games./To watch TV and play computer games./Watching TV and playing computer games./What they do is to watch TV and play computer games./What they do is watching TV and playing computer games.

75.They can learn some survival skills. / They can learn to stay calm in different times, keep safe and work in team.

第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）

IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）

76. review  77. rules  78. fed  79. basic  80. Praise

X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）

Dear Sir/Madam,

I would like to recommend Kate for the Class Star Award.  ①Kate loves reading, so she knows a lot about the world. She often shares amazing filings with us. That's really interesting. Kate is kind and helpful. She is a member of the Helping Hands Club. She is ready to help others at any time. She often takes part in activities like collecting things for children in need. Last weekend, she helped the children with their lessons at the community center. Kate is interested in animals and learns a lot about them .②She tells us how to look after pets. With her help, we know that dogs like exercise a lot, so we should walk them every day.

Most of our classmates think that Kate should get this award. We look forward to hearing from you soon.

  Yours sincerely,

Nancy